Exam (elaborations) FINAL EXAM STUDY GUIDE

Points Awarded 49.00 Points Missed 1.00 Percentage 98.0% 1. Biological agents such as bacteria and viruses differ from other injurious agents in terms of their ability to: A) affect tissues throughout the body B) cause cell death C) replicate and produce continued injury D) produce reversible cell injury Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 Correct Answer(s): C 2. What is apoptosis? A) A normal mechanism for cells to self-destruct when growth is excessive B) An antigrowth signal activated by tumor suppressor Rb C) A mutation of cell growth stimulated by the p53 gene D) The transformation of cells from dysplasia to anaplasia Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 Correct Answer(s): A 3. What is a consequence of leakage of lysosomal enzymes during chemical injury? A) Enzymatic digestion of the nucleus and nucleolus occurs halting DNA synthesis. B) Influx of potassium ions into the mitochondria occurs halting the ATP production. C) Edema of the Golgi body occurs preventing the transport of proteins out of the cell. D) Shift of calcium out of the plasma membrane occurs destroying the cytoskeleton. Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 Correct Answer(s): A 4. The abnormal proliferation of cells in response to excessive hormonal stimulation is called: A) dysplasia. B) pathologic dysplasia. C) hyperplasia. D) pathologic hyperplasia. Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 Correct Answer(s): D 5. Which cell component is capable of cellular autodigestion when it is released during cell injury? A) Ribosome B) Golgi complex C) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum D) Lysosomes Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 Correct Answer(s): D 6. Which type of cell adaptation occurs when normal columnar ciliated epithelial cells of the bronchial lining have been replaced by stratified squamous epithelial cells? A) Hyperplasia B) Metaplasia C) Dysplasia D) Anaplasia Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 Correct Answer(s): B 7. During ischemia, what effect does the loss of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) level have on cells? A) Cells shrink because of the influx of calcium (Ca). B) Cells shrink because of the influx of potassium chloride (KCl). C) Cells swell because of the influx of sodium chloride (NaCl). D) Cells swell because of the influx of nitric oxide (NO). Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 Correct Answer(s): C 8. What type of necrosis results from ischemia of neurons and glial cells? A) Coagulative necrosis B) Liquefactive necrosis C) Caseous necrosis D) Gangrene necrosis Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 Correct Answer(s): B 9. The mammary glands enlarge during pregnancy primarily as a consequence of: A) compensatory hyperplasia. B) hormonal hyperplasia. C) hormonal anaplasia. D) hormonal dysplasia. Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 Correct Answer(s): B 10. Hydropic swelling is a sign of cellular injury associated with: A) necrosis B) Na+K+ pump dysfunction C) apoptosis D) aging Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 Correct Answer(s): B 11. How are potassium and sodium transported across plasma membranes? A) By passive electrolyte channels B) By coupled channels C) By adenosine triphosphate enzyme (ATPase) D) By diffusion Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 Correct Answer(s): C 12. Cells differ in structure and function because they: A) all have different DNA and genes B) selectively express certain genes that give them their character C) selectively eliminate certain genes from the genome during development D) undergo selective mutations over time Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 Correct Answer(s): B 13. Which clinical manifestations would be expected for a child who has complete trisomy of the twentyfirst chromosome? A) Widely spaced nipples, reduced carrying angle at the elbow, and sparse body hair B) An IQ of 25 to 70, low nasal bridge, protruding tongue, and flat, low-set ears C) High-pitched voice, tall stature, gynecomastia, and an IQ of 60 to 90 D) Circumoral cyanosis, edema of the feet, short stature, and mental slowness Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 Correct Answer(s): B 14. What is transcription? A) It is the process by which DNA polymerase binds to the promoter site on RNA. B) It is the process by which RNA directs the synthesis of polypeptides for protein synthesis. C) It is the process by which RNA is synthesized from a DNA template. D) It is the process of a mutation of the amino acid sequence by a base pair substitution. Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 Correct Answer(s): C 15. What is the most commonly recognized genetic cause of mental retardation? A) Down syndrome B) Fragile X syndrome C) Klinefelter syndrome D) Turner syndrome Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 0.0/1.0 Correct Answer(s): A 16. If homologous chromosomes fail to separate during meiosis, the disorder is: A) polyploidy B) disjunction C) nondisjunction D) translocation Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 Correct Answer(s): C 17. Cri-du-chat syndrome is an abnormality of chromosomal structure involving: A) translocation B) an inversion C) duplication D) deletion Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 Correct Answer(s): D 18. A couple has two children with a genetic disease. What is the probability that the next child will have the same genetic disease? A) One sixth B) One fourth C) One third D) One half Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 Correct Answer(s): D 19. Consanguinity refers to the mating of: A) two unrelated individuals. B) persons when one has an autosomal dominant disorder. C) persons having common family relations. D) persons when one has a chromosomal abnormality. Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 Correct Answer(s): C 20. People who have neurofibromatosis have a varying degree of the condition because of the genetic principle of: A) penetrance. B) expressivity. C) dominance. D) recessiveness. Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 Correct Answer(s): B 21. Which type of immunity is produced by an individual after either natural exposure to the antigen or after immunization against the antigen? A) Passive acquired immunity B) Active acquired immunity C) Passive innate immunity D) Active innate immunity Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 Correct Answer(s): B 22. What type of immunity is produced when an immunoglobulin crosses the placenta? A) Passive acquired immunity B) Active acquired immunity C) Passive innate immunity D) Active innate immunity Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 Correct Answer(s): A 23. What is the most important determinant of immunogenicity? A) The antigen’s size B) The antigen’s foreignness C) The antigen’s complexity D) The antigen’s quantity Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 Correct Answer(s): B 24. Which immunoglobulin is present in blood, saliva, breast milk, and respiratory secretions? A) Immunoglobulin A (IgA) B) Immunoglobulin E (IgE) C) Immunoglobulin G (IgG) D) Immunoglobulin M (IgM) Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 Correct Answer(s): A 25. When looking at white blood cell differentials, nurses know that patients have early, acute inflammatory reactions when they notice elevations of which leukocyte? A) Monocytes B) Eosinophils C) Neutrophils D) Basophils Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 Correct Answer(s): C 26. What are primary characteristics that differentiate the immune response from other protective mechanisms such as inflammation? A) The immune system responds in the same way each time it is activated. B) The immune response is specific to the antigen that initiates it. C) The immune response is a short-term response to a specific pathogen. D) The immune response is an innate response, rather than acquired. Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 Correct Answer(s): B 27. What is a role of natural killer cells? A) To initiate the complement cascade B) To eliminate malignant cells C) To bind tightly to antigens D) To proliferate after immunization with antigen Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 Correct Answer(s): B 28. What process causes edema that occurs during the inflammatory process? A) Vasoconstriction B) Increased capillary permeability C) Endothelial cell contraction D) Emigration of neutrophils Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 Correct Answer(s): B 29. Which component of the plasma protein system tags pathogenic microorganisms for destruction by neutrophils and macrophages? A) Complement cascade B) Clotting system C) Kinin system D) Immune system Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 Correct Answer(s): A 30. The WBCs that migrate to a site of infection quickly are: A) monocytes B) lymphocytes C) macrophages D) neutrophils Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 Correct Answer(s): D 31. Which of the following situations represents a breach in the "first line of defense" against infection? A) an abnormally low total WBC count B) A "shift to the right" on the WBC differential C) Use of an indwelling catheter D) Poor nutritional status