NUR 3501 OB Test Bank Chapter 1 – 18.

NUR 3501 OB Test Bank Chapter 1 – 18. 1. Since 1995 there has been a significant decrease in the rate of infant death related to which of the following: a. Disorders associated with short gestation and low birth weight b. Accidents c. Sudden infant death d. Newborns affected by complications of placenta, cord, and membranes 2. Tobacco use during pregnancy is associated with adverse effects on the unborn infant such as intrauterine growth restriction, preterm births, and respiratory problems. By race, which has the highest percentages of smokers? a. American Indian and Alaskan Natives b. Asian or Pacific Islanders c. Non-Hispanic blacks d. Non-Hispanic whites 3. Which of the following women is at the highest risk for health disparity? a. A white, middle-class, 16-year-old woman b. An African American, middle-class, 25-year-old woman c. An African American, upper-middle-class, 19-year-old woman d. An Asian, low-income, 30-year-old woman 4. A neonate born at 36 weeks gestation is classified as which of the following? a. Very premature b. Moderately premature c. Late premature d. Term 5. The perinatal nurse explains to the student nurse that a goal of the Healthy People 2020 report is to: a. Increase proportion of infants who are breastfed to 93.1%. b. Increase proportion of infants who are breastfed to 90.7%. c. Increase proportion of infants who are breastfed to 85.6%. d. Increase proportion of infants who are breastfed to 83.9%. 6. The perinatal nurse explains to the student nurse that __________ is the leading cause of infant death in the United States. a. Sudden Infant Death Syndrome b. Respiratory distress of newborns c. Disorders related to short gestation and low birth weight d. Congenital malformations and chromosomal abnormalities 7. Which of the following statements are true related to teen pregnancies? (Select all that apply.) a. Teen mothers are at higher risk for HIV. b. Teen mothers are at higher risk for hypertensive problems. c. The birth rate for teenaged women has increased in the past 15 years. d. Infants born to teen mothers are at higher risk for health problems. Chapter 2: Ethics and Standards of Practice Issues Multiple Choice 4. Infants whose mothers were obese during pregnancy are at higher risk for which of the following? (Select all that apply.) a. Childhood diabetes b. Heart defects c. Hypospadias d. Respiratory distress ANS: a, b, c Fetuses and/or infants of women who were obese during pregnancy are at higher risk for spina bifida, health defects, anorectal atresia, hypospadias, intrauterine fetal death, birth injuries related to macrosomia, and childhood obesity and diabetes. Chapter 3: Genetics, Conception, Fetal Development, and Reproductive Technology Multiple Choice 1. The color of a person’s hair is an example of which of the following?a. Genomeb. Sex-link inheritancec. Genotyped. Phenotype ANS: d Feedback a. Genome is an organism’s complete set of DNA. b. Sex-link inheritance refers to genes or traits that are located only on the X chromosome. c. Genotype refers to a person’s genetic makeup. d. Correct. Phenotype refers to how genes are outwardly expressed, such as eye color, hair color, and height. KEY: Integrated Process: Teaching and Learning | Cognitive Level: Application | Content Area: Maternity | Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance | Difficulty Level: Moderate 3. The fetal circulatory structure that connects the pulmonary artery with the descending aorta is known as which of the following?a. Ductus venosusb. Foramen ovalec. Ductus arteriosusd. Internal iliac artery ANS: c Feedback a. The ductus venosus connects the umbilical vein to the inferior vena cava. b. The foramen ovale is the opening between the right and left atria. c. Correct. d. The internal iliac artery connects the external iliac artery to the umbilical artery. KEY: Integrated Process: Teaching and Learning | Cognitive Level: Knowledge | Content Area: Maternity | Client Need: Physiological Adaptation | Difficulty Level: Easy 4. A woman at 40 weeks’ gestation has a diagnosis of oligohydramnios. Which of the following statements related to oligohydramnios is correct?a. It indicates that there is a 25% increase in amniotic fluid.b. It indicates that there is a 25% reduction of amniotic fluid.c. It indicates that there is a 50% increase in amniotic fluid.d. It indicates that there is a 50% reduction of amniotic fluid. ANS: d Feedback a. Oligohydramnios is a decrease, not an increase in amniotic fluid. b. Oligohydramnios is a 50% reduction in amniotic fluid. c. Oligohydramnios is a decrease, not an increase in amniotic fluid. d. Correct. Oligohydramnios refers to a decreased amount of amniotic fluid of less than 500 mL at term or 50% reduction of normal amounts. KEY: Integrated Process: Clinical Problem Solving | Cognitive Level: Application | Content Area: Maternity | Client Need: Reduction of Risk Potential | Difficulty Level: Moderate 5. A diagnostic test commonly used to assess problems of the fallopian tubes is:a. Endometrial biopsyb. Ovarian reserve testingc. Hysterosalpingogramd. Screening for sexually transmitted infections ANS: c Feedback a. Endometrial biopsy provides information on the response of the uterus to hormonal signals. b. Ovarian reserve testing is used to assess ovulatory functioning. c. Correct. Hysterosalpingogram provides information on the endocervical canal, uterine cavity, and fallopian tubes. d. STIs can cause adhesions within the fallopian tubes, but screening cannot confirm that adhesions are present. KEY: Integrated Process: Teaching and Learning | Cognitive Level: Knowledge | Content Area: Maternity | Client Need: Safe and Effective Care Environment | Difficulty Level: Moderate 6. The nurse is interviewing a gravid woman during the first prenatal visit. The woman confides to the nurse that she lives with a number of pets. The nurse should advise the woman to be especially careful to refrain from coming in contact with the stool of which of the pets? a. Cat b. Dog c. Hamster d. Bird ANS: a Feedback a. The patient should refrain from coming in direct contact with cat feces. Cats often harbor toxoplasmosis, a teratogenic illness. b. No pathology has been associated with the feces of pet dogs. c. No pathology has been associated with the feces of pet hamsters. d. No pathology has been associated with the feces of pet birds. 