Exam (elaborations) BPME and PPME Study Guide (UPDATED) ENLISTED PROFESSIONALISM Block 1 Section 1

Exam (elaborations) BPME and PPME Study Guide (UPDATED) ENLISTED PROFESSIONALISM Block 1 Section 1 Block 1 SECTION 1 MILITARY FORMATIONS 1. Drill instills discipline and fosters what kind of habits? Precision and automatic response 2. Traditionally, awards are handed out in what manner? From most senior award to most junior 3. Which of the following is NOT a reason to conduct a personnel inspection? To use as a tool to punish your Sailors 4 As a leader, you will organize your Sailors into formation for which one of the following occasions? Awards ceremony 5. During the Revolutionary War, ______________ developed a set of standardized drills for General George Washington and the Continental Army. Baron von Steuben 6. Which event would NOT require the Commanding Officer to order the ship to man the rails? Leaving the shipyards after 120 days 7. Who is known as the “Drillmaster of the American Revolution”? Baron von Steuben 8. What type of command is the first word in “Parade Rest”? Preparatory 9. At the beginning of the Revolutionary War, ______________ was the leaders' primary tool to achieve discipline in ranks. fear 10. What do you call the extreme right or left of an element? FLANK 11. As a leader, you can only command Sailors to the position of parade rest, from what position? Attention 12. Sailors are in a _____________, when placed in formation one behind the other? File 13. Which of the following events would not require you, as a leader, to hold military quarters? Refueling evolution 14. What is the distance between ranks? 40 15. A/an__________ can be a single person or a section of a larger formation. Element File 16. When giving a command, what do you call the rise and fall of the pitch in your voice? inflection 17. What order allows room for the inspecting party to step between ranks to conduct an inspection of the sailors? OPEN RANKS 18. Manning the rails in today’s Navy is equivalent to in the days of sail. Manning the yardarm and cheering 19. As a leader, which situation would cause you to expect a personnel inspection of your sailors? Prior to the seasonal uniform change SECTION 2 MILITARY UNIFORMS, CUSTOMS AND COURTESIES 1. When in a military vehicle and an officer is seen, who renders the hand salute? The right front passenger seat salutes 2. What does Title 10, U.S. Code mandate with respect to uniforms? The requirement to generate, maintain, and update the uniform regulations 3. When walking with a senior, what side do you walk on? LEFT 4. Who exits a military vehicle first? The senior leaves first 5. How do you recognize the Sergeant Major of the U.S. Army? The hat insignia and rank insignia contain the eagle from the great seal 6. What is the U.S. Army’s highest enlisted pay grade? Sergeant Major 7. What is meant by “under arms”? When wearing a side arm or carrying a weapon 8. At what distance do you begin your salute when approaching an officer? At six paces or closest point of approach. 9. The Air Force rank associated with its highest enlisted pay grade is that of ? Chief Master Sergeant 10. What is the definition of “prescribable items? Uniform items which may be directed or authorized for wear with the basic uniform. Items may be worn with basic uniforms at the individual’s discretion unless otherwise directed. 11. What Army rank is associated with the E-6 pay grade? Staff Sergeant 12. What is meant by “under arms”? When wearing a side arm or carrying a weapon 13. What is the definition of “prescribable items”? uniform items which may be directed or authorized for wear with the basic uniform. Items may be worn with the basic uniform at individual’s discretion unless otherwise directed SECTION 3 THE FLEET RESPONSE PLAN 1. Presence with a purpose” provides what? Routine 2. Which report issued a mandate for the U.S. military to transform leading to adoption of FRP? 2001 Quadrennial Defense Review 3. Who did Admiral Vern Clark task with developing a plan to replace the 18-month inter-deployment training cycle (IDTC)? Commander, Fleet Forces Command 4. When is a CSG considered surge ready? When they have completed unit level phase training 5. The Fleet Response Plan places a carrier strike group in these four categories? Emergency surge, surge ready, routine deployable, deployed 6. The Fleet Response Plan is often referred to as what? Fleet Readiness Plan 7. What time frame does the Fleet Response Plan use as its cycle? A 27-month cycle 8. At its core, the Fleet Response Plan is? a mission driven, capabilities-based response plan 9. The Fleet Response Plan calls for how many carrier strike groups to be deployable within 30 days? 6 10. When is a ship, sub, or squadron considered routine deployable? After successfully completing all necessary capabilities training including completion of underway sustainment phase training and certification of the unit for forward deployed operations 11. Which Sea Power 21 initiative changed the way the U.S. Navy deploys and trains the Fleet? Sea Basing 12. What does the 6 + 2 plan provide? 