2020/2021 PN Hesi Exit V3 COMPLETE QUESTION AND ANSWERS

2020/2021 PN Hesi Exit V3 COMPLETE QUESTION AND ANSWERS PN HESI EXIT EXAM V3 1. The leg of a client who is receiving hospice care have become mottled in appearance. When the nurse observes the unlicensed assistive personal (UAP) place a heating pad on the mottled areas, what action should the nurse take? • Remove the heating pads and place a soft blanket over the client’s leg and feet. • Advise the UAP to observe the client’s skin while the heating pads are in place. • Elevate the client’s feet on a pillow and monitor the client’s pedal pulses frequently. • Instruct the UAP to reposition the heating pads to the sides of the legs and feet. 2. A client who underwent an uncomplicated gastric bypass surgery is having difficult with diet management. What dietary instruction is most important for the nurse to explain to the client? • Chew food slowly and thoroughly before attempting to swallow • Plan volume-controlled evenly-space meal thorough the day • Sip fluid slowly with each meal and between meals • Eliminate or reduce intake fatty and gas forming food • Rationale: It is most important for the client to learn how to eat without damaging the surgical site and to keep the digestive system from dumping the food instead of digesting it. Eating volume-control and evenly-space meals thorough the day allows the client to fill full, avoid binging, and eliminate the possibility of eating too much one time. Chewing slowly and thoroughly helps prevent over eating by allowing a filling of fullness to occur. Taking sips, rather than large amounts of fluids keeps the stomach from overfilling and allow for adequate calories to be consumed. Gas forming foods and fatty foods should be avoiding to decrease risk of dumping syndrome and flatulence. 3. If the nurse is initiating IV fluid replacement for a child who has dry, sticky mucous membranes, flushed skin, and fever of 103.6 F. Laboratory finding indicate that the child has a sodium concentration of 156 mEq/L. What physiologic mechanism contributes to this finding? • The intravenous fluid replacement contains a hypertonic solution of sodium chloride • Urinary and Gastrointestinal fluid loss reduce blood viscosity and stimulate thirst • Insensible loss of body fluids contributes to the hemoconcentration of serum solutes • Hypothalamic resetting of core body temperature causes vasodilation to reduce body heat • Rationale: Fever causes insensible fluid loss, which contribute to fluid volume and results in hemoconcentration of sodium (serum sodium greater than 150 mEq/L). Dehydration, which is manifested by dry, sticky mucous membranes, and flushed skin, is often managed by replacing lost fluids and electrolytes with IV fluids that contain varying concentration of sodium chloride. Although other options are consistent with fluid volume deficit, the physiologic response of hypernatremia is explained by hem concentration. 4. During a Woman’s Health fair, which assignment is the best for the Practical Nurse (PN) who is working with a register nurse (RN) • Encourage the woman at risk for cancer to obtain colonoscopy. • Present a class of breast-self examination • Prepare a woman for a bone density screening • Explain the follow-up need it for a client with prehypertension. • Rationale: A bone density screening is a fast, noninvasive screening test for osteoporosis that can be explained by the PN. There is no additional preparation needed (A) required a high level of communication skill to provide teaching and address the client’s fear. (B) Requires a higher level of client teaching skill than responding to one client. (D) Requires higher level of knowledge and expertise to provide needed teaching regarding this complex topic. 5. An adult client present to the clinic with large draining ulcers on both lower legs that are characteristics of Kaposi’s sarcoma lesions. The client is accompanied by two family member. Which action should the nurse take? • Ask family member to wear gloves when touching the patient • Send family to the waiting area while the client’s history is taking • Obtain a blood sample to determine is the client is HIV positive • Complete the head to toes assessment to identify other sign of HIV • Rationale: To protect the client privacy, the family member should be asked to wait outside while the client’s history is take. Gloves should be worn when touching the client’s body fluids if the client is HIV positive and these lesion are actually Kaposi sarcoma lesion. HIV testing cannot legally be done without the client explicit permission. A further assessment can be implemented after the family left the room. 6. An adult client is exhibit the maniac stage of bipolar disorder is admitted to the psychiatric unit. The client has lost 10 pounds in the last two weeks and has no bathed in a week “I’m trying to start a new business and “I’m too busy to eat”. The client is oriented to time, place, person but not situation. Which nursing problem has the greatest priority? • Hygiene-self-care deficit • Imbalance nutrition • Disturbed sleep pattern • Self-neglect • Rationale: The client’s nutritional status has the highest priority at this time, and finger foods are often provided, so the client who is on the maniac phase of bipolar disease can receive adequate nutrition. Other options are nursing problems that should also be addresses with the client’s plan of care, but at this stage in the client’s treatment, adequate nutrition is a priority 7. The nurse is preparing a discharge teaching plan for a client who had a liver transplant. Which instruction is most important to include in this plan? • Limit intake fatty foods for one month after surgery. • Notify the healthcare provider if edema occurs. • Increase activity and exercise gradually, as tolerated. • Avoid crowds for first two months after surgery. • Rationale: Cyclosporine immunosuppression therapy is vital in the success of liver transplantation and can increase the risk for infection, which is critical in the first two months after surgery. Fever is often. 