7. A client is to take Clomiphene Citrate for infertility. Which of the following is the expected action of this medication? a. Decrease the symptoms of endometriosis b. Increase serum progesterone levels c. Stimulate release of FSH and LH d. Reduce the acidity of vaginal secretions 8. The nurse takes the history of a client, G2 P1, at her first prenatal visit. The client is referred to a genetic counselor, due to her previous child having a diagnosis of __________. a. Unilateral amblyopia b. Subdural hematoma c. Sickle cell anemia d. Glomerular nephritis 9. A nurse is teaching a woman about her menstrual cycle. The nurse states that __________ is the most important change that happens during the secretory phase of the menstrual cycle. a. Maturation of the graafian follicle b. Multiplication of the fimbriae c. Secretion of human chorionic gonadotropin d. Proliferation of the endometrium 10. An ultrasound of a fetus’ heart shows that “normal fetal circulation is occurring.” Which of the following statements is consistent with the finding? a. A right to left shunt is seen between the atria. b. Blood is returning to the placenta via the umbilical vein. c. Blood is returning to the right atrium from the pulmonary system. d. A right to left shunt is seen between the umbilical arteries. 11. The clinic nurse knows that the part of the endometrial cycle occurring from ovulation to just prior to menses is known as the: a. Menstrual phase b. Proliferative phase c. Secretory phase d. Ischemic phase 12. A clinic nurse explains to the pregnant woman that the amount of amniotic fluid present at 24 weeks’ gestation is approximately: a. 500 mL b. 750 mL c. 800 mL d. 1000 mL 13. Information provided by the nurse that addresses the function of the amniotic fluid is that the amniotic fluid helps the fetus to maintain a normal body temperature and also: a. Facilitates asymmetrical growth of the fetal limbs b. Cushions the fetus from mechanical injury c. Promotes development of muscle tone d. Promotes adherence of fetal lung tissue 14. During preconception counseling, the clinic nurse explains that the time period when the fetus is most vulnerable to the effects of teratogens occurs from: a. 2 to 8 weeks b. 4 to12 weeks c. 5 to 10 weeks d. 6 to 15 weeks 15. A major fetal development characteristic at 16 weeks’ gestation is: a. The average fetal weight is 450 grams b. Lanugo covers entire body c. Brown fat begins to develop d. Teeth begin to form 16. Karen, a 26-year-old woman, has come for preconception counseling and asks about caring for her cat as she has heard that she “should not touch the cat during pregnancy.” The clinic nurse’s best response is: a. It is best if someone other than you changes the cat’s litter pan during pregnancy so that you have no risk of toxoplasmosis during pregnancy. b. It is important to have someone else change the litter pan during pregnancy and also avoid consuming raw vegetables. c. Have you had any “flu-like” symptoms since you got your cat? If so, you may have already had toxoplasmosis and there is nothing to worry about. d. Toxoplasmosis is a concern during pregnancy, so it is important to have someone else change the cat’s litter pan and also to avoid consuming uncooked meat. 17. A couple who has sought infertility counseling has been told that the man’s sperm count is very low. The nurse advises the couple that spermatogenesis is impaired when which of the following occur? a. The testes are overheated. b. The vas deferens is ligated. c. The prostate gland is enlarged. d. The flagella are segmented. 18. A nurse working with an infertile couple has made the following nursing diagnosis: Sexual dysfunction related to decreased libido. Which of the following assessments is the likely reason for this diagnosis? a. The couple has established a set schedule for their sexual encounters. b. The couple has been married for more than 8 years. c. The couple lives with one set of parents. d. The couple has close friends who gave birth within the last year. True/False 19. The perinatal nurse explains to the student nurse that in the fetal circulation, the lowest level of oxygen concentration is found in the umbilical arteries. TRUE Fill-in-the-Blank 20. After birth, the perinatal nurse explains to the new mother that PROLACTIN is the hormone responsible for stimulating milk production. 21. During prenatal class, the childbirth educator describes the two membranes that envelop the fetus. The Amnion contains the amniotic fluid, and the Chorion is the thick, outer membrane. ANS: amnion; chorion The embryonic membranes (chorion and amnion) are early protective structures that begin to form at the time of implantation. The thick chorion, or outer membrane, forms first. It develops from the trophoblast and encloses the amnion, embryo, and yolk sac. The amnion arises from the ectoderm during early embryonic development. The amnion is a thin, protective structure that contains the amniotic fluid. With embryonic growth, the amnion expands and comes into contact with the chorion. The two fetal membranes are slightly adherent and form the amniotic sac. KEY: Integrated Process: Teaching and Learning | Cognitive Level: Knowledge | Content Area: Maternity | Client Need: Safe and Effective Care Environment | Difficulty Level: Easy 22. The perinatal nurse is teaching nursing students about fetal circulation and explains that fetal blood flows through the superior vena cava into the right Atrium via the FORAMEN OVALE 23. The perinatal nurse explains to the student nurse that the growing embryo is called a FETUS beginning at 8 weeks of gestational age. 24. The perinatal nurse defines a TETERAGEN as any substance that adversely affects the growth and development of the embryo/fetus. 