6 CSG available to deploy within 30 days, plus 2 available to deploy in 90 days 13. Due to the war on terror, Secretary of the Navy England challenged the U.S. Navy to do what? Maintain its relevance 14. Under the 27-month Fleet Response Plan, a carrier strike group is surge ready for how many months? Approximately 16 months 15. The flexible deployment concept allows units that have attained high readiness to embark on deployments in support of specific national priorities such as? homeland defense 16. When is a CSG considered in emergency surge status? When they have successfully completed their unit level phase training phase SECTION 4 CPO HISTORY, DUTIES AND RESPONSIBILITIES 1. The only article of the CPO uniform described in the 1897 Uniform Regulations was the? hat device 2. Which regulation established the grade of chief petty officer on 1 April 1893? US Navy Regulation Circular Number 1 3. On 23 May, 1978, the CNO approved new roles and responsibilities for a chief petty officer. Which of the following was a defined role? The top technical authority and expert within a rating 4. The CNO/MCPON Advisory Panel was established in 1971 to? Represent the enlisted force to Navy leadership on professional and personnel issues 5. The Career Compensation Act of 1949 established what significant change? It designated chief petty officers as paygrade E-7 instead of paygrade 1 6. What initiative led directly to the recommendation for establishing the billet of Master Chief Petty Officer of the Navy? The Retention Task Force of 1964 7. In the early 1900’s Sailors of all rates were promoted to fill what first? Voids in critical Navy billets, normally in their own command 8. During the early 1900’s chief petty officers could receive a permanent appointment based on? Satisfactory performance, as evaluated by the commanding officer 9. On 28 April 1967, ____________ became the first Master Chief Petty Officer of the Navy. GMCM Delbert Black 10. What is not a responsibility of the Master Chief Petty Officer of the Navy? Report to CNP 11. On 13 January 1967, GMCM Delbert Black was officially appointed as the first? Senior Enlisted Advisor of the Navy 12. The duties and responsibilities of a master chief petty officer in 1978 were? broadened to include contributing to command-level policy formulation 13. The paygrades of senior chief and master chief petty officer were established in what year? 1958 14. The Chief Petty Officer Core Competencies were developed to? Strengthen chief petty officer standards 15. According to the 1918 Blue Jacket’s Manual, two roles of a CPO were . Technical expert and example setter 16. In 1958, the Career Compensation Act of 1949 was amended. The Navy created the senior chief and master chief petty officer pay grades for what reason? To keep a chief beyond 20 years. SECTION 5 OVERVIEW OF MANPOWER MANAGEMENT OF THE SEL 1. TFFMS provide access to current manpower data for? resource sponsors 2. Which statement defines Projected Operational Environment (POE)? Environment in which a command is expected to operate 3. Changes to the AMD can come from what factors? Changes in mission or equipment/systems added or deleted from the platform 4. OPNAVINST 1300.15, Navy Military Personnel Assignment Policy, states Navy policy is to make only permanent change of station (PCS) moves necessary for ______________. national security and/or to ensure equitable treatment of Sailors 5. Which statement defines Projected Operational Environment (POE)? Environment in which a command is expected to operate 6. Manpower management determines manpower authorization priorities based on available funding and ______________. personal inventory 7. Where do you find current and future peacetime and mobilization manpower requirements and authorizations? Activity Manning Document (AMD) 8. Who prepares the statements detailing Required Operational Capability (ROC)? Mission and warfare sponsors Congress 9. OPNAV Instruction 1000.16, Manual of Navy Total Force Manpower Policies and Procedures, defines manpower management as a? methodical process 10. In manpower management, commands are responsible for what? Submitting requests to revise, add, or delete requirements 11. For whom does the Personnel Readiness and Support branch (PERS 4013) perform placement functions? Enlisted 12. The methodical process of determining, validating, and using manpower requirements as a basis for budget decisions defines ______________. manpower management 13. The AMD is a single source document that provides? Quantitative and qualitative manpower requirements 14. How often is the EDVR published? Monthly 15. What is the single authoritative database for MPN manpower authorizations and end strength? TFFMS 16. Placement is an advocate for and detailers are advocates for . commands, sailors NAVAL CUSTOMS 1. proclaimed the Navy Birthday as a day for reflection on Naval Heritage? Chief of Naval Operations, Admiral Jay L. Johnson 2. Why was the song “Anchors Aweigh” written? To inspire U.S. Naval Academy midshipmen at an Army-Navy football game in 1906 3. What was the objective of the Japanese attack on Midway? The Japanese hoped to lure the U.S. Pacific Fleet into a battle where they could destroy it. 4. What led to the surprise of the Japanese forces which had intended to do the same to the U.S. fleet units? Navy intelligence specialists in Hawaii discovered the plan and warned fleet 5. Which of these statements is true regarding “Anchors Aweigh”? It is played today at many athletic events and parades. 