8. The nurse is assessing a client’s nailbeds. Witch appearance indicates further follow-up is needed for problems associated with chronic hypoxia? • 9. A client who had a percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA) two weeks ago returns to the clinic for a follow up visit. The client has a postoperative ejection fraction ejection fraction of 30%. Today the client has lungs which are clear, +1 pedal edema, and a 5pound weight gain. Which intervention the nurse implement? • Arrange transport for admission to the hospital. • Insert saline lock for IV diuretic therapy. • Assess compliance with routine prescriptions. • Instruct the client to monitor daily caloric intake. • Rationale: Fluid retention may be a sign that the client is not taking the medication as prescribed or that the prescriptions may need adjustment to manage cardiac function post-PTCA (normal ejection fraction range is 50 to 75%) 10. The RN is assigned to care for four surgical clients. After receiving report, which client should the nurse see first? The client who is • Two days postoperative bladder surgery with continuous bladder irrigation infusing. • One day postoperative laparoscopic cholecystectomy requesting pain medication. • Three days postoperative colon resection receiving transfusion of packed RBCs. • Preoperative, in buck’s traction, and scheduled for hip arthroplasty within the next 12 hours. 11. The nurse is preparing an older client for discharge following cataract extraction. Which instruction should be include in the discharge teaching? • Do not read without direct lighting for 6 weeks. • Avoid straining at stool, bending, or lifting heavy objects. • Irrigate conjunctiva with ophthalmic saline prior to installing antibiotic ointment. • Limit exposure to sunlight during the first 2 weeks when the cornea is healing. • Rationale: after cataract surgery, the client should avoid activities which increase pressure and place strain on the suture line. 12. The healthcare provider prescribes potassium chloride 25 mEq in 500 ml D_5W to infuse over 6 hours. The available 20 ml vial of potassium chloride is labeled, “10 mEq/5ml.” how many ml of potassium chloride should the nurse add the IV fluid? (Enter numeric value only. If is rounding is required, round to the nearest tenth.) • 12.5 • Rationale: Using the formula D / H X Q: 25 mEq / 10 mEq x 5ml ꞊12.5ml 13. At 40 week gestation, a laboring client who is lying is a supine position tells the nurse that she has finally found a comfortable position. What action should the nurse take? • Encourage the client to turn on her left side. • Place a pillow under the client’s head and knees. • Explain to the client that her position is not safe. • Place a wedge under the client’s right hip. • Rationale: Hypotension from pressure on the vena cava is a risk for the full-term client. Placing a wedge under the right hip will relieve pressure on the vena cava. Other options will either not relieve pressure on the vena cava or would not allow the client the remaining her position of choice. 14. A client with a history of diabetes and coronary artery disease is admitted with shortness of breath, anxiety, and confusion. The client’s blood pressure is 80/60 mmHg, heart rate 120 beats/minute with audible third and fourth heart sounds, and bibasilar crackles. The client’s average urinary output is 5 ml/hour. Normal saline is infusing at 124 ml/hour with a secondary infusion of dopamine at mcg/kg/minute per infusion pump. With intervention should the nurse implement? • Irrigate the indwelling urinary catheter. • Prepare the client for external pacing. • Obtain capillary blood glucose measurement. • Titrate the dopamine infusion to raise the BP. • Rationale: the client is experiencing cardiogenic shock and requires titration per protocol of the vasoactive secondary infusion, dopamine, to increase the blood pressure. Low hourly urine output is due to shock and does not indicate a need for catheter irrigation. Pacing is not indicated based on the client’s capillary blood glucose should be monitored, but is not directly indicated at this time. 15. The nurse ends the assessment of a client by performing a mental status exam. Which statement correctly describes the purpose of the mental status exam? • Determine the client’s level of emotional functioning’ • Assess functional ability of the primary support system. • Evaluate the client’s mood, cognition and orientation. • Review the client’s pattern of adaptive coping skill • Rational: the mental status exam assesses the client for abnormalities in cognitive functioning; potential thought processes, mood and reasoning, the other options listed are all components of the client’s psychosocial assessment. 