25. __________ __________ __________ is when sperm and oocytes are mixed outside the woman’s body and then placed into the fallopian tube via laparoscopy. ANS: Gamete intrafallopian transfer Gamete intrafallopian transfer, also referred to as GIFT, is used when there is a history of failed infertility treatment for anovulation, or unexplained infertility, or low sperm count. KEY: Integrated Process: Teaching and Learning | Cognitive Level: Knowledge | Content Area: Maternity | Client Need: Physiological Integrity | Difficulty Level: Moderate Multiple Response 26. A woman seeks care at an infertility clinic. Which of the following tests may this woman undergo to determine what, if any, infertility problem she may have? (Select all that apply.) a. Chorionic villus sampling b. Endometrial biopsy c. Hysterosalpingogram d. Serum FSH analysis 27. A couple who has been attempting to become pregnant for 5 years is seeking assistance from an infertility clinic. The nurse assesses the clients’ emotional responses to their infertility. Which of the following responses would the nurse expect to find? (Select all that apply.) a. Anger at others who have babies. b. Feelings of failure because they cannot make a baby. c. Sexual excitement because they want to conceive a baby. d. Guilt on the part of one partner because he or she is unable to give the other a baby. 28. Which of the following places a couple at higher risk for conceiving a child with a genetic abnormality? (Select all that apply.) a. Maternal age over 35 years b. Partner who has a genetic disorder c. Maternal type 1 diabetes d. Paternal heart disease 29. The ovarian cycle includes which of the following phases? (Select all that apply.) a. Follicular phase b. Secretory phase c. Ovulatory phase d. Luteal phase e. Menstrual phase 30. A couple is undergoing an infertility workup. The semen analysis indicates a decreased number of sperm and immature sperm. Which of the following factors can have a potential effect on sperm maturity? (Select all that apply.) a. The man rides a bike to and from work each day. b. The man takes a calcium channel blocker for the treatment of hypertension. c. The man drinks 6 cups of coffee a day. d. The man was treated for prostatitis 12 months ago and has been symptom free since treatment.ANS: a, b 31. The clinic nurse recognizes that pregnant women who are in particular need of support are those who (select all that apply): a. Are experiencing a second pregnancy b. Are awaiting genetic testing results c. Are experiencing a first pregnancy d. Are trying to conceal this pregnancy as long as possible Chapter 5: Psycho-Social-Cultural Aspects of the Antepartum Period Multiple Choice 1. Sally is in her third trimester and has begun to sing and talk to the fetus. Sally is probably exhibiting signs of:a. Mental illnessb. Delusionsc. Attachmentd. Crisis 2. What is the most common expected emotional reaction of a woman to the news that she is pregnant? a. Jealousyb. Acceptancec. Ambivalenced. Depression 3. Which of the following information regarding sexual activity would the nurse give a pregnant woman who is 35 weeks’ gestation? a. Sexual activity should be avoided from now until 6 weeks postpartum.b. Sexual desire may be affected by nausea and fatigue. c. Sexual desire may be increased due to increased pelvic congestion.d. Sexual activity may require different positions to accommodate the woman’s comfort. ANS: d Feedback 4. Which statement best exemplifies adaptation to pregnancy in relation to the adolescent?a. Adolescents adapt to motherhood in a similar way to other childbearing women.b. Social support has very little effect on adolescent adaptation to pregnancy. c. The pregnant adolescent faces the challenge of multiple developmental tasks.d. Pregnant adolescents of all ages can be capable and active participants in health-care decisions. 5. Jane’s husband Brian has begun to put on weight. What is this a possible sign of? a. Culturalism syndromeb. Couvade syndromec. Moratorium phased. Attachment 6. Cathy is pregnant for the second time. Her son, Steven, has just turned 2 years old. She asks you what she should do to help him get ready for the expected birth. What is the nurse’s most appropriate response?a. Steven will probably not understand any explanations about the arrival of the new baby, so Cathy should do nothing.b. If Steven’s sleeping arrangements need to be changed, it should be done well in advance of the birth.c. Steven should come to the next prenatal visit and listen to the fetal heartbeat to encourage sibling attachment. d. Steven should be encouraged to plan an elaborate welcome for the newborn. KEY: Integrated Process: Teaching and Learning | Cognitive Level: Application | Content Area: Maternity | Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity | Difficulty Level: Difficult 7. The nurse is interviewing a pregnant client who states she plans to drink chamomile tea to ensure an effective labor. The nurse knows that this is an example of:a. Cultural prescriptionb. Cultural tabooc. Cultural restrictiond. Cultural demonstration 8. Which of the following would be a priority for the nurse when caring for a pregnant woman who has recently emigrated from another country?a. Help her develop a realistic, detailed birth plan.b. Identify her support system.c. Teach her about expected emotional changes of pregnancy.d. Refer her to a doula for labor support. KEY: Integrated Process: Caring | Cognitive Level: Application | Content Area: Maternity | Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity | Difficulty Level: Moderate 9. A pregnant client at 20 weeks’ gestation comes to the clinic for her prenatal visit. Which of the following client statements would indicate a need for further assessment? a. “I hate it when the baby moves.”b. “I’ve started calling my mom every day.”c. “My partner and I can’t stop talking about the baby.”d. “I still don’t know much time I’m going to take off work after the baby comes.” 