6. Two days each year are designated specifically to celebrate the U.S. Navy’s heritage. These days are ____________________. Midway Night (about 4 June) and the Navy’s Birthday (13 October) 7. Why did some Americans oppose the establishment of a Navy? All the answers are correct. 8. Have there been any changes or additions to the original version of “Anchors Aweigh”? Midshipman George D. Lottman rewrote the lyrics into their present form so that they could be usable today at a wide range of events. Midshipman Royal Lovell wrote a third stanza. 9. A popular use of the “Navy Hymn” is for the funerals of those who have served in or with the United States Navy. A president whose funeral included this hymn was ____________________. Franklin D. Roosevelt 10. What person or group of people was actually the first to expend funds to obtain services from a sea service in opposing the British military? George Washington used funds to contract for several schooners to intercept British supply ships. 11. In general terms, what did the Continental Navy accomplish during the course of the War of Independence? All the answers are correct. 12. What led to the surprise of the Japanese forces which had intended to do the same to the U.S. fleet units? Navy intelligence specialists in Hawaii discovered the plan and warned fleet headquarters. 13. Midway Night has been observed since 2000. What activities are considered appropriate to commemorate that World War II battle? All the answers are correct. 14. What is the “Navy Hymn’s” connection to the United States Naval Academy? The first stanza of the “Navy Hymn” is sung to close each chapel service during Sunday’s Divine Services 15. Advocates for a Navy in 1775, led by John Adams, proposed that a Navy was necessary for what purpose(s)? All the answers are correct. 16. The Battle of Midway is considered important for what reason? Until that point, the Japanese Navy was on the offensive and this battle was a major turning point in favor of the United States. 17. The author of “Anchors Aweigh,” Charles Adam Zimmerman, received what sort of recognition by the midshipmen? All the answers are correct. 18. Why was the date of 13 October selected to celebrate the tradition and history of the naval service? It was on that day in 1775 that the Continental Congress voted to establish a Navy by outfitting two sailing vessels to intercept British transports 19. Where did the song known as the “Navy Hymn” to United States Navy men and women originate? It is one of many compositions by American bandmaster John Philip Sousa. A schoolmaster and clergyman of the Church of England wrote the original words around 1860. It was written expressly for military religious services in the early 1900s. SECTION 2 CUSTOMS AND TRADITIONS 1. Which of the following (is a)/are title(s) given to those who cross the equator at a significant line of longitude? Golden 2. The title given to Sailors who have sailed around the southern tip of South America (Cape Horn) is? Mossback 3. Initiation rites that include hazing are ______. a violation of SECNAV Instructions 4. Among those eligible for burial at sea are ____. All the answers are correct 5. Which of these rules of etiquette apply to conduct within the boat? Avoid walking on varnished areas. NOT-Juniors surrender their seats to seniors when asked. The conduct of a Dining-In is defined by ______________. Top of Form OPNAV Instruction 1710.7 Bottom of Form 6. A junior officer serving as boat officer when his/her ship is at anchor should overrule the decisions of the coxswain only in emergency 7. The following certificate denotes Sailors who have crossed the Arctic Circle Blue Nose 8. Which of the following describes the burial at sea ceremony? Three volleys are fired, followed by “Taps.” 9. Formal dinners promote. All the answers are correct 10. The Persian Excursion certificate inducts Sailors into which special group? Mystic Society of One Thousand and One Nights 11. Which statement is an example of proper boat etiquette? Juniors board the boat first. 