16. An older adult resident of a long-term care facility has a 5-year history of hypertension. The client has a headache and rate the pain 5 on a pain scale 0 to 10. The client’s blood pressure is currently 142/89. Which interventions should the nurse implement? (Select all that apply) • Administer a daily dose of lisinopril as scheduled. • Assess the client for postural hypotension. • Notify the healthcare provider immediately • Provide a PRN dose of acetaminophen for headache • Withhold the next scheduled daily dose of warfarin. • Rational: the client’ routinely scheduled medication, lisinopril, is an antihypertensive medication and should be administered as scheduled to maintain the client’s blood pressure. A PRN dose of acetaminophen should be given for the client’s headache. The other options are not indicated for this situation. 17. When conducting diet teaching for a client who is on a postoperative soft diet, which foods should eat? (Select all that apply) • Pasta, noodles, rice. • Egg, tofu, ground meat. • Mashed, potatoes, pudding, milk. • Brussel sprouts, blackberries, seeds. • Corn bran, whole wheat bread, whole grains. • Rational: a client’s postoperative diet is commonly progressed as tolerated. A soft diet includes foods that are mechanically soft in texture (pasta, egg, ground meat, potatoes, and pudding. High fiber foods that require thorough chewing and gas forming foods, such as cruciferous vegetables and fresh fruits with skin, grains and seeds are omitted. 18. The nurse is preparing a 4-day-old I infant with a serum bilirubin level of 19 mg/dl (325 micromol/L) for discharge from the hospital. When teaching the parents about home phototherapy, which instruction should the nurse include in the discharge teaching plan? • Reposition the infant every 2 hours. • Perform diaper changes under the light. • Feed the infant every 4 hours. • Cover with a receiving blanket. • Rational: An infant, who is receiving phototherapy for hyperbilirubinemia, should be repositioned every two hours. The position changes ensure that the phototherapy lights reach all of the body surface areas. Bathing, feedings, and diaper changes are ways for the parents to bond with the infant, and can occur away from the treatment. Feedings need to occur more frequently than every 4 hours to prevent dehydration. The infant should wear only a diaper so that the skin is exposed to the phototherapy. 19. When planning care for a client with acute pancreatitis, which nursing intervention has the highest priority? • Withhold food and fluid intake. • Initiate IV fluid replacement. • Administer antiemetic as needed. • Evaluate intake and output ratio. • Rational: The pathophysiologic processes in acute pancreatitis result from oral fluid and ingestion that causes secretion of pancreatic enzymes, which destroy ductal tissue and pancreatic cells, resulting in auto digestion and fibrosis of the pancreas. The main focus of the nursing care is reducing pain caused by pancreatic destruction through interventions that decrease GI activity, such as keeping the client NPO. Other choices are also important intervention but are secondary to pain management. 20. An adult client experiences a gasoline tank fire when riding a motorcycle and is admitted to the emergency department (ED) with full thickness burns to all surfaces of both lower extremities. What percentage of body surface area should the nurse document in the electronic medical record (EMR)? • 9 % • 18 % • 36 % • 45 % • Rational: according to the rule of nines, the anterior and posterior surfaces of one lower extremity is designated as 18 %of total body surface area (TBSA), so both extremities equals 36% TBSA, other options are incorrect. 21. A client with hyperthyroidism is receiving propranolol (Inderal). Which finding indicates that the medication is having the desired effect? • Decrease in serum T4 levels • Increase in blood pressure • Decrease in pulse rate • Goiter no longer palpable 22. An older male client with type 2 diabetes mellitus reports that has experiences legs pain when walking short distances, and that the pain is relieved by rest. Which client behavior indicates an understanding of healthcare teaching to promote more effective arterial circulation? • Consistently applies TED hose before getting dressed in the morning. • Frequently elevated legs thorough the day. • Inspect the leg frequently for any irritation or skin breakdown • Completely stop cigarette/ cigar smoking. • Rationale: Stopping cigarette smoking helps to decrease vasoconstriction and improve arterial circulation to the extremity. 23. A community health nurse is concerned about the spread of communicable diseases among migrant farm workers in a rural community. What action should the nurse take to promote the success of a healthcare program designed to address this problem? • Establish trust with community leaders and respect cultural and family values 24. The nurse performs a prescribed neurological check at the beginning of the shift on a client who was admitted to the hospital with a subarachnoid brain attack (stroke). The client’s Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score is 9. What information is most important for the nurse to determine? • The client’s previous GCS score • When the client’s stroke symptoms started • If the client is oriented to time • The client’s blood pressure and respiration rate • Rationale: The normal GCS is 15, and it is most important for the nurse to determine if it abnormal score a sign of improvement or a deterioration in the client’s condition 25. The charge nurse in a critical care unit is reviewing clients’ conditions to determine who is stable enough to be transferred. Which client status report indicates readiness for transfer from the critical care unit to a medical unit? • Chronic liver failure with a hemoglobin of 10.1 and slight bilirubin elevation 26. Based on principles of asepsis, the nurse should consider which circumstance to be sterile? ..........