10. A pregnant client asks the nurse why she should attend childbirth classes. The nurse’s response would be based on which of the following information? a. Attending childbirth class is a good way to make new friends.b. Childbirth classes will help new families develop skills to meet the challenges of childbirth and parenting.c. Attending childbirth classes will help a pregnant woman have a shorter labor.d. Childbirth classes will help a pregnant woman decrease her chance of having a cesarean delivery. | Content Area: Maternity | Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity | Difficulty Level: Easy 11. A woman presents for prenatal care at 6 weeks’ gestation by LMP. Which of the following findings would the nurse expect to see? a. Multiple pillow orthopnea b. Maternal ambivalence c. Fundus at the umbilicus d. Pedal and ankle edema 12. A first-time father is experiencing couvade syndrome. He is likely to exhibit which of the following symptoms or behaviors? a. Urinary frequency b. Hypotension c. Bradycardia d. Prostatic hypertrophy 13. When providing a psychosocial assessment on a pregnant woman at 21 weeks’ gestation, the nurse would expect to observe which of the following signs? a. Ambivalence b. Depression c. Anxiety d. Happiness 14. An example of a cultural prescriptive belief during pregnancy is: a. Remain active during pregnancy b. Coldness in any form should be avoided c. Do not have your picture taken d. Avoid sexual intercourse during the third trimester 15. Taboos are cultural restrictions that: a. Have serious supernatural consequences b. Have serious clinical consequences c. Have superstitious consequences d. Are functional and neutral practices 16. Jenny, a 21-year-old single woman, comes for her first prenatal appointment at 31 weeks’ gestation with her first pregnancy. The clinic nurse’s most appropriate statement is: a. “Jenny, it is late in your pregnancy to be having your first appointment, but it is nice to meet you and I will try to help you get caught up in your care.” b. “Jenny, have you had care in another clinic? I can’t believe this is your first appointment!” c. “Jenny, by the date of your last menstrual period, you are 31 weeks and now that you are finally here, we need you to come monthly for the next two visits and then weekly.” d. “Jenny, by your information, you are 31 weeks’ gestation in this pregnancy. Do you have questions for me before I begin your prenatal history and information sharing?” ANS: d 17. The clinic nurse visits with Wayne, a 32-year-old man whose partner is pregnant for the first time and is at 12 weeks. Wayne describes nausea and vomiting, fatigue, and weight gain. His symptoms are best described as: a. Influenza b. Couvade syndrome c. Acid reflux d. Cholelithiasis Multiple Response 18. The clinic nurse encourages paternal attachment during pregnancy by including the father in (select all that apply): a. Prenatal visits b. Ultrasound appointments c. Prenatal class information d. History taking and obtaining prenatal screening information 19. The perinatal nurse screens all pregnant women early in pregnancy for maternal attachment risk factors, which include (select all that apply): a. Adolescence b. Low educational level c. History of depression d. A strong support system for the pregnancy ANS: a, b, c Maternal attachment to the fetus is an important area to assess and can be useful in identifying families at risk for maladaptive behaviors. The nurse should assess for indicators such as unintended pregnancy, domestic violence, difficulties in the partner relationship, sexually transmitted infections, limited financial resources, substance use, adolescence, poor social support systems, low educational level, the presence of mental conditions, or adolescence that might interfere with the patient’s ability to bond with and care for the infant. A strong support system can facilitate the patient’s ability to bond with and care for the infant. KEY: Integrated Process: Nursing Process: Clinical Problem Solving | Cognitive Level: Application | Content Area: Maternity | Client Need: Safe and Effective Care Environment | Difficulty Level: Moderate 20. Strategies for culturally responsive care include (select all that apply): a. Practicing ethnocentrism b. Applying stereotyping c. Examining one’s own biases d. Learning another language ANS: c, d The only actions among the choices that are culturally responsive are examining one’s own biases and learning another language. Ethnocentrism and stereotyping are not culturally responsive actions. KEY: Integrated Process: Safe and Effective Care Environment | Cognitive Level: Application | Content Area: Cultural Competence | Client Need: Cultural Respect | Difficulty Level: Moderate Chapter 6: Antepartal Tests 1. Your pregnant patient is in her first trimester and is scheduled for an abdominal ultrasound. When explaining the rationale for early pregnancy ultrasound, the best response is: a. “The test will help to determine the baby’s position.”b. “The test will help to determine how many weeks you are pregnant.”c. “The test will help to determine if your baby is growing appropriately.”d. “The test will help to determine if you have a boy or girl.” 2. Your pregnant patient is having maternal alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) screening. She does not understand how a test on her blood can indicate a birth defect in the fetus. The best reply by the nurse is:a. “We have done this test for a long time.”b. “If babies have a neural tube defect, alpha-fetoprotein leaks out of the fetus and is absorbed into your blood, causing your level to rise. This serum blood test detects that rise.”c. “Neural tube defects are a genetic anomaly, and we examine the amount of alpha-fetoprotein in your DNA.”d. “If babies have a neural tube defect, this results in a decrease in your level of alpha-fetoprotein.” 