12. If all of the following are in a boat, which one is ultimately responsible for its safe operation? Surface Warfare Lieutenant 13. Sailors who have not crossed the equator are called ______. Pollywogs 14. The oldest of all seafaring traditions is? Burial at sea 15. What event resulted in the shift of center of the navy social life from wardroom to officers club? Alcohol was banned from navy vessels 16. the conduct of Dinning-in is defined by? OPNAV instruction 1710.7 SECTION 3 SHIP-CUSTOMS AND TRADITIONS 1. Before commissioning, a ship must complete and pass a series of Sea Trials 2. Ship launching ceremonies began at the dawn of recorded history 3. Hailing protocols are… not published in any regulation 4. The Navy’s battle streamers span the period from the Revolutionary War to Kosovo reflect Naval battles prior to WWII NOT- reflect only declared wars 5. The christening ceremony includes naming of the vessel, knocking supports away so the ship glides into the sea, and then breaking a bottle of champagne across the bow 6. The U.S. Navy was the last service to adopt battle streamers 7. The sloop Concord is notable because it was the first Navy vessel christened by a woman 8. While a ship is at anchor or at a pier the OOD stands watch on the quarterdeck 9. What is the tradition of the quarterdeck? All the answers are correct 10. On modern ships, the quarterdeck is designated by the Commanding Officer 11. The “Returning Home Pennant” is created by plank owners of the ship is an extra long commissioning pennant NOT- is always flown on return to home port 12. The “Returning Home Pennant” is distributed to the Commanding Officer, officers, and crew upon arrival in port 13. You are standing watch at night as the OOD on board a ship at anchor as a small boat approaches. You call out “Boat ahoy!” and the boat’s coxswain replies, “John Paul Jones!” He is announcing that the Captain of the John Paul Jones is on board his boat 14. All of these activities are forbidden on the quarterdeck EXCEPT walking on the port side 15. Ship christening in the U.S. Navy first was recorded for the USS Constitution in 1797 16. All of these actions take place at the commissioning ceremony of a new ship EXCEPT the Chief of Naval Operations reads the commissioning directive 17. Boat hailing protocols became necessary in the days prior to WWII, when large ships usually anchored or moored, and boating was required 18. While on watch, the Officer of the Deck (OOD). All the answers are correct 19. Today’s “Returning Home Pennant” ________. All the answers are correct. 20. Ships in the U.S. Navy _________. are typically commissioned in public ceremonies with the ship’s sponsor and other prominent guests in attendance 21. Battle streamers_____? commemorate the services of Sailors in the past 22. Stars on Navy streamers follow the practice of a bronze star for each action, and a silver star in lieu of five bronze stars Section 4 HONORS AND CEREMONIES The most traditional aspect of an official inspection is side honors are rendered to the official 2. There are three national holidays, including ceremonies involving a 21-gun salute at noon, which receive special remembrance by the U.S. Navy. These three are Washington’s Birthday, Independence Day, and Memorial Day 3. Morning and evening colors refers to ceremonies in which the national ensign is raised and lowered 4. The tradition of the shadow box dates from the days of sail in the British Navy, wards off bad luck if the person’s shadow were to hit the pier before the person, and includes a ceremonial box to contain things that reflect his/her tour 5. The highest sign of respect for traveling dignitaries is passing honors 6. Gun salutes are currently offered in five second intervals 7. In which of these circumstances are passing honors rendered? A small boat carrying the mayor of the Greek village you are anchored near comes to pay an official visit. 8. What is meant by “dressing ship”? Hoisting a display of flags in celebration of a festival. 9. At the end of their careers, all Sailors may All the answers are correct. 10. Half-masting the national ensign is a symbol of mourning and respect 11. Which of the following is a part of both the morning and evening colors ceremonies? All officers and crew face the ensign and salute 12. Instructions for planning a retirement ceremony are contained in MILPERSMAN 1800-010 13. Passing honors are All the answers are correct. 14. The Change of Command Ceremony always includes all hands called to quarters, orders read, and statements: “I relieve you, Sir,” and “I stand relieved” 15. Gun salutes were considered a sign of good faith because ____________________. in the days of sail, firing left the ship vulnerable they demonstrate the equality of nations shots deliberately were aimed away from targets Ships in the U.S. Navy ______________. Top of Form are typically commissioned in public ceremonies with the ship’s sponsor and other prominent guests in attendance Bottom of Form ETHICS AND PROFESSIONALISM FOR THE WARFIGHTER Section 1 MILITARY ETHICS OVERVIEW 1. The Principle of Utility is All of the answers are correct 2. The Western ethical heritage is descended from ancient Greece, where ethics meant “custom.” Today, military ethics are derived from our Services’ core values and heritage 3. Thoughts such as: “life has no purpose or meaning,” “truth can not be known,” and “what I do doesn't matter” best typify which one of the following? Nihilism 4. The idea of absolute truth is not a fundamental tenet of the military concept of “duty False 5. Character-based ethics argues right choices come from building good character and pursuing virtue 6. Lawlessness and looting that often follow the apparent removal of all legitimate authority from an area in the wake of war or national disaster typifies: Freedom-based ethics Character-based ethics Rule-based ethics 7. In the view of the rule-based system of ethics, there is the notion there are absolute truths and moral standards that are true at all times in all places for all people and all situations. True 8. A supposition that some mix of common sense and scientific inquiry will always lead to a conclusion that is true typifies A reason-based approach to truth and justice 9. Select the result of ethical failures by military personnel. All the answers are correct 10. Freedom-based ethics focus on Decisions arrived at based on self-interests or impulses 11. Aristotelian virtue, stoicism, and VADM Stockdale’s leadership were founded upon the ethical approach of character-based ethics 12. Relativism is a subset of the following ethical system Freedom-based ethics 13. Some relativists would question whether reality can be accurately assessed or measured. True 14. Ethical systems may be generally classified as “freedom-based,” “rule-based,” or character-based 15. An ethical person is someone who chooses to live the life people ought to live 16. Relativism postulates All the answers are correct 17. The character-based system of ethics argues right choices come from pursuing the “greatest happiness for the greatest number.” False 18. Utilitarianism is sometimes considered to be a subset of ___. consequentialism 19. Thoughts such as: “I do whatever I want,” “no one can stop me,” and “I take what I want and harm anyone who gets in my way” best typify which one of the following? Communism Criminality Anarchy 20. ________ posits that truth and right are part of natural order of things…..? Natural Law 21. Utilitarianism can best be represented by the following phrase: NOT-We should steadfastly do what is right and fulfill our moral duty regardless of what is happening around us Section 2 ETHICS IN THE PROFESSION OF ARMS 1. is the problematic philosophy of the ethical standard of “doing what is best for me;” it does nothing to preclude evil. Egoism 2. Moral development is a life-long process, with the objective of achieving moral effectiveness 3. Which one(s) of the following constitute(s) the body of moral principles or values governing military professionals? All the answers are correct. 4. Moral development theory tells us that there are sequential levels of moral reasoning. What is the ideal toward which moral development leads? It is the path to becoming a person of character. 5. Well-developed knowledge, abilities, and values in which of the following is NOT necessary for effective moral development? Moral relativism 6. Moral ____________________ is the ability to recognize when a problem is not merely a narrow, technical dilemma that lends itself merely to a narrow, technical solution, but rather is one with some richer moral content. Awareness 7. is a common bond all military professionals share based on the mutual accountability that comes with self-regulation. Corporateness 8. A military professional must utilize any means necessary to contribute to the common good. False 9. Even with moral awareness, moral reasoning, and moral courage, is it still possible to act ineffectively? Yes 10. What differentiates a mercenary from a military professional? The military professional exhibits a moral dimension earning the trust of society. 11. The ability, right, and ____________________ of self-regulation are part of what transforms an association into a profession. responsibility 12. Moral ____________________ is the willingness and desire of an individual resulting in the execution of what he or she has determined (through knowledge, instinct and/or reasoning) is the “right thing to do,” regardless of difficulty. courage 13. An expert with specialized knowledge and skill in a significant field of human endeavor” best defines. a professional 14. Moral ____________________ enables a person to work through a logical and objective process for determining and articulating reasons that distinguish right from wrong. reasoning 15. Moral development requires certain conditions to occur; people must be morally All the answers are correct 16. The key distinction(s) between a profession, craft, and art, is/are All the answers are correct 17. An officer has the obligation to exercise responsibility and be concerned with anything that might impact all of the following, EXCEPT personal recognition and remuneration 18. Which statement is NOT true regarding the professional responsibilities of military professionals? NOT-financial remuneration A military professional must take ownership well beyond the scope of any specific job. A military professional does not have an obligation with regards to influences on material and resource management 19. A key component of professional responsibility is accountability 20. Which of the following are the three recognized characteristics of all