3. The primary complications of amniocentesis are:a. Damage to fetal organsb. Puncture of umbilical cordc. Maternal paind. Infection 4. Your patient is 34 weeks pregnant and during a regular prenatal visit tells you she does not understand how to do “kick counts.” The best response by the nurse would be to explain:a. “Here is an information sheet on how to do kick counts.”b. “It is not important to do kick counts because you have a low-risk pregnancy.”c. “Fetal kick counts are not a reliable indicator of fetal well-being in the third trimester.”d. “Fetal movements are an indicator of fetal well-being. You should count twice a day, and you should feel 10 fetal movements in 2 hours.” 5. Your patient is a 37-year-old pregnant woman who is 5 weeks pregnant and is considering genetic testing. During your discussion, the woman asks the nurse what the advantages of chorionic villus sampling (CVS) are over amniocentesis. The best response is:a. “You will need anesthesia for amniocentesis, but not for CVS.”b. “CVS is a faster procedure.”c. “CVS provides more detailed information than amniocentesis.”d. “CVS can be done earlier in your pregnancy, and the results are available more quickly.” 6. The clinic nurse meets with Rebecca, a 30-year-old woman who is experiencing her first pregnancy. Rebecca’s quadruple marker screen result is positive at 17 weeks’ gestation. The nurse explains that Rebecca needs a referral to: a. A genetics counselor/specialist b. An obstetrician c. A gynecologist d. A social worker 7. A 37-year-old woman who is 17 weeks pregnant has had an amniocentesis. Before discharge, the nurse teaches the woman to call her doctor if she experiences which of the following side effects? a. Pain at the puncture site b. Macular rash on the abdomen c. Decrease in urinary output d. Cramping of the uterus 8. A laboratory report indicates the L/S ratio (lecithin/sphingomyelin) results from an amniocentesis of a gravid patient with preeclampsia are 2:1. The nurse interprets the result as which of the following? a. The baby’s lung fields are mature. b. The mother is high risk for hemorrhage. c. The baby’s kidneys are functioning poorly. d. The mother is high risk for eclampsia. Chapter 7: High-Risk Antepartum Nursing Care Multiple Choice 1. A client on 2 gm/hr of magnesium sulfate has decreased deep tendon reflexes. Identify the priority nursing assessment to ensure client safety.a. Assess uterine contractions continuously.b. Assess fetal heart rate continuously.c. Assess urinary output.d. Assess respiratory rate. 2. A pregnant client with a history of multiple sexual partners is at highest risk for which of the following complications:a. Premature rupture of membranesb. Gestational diabetesc. Ectopic pregnancyd. Pregnancy-induced hypertension 3. Identify the hallmark of placenta previa that differentiates it from abruptio placenta.a. Sudden onset of painless vaginal bleedingb. Board-like abdomen with severe painc. Sudden onset of bright red vaginal bleedingd. Severe vaginal pain with bright red bleeding 4. Which of the following assessments would indicate instability in the client hospitalized for placenta previa?a. BP 90/60 mm/Hg, Pulse 60 BPM or 120 BPMb. FHR moderate variability without accelerationsc. Dark brown vaginal discharge when voidingd. Oral temperature of 99.9°F 5. During pregnancy, poorly controlled asthma can place the fetus at risk for:a. Hyperglycemiab. IUGRc. Hypoglycemiad. Macrosomia ANS: b 6. Which of the following nursing diagnoses is of highest priority for a client with an ectopic pregnancy who has developed disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?a. Risk for deficient fluid volumeb. Risk for family process interruptedc. Risk for disturbed identityd. High risk for injury 7. Which of the following laboratory values is most concerning in a client with pregnancy-induced hypertension?a. Total urine protein of 200 mg/dLb. Total platelet count of 40,000 mm c. Uric acid level of 8 mg/dLd. Blood urea nitrogen 24 mg/dL 8. Which of the following medications administered to the pregnant client with GDM and experiencing preterm labor requires close monitoring of the client’s blood glucose levels?a. Nifedipineb. Betamethasone c. Magnesium sulfated. Indomethacin 9. While educating the client with class II cardiac disease, at 28 weeks’ gestation, the nurse instructs the client to notify the physician if she experiences which of the following conditions? a. Emotional stress at workb. Increased dyspnea while restingc. Mild pedal and ankle edemad. Weight gain of 1 pound in 1 week 10. The nurse working in a prenatal clinic is providing care to three primigravida patients. Which of the patient findings would the nurse highlight for the physician? a. 15 weeks, denies feeling fetal movement b. 20 weeks, fundal height at the umbilicus c. 25 weeks, complains of excess salivation d. 30 weeks, states that her vision is blurry 11. The perinatal nurse is assessing a woman in triage who is 34 + 3 weeks’ gestation in her first pregnancy. She is worried about having her baby “too soon,” and she is experiencing uterine contractions every 10 to 15 minutes. The fetal heart rate is 136 beats per minute. A vaginal examination performed by the health-care provider reveals that the cervix is closed, long, and posterior. The most likely diagnosis would be: d. Braxton-Hicks contractions 12. The perinatal nurse knows that the term to describe a woman at 26 weeks’ gestation with a history of elevated blood pressure who presents with a urine showing 2+ protein (by dipstick) is: a. Preeclampsia b. Chronic hypertension c. Gestational hypertension d. Chronic hypertension with superimposed preeclampsia ANS: d 13. A patient is receiving magnesium sulfate for severe preeclampsia. The nurse must notify the attending physician immediately of which of the following findings? a. Patellar and biceps reflexes of +4 b. Urinary output of 50 mL/hr c. Respiratory rate of 10 rpm d. Serum magnesium level of 5 mg/dL 14. A woman in labor and delivery is being given subcutaneous terbutaline for preterm labor. Which of the following common medication effects would the nurse expect to see in the mother? a. Serum potassium level increases b. Diarrhea c. Urticaria d. Complaints of nervousness Integrity: Pharmacological and Parenteral Therapies | Difficulty Level: Moderate 15. Which of the following signs or symptoms would the nurse expect to see in a woman with concealed abruptio placentae? a. Increasing abdominal girth measurements b. Profuse vaginal bleeding c. Bradycardia with an aortic thrill d. Hypothermia with chills 16. A woman who has had no prenatal care was assessed and found to have hydramnios on admission to the labor unit and has since delivered a baby weighing 4500 grams. Which of the following complications of pregnancy likely contributed to these findings? a. Pyelonephritis b. Pregnancy-induced hypertension c. Gestational diabetes d. Abruptio placentae 17. For the patient with which of the following medical problems should the nurse question a physician’s order for beta agonist tocolytics? a. Type 1 diabetes mellitus b. Cerebral palsy c. Myelomeningocele d. Positive group B streptococci culture 18. The nurse is caring for two laboring women. Which of the patients should be monitored most carefully for signs of placental abruption? a. The patient with placenta previa b. The patient whose vagina is colonized with group B streptococci c. The patient who is hepatitis B surface antigen positive d. The patient with eclampsia 19. The nurse is caring for a woman at 28 weeks’ gestation with a history of preterm delivery. Which of the following laboratory data should the nurse carefully assess in relation to this diagnosis? a. Human relaxin levels b. Amniotic fluid levels c. Alpha-fetoprotein levels d. Fetal fibronectin levels 20. Which of the following statements is most appropriate for the nurse to say to a patient with a complete placenta previa? a. “During the second stage of labor you will need to bear down.” b. “You should ambulate in the halls at least twice each day.” c. “The doctor will likely induce your labor with oxytocin.” d. “Please promptly report if you experience any bleeding or feel any back discomfort.” 21. A woman at 32 weeks’ gestation is diagnosed with severe preeclampsia with HELLP syndrome. The nurse will identify which of the following as a positive patient care outcome? a. Rise in serum creatinine b. Drop in serum protein c. Resolution of thrombocytopenia d. Resolution of polycythemia 22. A 16-year-old patient is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of severe preeclampsia. The nurse must closely monitor the woman for which of the following? a. High leukocyte count b. Explosive diarrhea c. Fractured pelvis d. Low platelet count 23. A woman at 10 weeks’ gestation is diagnosed with gestational trophoblastic disease (hydatiform mole). Which of the following findings would the nurse expect to see? a. Platelet count of 550,000/ mm3 b. Dark brown vaginal bleeding c. White blood cell count 17,000/ mm3 d. Macular papular rash 24. After an education class, the nurse overhears an adolescent woman discussing safe sex practices. Which of the following comments by the young woman indicates that additional teaching about sexually transmitted infection (STI) control issues is needed? a. “I could get an STI even if I just have oral sex.” b. “Girls over 16 are less likely to get STDs than younger girls.” c. “The best way to prevent an STI is to use a diaphragm.” d. “Girls get human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) easier than boys do.” ANS: c Feedback a. This statement is true. Organisms that cause sexually transmitted infections can invade the respiratory and gastrointestinal tracts. b. This statement is true. Young women are especially high risk for becoming infected with sexually transmitted diseases. c. This statement is untrue. The young woman needs further teaching. Condoms protect against STDs and pregnancy. In addition, condoms can be kept in readiness for whenever sex may occur spontaneously. Using condoms does not require the teen to plan to have sex. A diaphragm is not an effective infection-control method. Plus, it would require the teen to plan for intercourse. d. This statement is true. Young women are higher risk for becoming infected with HIV than are young men. KEY: Integrated Process: Nursing Process: Evaluation; Teaching and Learning | Cognitive Level: Application | Content Area: Disease Prevention; High Risk Behaviors; Human Sexuality | Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance: High Risk Behaviors; Human Sexuality | Difficulty Level: Moderate 25. A woman who is admitted to labor and delivery at 30 weeks’ gestation, is 1 cm dilated, and is contracting q 5 minutes. She is receiving magnesium sulfate IV piggyback. Which of the following maternal vital signs is most important for the nurse to assess each hour? a. Temperature b. Pulse c. Respiratory rate d. Blood pressure 26. You are caring for a patient who was admitted to labor and delivery at 32 weeks’ gestation and diagnosed with preterm labor. She is currently on magnesium sulfate, 2 gm per hour. Upon your initial assessment you note that she has a respiratory rate of 8 with absent deep tendon reflexes. What will be your first nursing intervention? a. Elevate head of the bed b. Notify the MD c. Discontinue magnesium sulfate d. Draw a serum magnesium level 27. A 34-weeks’ gestation multigravida, G3 P1 is admitted to the labor suite. She is contracting every 7 minutes and 40 seconds. The woman has several medical problems. Which of the following of her comorbidities is most consistent with the clinical picture? a. Kyphosis b. Urinary tract infection c. Congestive heart failure d. Cerebral palsy 28. A primiparous woman has been admitted at 35 weeks’ gestation and diagnosed with HELLP syndrome. Which of the following laboratory changes is consistent with this diagnosis? a. Hematocrit dropped to 28%. b. Platelets increased to 300,000 cells/mm3. c. Red blood cells increased to 5.1 million cells/mm3. d. Sodium dropped to 132 mEq/dL. 29. A labor nurse is caring for a patient, 39 weeks’ gestation, who has been diagnosed with placenta previa. Which of the following physician orders should the nurse question? a. Type and cross-match her blood. b. Insert an internal fetal monitor electrode. c. Administer an oral stool softener. d. Assess her complete blood count. 