professions? Expertise, responsibility, and corporateness 21. ___________ permits a military leader to exercise the ordered use of force to achieve a desired political objective that serves the nation at large. Expertise 22. Moral ____________________ is the comprehensive ability to bring together all of one’s knowledge, skills, and values in order to accomplish the intended action. effectiveness 23. Extensive knowledge of right and wrong and sophisticated moral reasoning skills will necessarily lead to moral behavior. False 24. A Sailor has the obligation to exercise responsibility and be concerned with anything that might impact all of the following, EXCEPT ____________________. Personal recognition and remuneration 25. What constitute(s) the body of moral principles or values governing military professionals? All of the answers are correct. Section 3 ETHICS AND THE WARFIGHTER 1. In addition to granting prisoners of war certain rights, the Geneva Convention obligates prisoners of war to act in certain ways. Which of the following is NOT true regarding these obligations? The Geneva Convention forbids prisoners of war from attempting escape 2. A demonstration of moral courage is indicative of the ability to demonstrate physical courage, and vice-versa. False 3. is the good personal character and reputation of honesty and loyalty. Honor 4. Which philosopher’s proposed system of ethics is most closely associated with the Navy’s Core Values? Aristotle: “Nicomachean Ethics” 5. is/are a duty-bound standard of performance to be adhered to, even in the most difficult circumstances. The Code of Conduct 6. The Geneva Convention provides legal protection for prisoners of war 7. Which one(s) of the following allow(s) for judicial penalties after repatriation for misdeeds committed while a prisoner of war? The Uniform Code of Military Justice 8. Which of the following is NOT a precept upon which the Code of Conduct is based? Truth is relative 9. The Code of Conduct was created due to the failure of American service members to escape, and due to their contributions to the enemy’s propaganda effort during which conflict? World War II The Korean War 10. The Code of Conduct only applies if the detaining country adheres to the Geneva Convention. False 11. I will bear true faith and allegiance.” “I will obey the orders of the President of the United States and the orders of the officers appointed over me, according to regulations and the Uniform Code of Military Justice.” “I will support and defend the Constitution of the United States against all enemies, foreign and domestic.” Honor, Commitment, Courage 12. In addition to granting prisoners of war certain rights, the Geneva Convention obligates prisoners of war to act in certain ways. Which of the following is NOT true regarding these obligations? The Geneva Convention forbids prisoners of war from attempting escape. 13. The Oath of Enlistement is significant in the Profession of Arms because it clearly states a Sailor’s duty from the moment of enlistment 14. The Oath of Enlistment is clear regarding the hierarchy of loyalties. Which of the following best demonstrates this priority (highest to lowest)? Ship, shipmate, self 15. In the process of inspiring confidence in a team, a leader may need to manage the team’s perceptions of who the leader is, to the point of hiding certain information; perception management may be a legitimate goal. True 16. Which of the following, if not resolved prior to being presented with an ethical challenge, poses a risk to choosing the proper course of action in accordance with the Oath of Enlistment? Loyalty 17. When a Sailor is presented with a potential or real conflict between honesty and loyalty, which of the two is more important? This is an ethical dilemma which can not be resolved without amplifying information and/or context. 18. The primary assertion of Aristotle’s “Nicomachean Ethics” is characteristics develop from corresponding activities 19. Regarding interrogation under the terms of the Geneva Convention, which one(s) of the following is/are true? The detaining power has the right to interrogate a prisoner of war. 20. Which of the following statements is NOT part of the Code of Conduct? will not make an attempt to escape, nor aid others in their attempt to escape. 21. What value must be balanced by a healthy sense of commitment so that a team sees its contribution to the overall mission, but the individuals of the team do not think of themselves as indispensable links to mission accomplishment? Responsibility 22. Which of the following is NOT a right of prisoners of war under the Geneva Convention? The right of enlisted personnel to refuse to perform paid labor The right to practice religious faith NOT-The right to send and receive mail 23. Which of the following is NOT true regarding professional oaths? A professional oath allows for value judgments to be based on relative truths 24. is the state of being involved in an obligation and provides the wherewithal to continue in a task to the realization of its completion. Commitment