30. A type 1 diabetic patient has repeatedly experienced elevated serum glucose levels throughout her pregnancy. Which of the following complications of pregnancy would the nurse expect to see? a. Postpartum hemorrhage b. Neonatal hyperglycemia c. Postpartum oliguria d. Neonatal macrosomia 31. According to agency policy, the perinatal nurse provides the following intrapartal nursing care for the patient with preeclampsia: a. Take the patient’s blood pressure every 6 hours b. Encourage the patient to rest on her back c. Notify the physician of a urine output greater than 30 mL/hr d. Administer magnesium sulfate according to agency policy 32. The perinatal nurse is providing care to Marilyn, a 25-year-old G1 TPAL 0000 woman hospitalized with severe hypertension at 33 weeks’ gestation. The nurse is preparing to administer the second dose of beta-methasone prescribed by the physician. Marilyn asks: “What is this injection for again?” The nurse’s best response is: a. “This is to help your baby’s lungs to mature.” b. “This is to prepare your body to begin the labor process.” c. “This is to help stabilize your blood pressure.” d. “This is to help your baby grow and develop in preparation for birth.” 33. A woman who is 36 weeks pregnant presents to the labor and delivery unit with a history of congestive heart disease. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the primary health-care practitioner? a. Presence of chloasma b. Presence of severe heartburn c. 10-pound weight gain in a month d. Patellar reflexes +1 34. The single most important risk factor for preterm birth includes: a. Uterine and cervical anomalies b. Infection c. Increased BMI d. Prior preterm birth 35. Your antepartal patient is 38 weeks’ gestation, has a history of thrombosis, and has been on strict bed rest for the last 12 hours. She is now experiencing shortness of breath. What about the patient may be a contributing factor for her shortness of breath? a. Physiologic changes in pregnancy result in vasodilation, which increases the tendency to form blood clots. b. Physiologic changes in pregnancy result in vasoconstriction, which increases the tendency to form blood clots. c. Physiologic changes in pregnancy result in anemia, which increases the tendency to form blood clots. d. Physiologic changes in pregnancy result in decreased perfusion to the lungs, which increases the tendency to form blood clots. 36. Metabolic changes during pregnancy __________ glucose tolerance. a. lower b. increase c. maintain d. alter Multiple Response 43. The perinatal nurse describes risk factors for placenta previa to the student nurse. Placenta previa risk factors include (select all that apply): a. Cocaine use b. Tobacco use c. Previous caesarean birth d. Previous use of medroxyprogesterone (Depo-Provera) 44. Kerry, a 30-year-old G3 TPAL 0110 woman presents to the labor unit triage with complaints of lower abdominal cramping and urinary frequency at 30 weeks’ gestation. An appropriate nursing action would be to (select all that apply): a. Assess the fetal heart rate b. Obtain urine for culture and sensitivity c. Assess Kerry’s blood pressure and pulse d. Palpate Kerry’s abdomen for contractions 45. The perinatal nurse knows that tocolytic agents are most often used to (select all that apply): a. Prevent maternal infection b. Prolong pregnancy to 40 weeks’ gestation c. Prolong pregnancy to facilitate administration of antenatal corticosteroids d. Allow for transport of the woman to a tertiary care facility 46. The perinatal nurse provides a hospital tour for couples and families preparing for labor and birth in the future. Teaching is an important component of the tour. Information provided about preterm labor and birth prevention includes (select all that apply): a. Encouraging regular, ongoing prenatal care b. Reporting symptoms of urinary frequency and burning to the health-care provider c. Coming to the labor triage unit if back pain or cramping persist or become regular d. Lying on the right side, withholding fluids, and counting fetal movements if contractions occur every 5 minutes 47. The perinatal nurse describes for the new nurse the various risks associated with prolonged premature preterm rupture of membranes. These risks include (select all that apply): a. Chorioamnionitis b. Abruptio placentae c. Operative birth d. Cord prolapse 48. Betamethasone is a steroid that is given to a pregnant woman with signs of preterm labor. The purpose of giving steroids is to (select all that apply): a. Stimulate the production of surfactant in the preterm infant b. Be given between 24 and 34 weeks’ gestation c. Increase the severity of respiratory distress d. Accelerate fetal lung maturity ANS: a, b, d Betamethasone is a steroid that is given to pregnant women with signs of preterm labor between 24 and 34 weeks’ gestation. It stimulates the production of surfactant in the preterm infant and accelerates fetal lung maturity. KEY: Integrated Process: Knowledge | Cognitive Level: Comprehension | Content Area: Pharmacological and Parenteral Therapies: Expected Effects/Outcomes | Client Need: Pharmacologic and Parenteral Therapies | Difficulty Level: Hard 49. Marked hemodynamic changes in pregnancy can impact the pregnant woman with cardiac disease. Signs and symptoms of deteriorating cardiac status include (select all that apply): a. Orthopnea b. Nocturnal dyspnea c. Palpitations d. Irritation Multiple Choice 1. In caring for a primiparous woman in labor, one of the factors to evaluate is uterine activity. This is referred to as the POWER KEY: Integrated Process: Clinical Problem Solving | Cognitive Level: Knowledge | Content Area: Maternity | Client Need: Physiological Adaptation | Difficulty Level: Easy 2. The provision of support during labor has demonstrated that women experience a decrease in anxiety and a feeling of being in more control. In clinical situations, this has resulted in:a. A decrease in interventionsb. Increased epidural ratesc. Earlier admission to the hospitald. Improved gestational age 3. When caring for a primiparous woman being evaluated for admission for labor, a key distinction between true versus false labor is:a. True labor contractions result in rupture of membranes, and with false labor, the membranes remain intact.b. True labor contractions result in increasing anxiety and discomfort, and false labor does not.c. True labor contractions are accompanied by loss of the mucus plug and bloody show, and with false labor there is no vaginal discharge. d. True labor contractions bring about changes in cervical effacement and dilation, and with false labor there are irregular contractions with little or no cervical changes. 