Section 4 THE JUST WAR TRADITION 1. The jus ad bellum criterion of just cause has traditionally included self-defense and defense of an innocent third party under attack 2. The notion that a just war may be morally preferable to an unjust peace can be traced back ____________________. more than 1600 years 3. While the moral burden of jus in bello falls primarily on military leaders, political leaders often play a key role in establishing targeting policy, approving specific targets, and developing rules of engagement. True 4. The jus ad bellum criterion of last resort requires ____________________. that all reasonable non-violent options be explored before using military force 5. Key principles of the jus in bello are proportionality and _____. discrimination 6. In order for a war to be considered just, it must meet a majority of the criteria of jus ad bellum. False 7. The jus ad bellum criterion of proper authority limits the decision-making authority to go to war to the most senior military commanders. False 8. The moral principles of the Just War Tradition ____________________. help to set the military professional apart 9. Jus in bello relates to _______. the justification for resorting to war. 10. Jus ad bellum relates to ____________________. the justification for resorting to war NOT-the legality of the actual conduct of hostilities the legality of means for terminating armed conflict 11. The Just War Tradition is the informal name of the Laws of Armed Conflict. False 12. Key principles of the jus in bello are proportionality and ____________________. discrimination 13. Jus ad bellum and jus in bello govern all aspects of war. True 14. The jus in bello principle of discrimination requires that ____________________. non-combatants not be the direct object of attack 15. The following military personnel are considered to be non-combatants: Chaplains and medical personnel 16. The proportionality principle of jus in bello requires ____________________. that the harm done to civilians and non-combatants in a military operation not outweigh the good accomplished by the operation 17. The moral burden of jus ad bellum falls primarily on ____. political leaders 18. The jus ad bellum criterion of probability of success requires reasonable hope of accomplishing the intended good 19. All members of the U.S. military are bound by the Law of Armed Conflict and the Geneva Conventions. True 20. The just war tradition incorporates historical principles of ____________________. theology, philosophy, and law 21. The proportionality principle of jus in bello requires ____________________. NOT-that the weapons NOT-that the damage done 22. The just war tradition incorporates historical principles of ____________________. Theology, philosophy and law 23. The moral burden of jus ad bellum falls primarily on ____________________. POLITICAL LEADERS GOVERNANCE OF THE NAVY LEGISLATION AND POLICY SECTION 1 OVERVIEW OF THE MILITARY JUSTICE SYSTEM 1. Article 138 of the Uniform Code of Military Justice __________. provides a Service member the opportunity to file a complaint of wrongs against his or her commanding officer 2. Which of the following is true? The Military Rules of Evidence do not apply at nonjudicial punishment 3. The Military Rules of Evidence can be found in ___. the Manual for Courts-Martial 4. Which of the following is true? Congress cannot pass any law that would prohibit an action that is already prohibited by a state law. Congress has the authority to enact laws concerning any subject or area which it feels needs to be addressed by a federal law. Congress is limited by the Constitution to enact only those laws that relate to the authority of the federal government. 5. Which of the following is true? A general court-martial is composed of a military judge, a defense counsel, a prosecutor and at least five members. 6. A convening authority is responsible for ___________. All of the answers are correct 7. The Constitution ______________________. All of the answers are correct. 8. Which contains orders for the administration of a Navy unit? The Plan of the Day 9. Which of the following is NOT true? Because Congress has the Constitutional authority to regulate the military, the Department of Defense is part of the legislative branch of the federal government. 10. Which of the following is NOT true? A summary court-martial can have jurisdiction over all military service members 11. Which of the following is NOT true? Active duty military personnel who are captured and held by an enemy are no longer subject to the Uniform Code of Military Justice. 12. Which of the following answers will make the following statement NOT true? The Standard Organization and Regulations Manual of the U.S. Navy (SORM) __________________. is issued by the Chief of Naval Operations is issued by the Secretary of the Navy and maintained by the Chief of Naval Operations 13. Nonjudicial punishment, as provided for by Article 15 of the Uniform Code of Military Justice, is also known as _____________. Captain’s Mast 14. The Uniform Code of Military