4. The mechanism of labor known as cardinal movements of labor are the positional changes that the fetus goes through to best navigate the birth process. These cardinal movements are:a. Engagement, Descent, Flexion, Extension, Internal rotation, External rotation, Expulsion b. Engagement, Descent, Flexion, Internal rotation, Extension, External rotation, Expulsion c. Engagement, Flexion, Internal rotation, Extension, External rotation, Descent, Expulsion d. Engagement, Flexion, Internal rotation, Extension, External rotation, Flexion, Expulsion KEY: Integrated Process: Clinical Problem Solving | Cognitive Level: Comprehension | Content Area: Maternity | Client Need: Physiological Adaptation | Difficulty Level: Moderate 5. A woman is considered in active labor when:a. Cervical dilation progresses from 4 to 7 cm with effacement of 40% to 80%, contractions become more intense, occurring every 2 to 5 minutes with duration of 45 to 60 seconds.b. Cervical dilation progresses to 3 cm with effacement of 30, contractions become more intense, occurring every 2 to 5 minutes with duration of 45 to 60 seconds.c. Cervical dilation progresses to 8 cm with effacement of 80%, contractions become more intense, occurring every 2 to 5 minutes with duration of 45 to 60 seconds.d. Cervical dilation progresses to 10 cm with effacement of 90%, contractions become more intense, occurring every 2 to 5 minutes with duration of 45 to 60 seconds. 6. You are caring for a woman in labor who is 6 cm dilated with a reassuring FHT pattern and regular strong UCs. The fetal heart rate (FHR) should be:a. Monitored continuouslyb. Monitored every 15 minutesc. Monitored every 30 minutesd. Monitored every 60 minutes 7. A woman you are caring for in labor requests an epidural for pain relief in labor. Included in your preparation for epidural placement is a baseline set of vital signs. The most common vital sign to change after epidural placement:a. Blood pressure, hypotension b. Blood pressure, hypertension c. Pulse, tachycardia d. Pulse, bradycardia 8. The labor patient you are caring for is ambulating in the hall. Her vaginal exam 1 hour ago indicated she was 4/70/–1 station. She tells you she has fluid running down her leg. Your priority nursing intervention is to:a. Assess the color, odor, and amount of fluid.b. Assist your patient to the bathroom.c. Assess the fetal heart rate.d. Call the care provider. ANS: c 9. You are in the process of admitting a multiparous woman to labor and delivery from the triage area. One hour ago her vaginal exam was 4/70/0. While completing your review of her prenatal record and completing the admission questionnaire, she tells you she has an urge to have a bowel movement and feels like pushing. Your priority nursing intervention is to:a. Reassure the patient and rapidly complete the admission.b. Assist your patient to the bathroom to have a bowel movement.c. Assess the fetal heart rate and uterine contractions.d. Perform a vaginal exam. 10. The Apgar score consists of a rapid assessment of five physiological signs that indicate the physiological status of the newborn and includes:a. Apical pulse strength, respiratory rate, muscle flexion, reflex irritability, and colorb. Heart rate, clarity of lungs, muscle tone, reflexes, and colorc. Apical pulse strength, respiratory rate, muscle tone, reflex irritability, and color of extremitiesd. Heart rate, respiratory rate, muscle tone, reflex irritability, and color 11. The perinatal nurse is assessing a woman in triage who is 34 + 3 weeks’ gestation in her first pregnancy. She is worried about having her baby “too soon,” and she is experiencing uterine contractions every 10 to 15 minutes. The fetal heart rate is 136 beats per minute. A vaginal examination performed by the health-care provider reveals that the cervix is closed, long, and posterior. The most likely diagnosis would be: a. Preterm labor b. Term labor c. Back labor d. Braxton-Hicks contractions Chapter 15: Physiological and Behavioral Responses of the Neonate Multiple Choice 1. A woman gave birth to a 3200 g baby girl with an estimated gestational age of 40 weeks. The baby is 1 hour of age. In preparation of giving the baby an injection of vitamin K, the nurse will: a. Explain to the parents the action of the medication and answer their questions. b. Remove the neonate from the room so the parents will not be distressed by seeing the injection. c. Completely undress the neonate to identify the injection site. d. Replace needle with a 21 gauge 5/8 needle. ANS: a 2. To accurately measure the neonate’s head, the nurse places the measuring tape around the head: a. Just above the ears and eyebrows b. Middle of the ear and over the eyes c. Middle of the ear and over the bridge of the nose d. Just below the ears and over the upper lip 3. Which of the following neonates is at highest risk for cold stress? a. A 36 gestational week LGA neonate b. A 32 gestational week AGA neonate c. A 33 gestational week SGA neonate d. A 38 gestational week AGA neonate 4. When assessing the apical pulse of the neonate, the stethoscope should be placed at the: a. First or second intercostal space b. Second or third intercostal space c. Third or fourth intercostal space d. Fourth or fifth intercostal space 5. Which of the following breath sounds are normal to hear in the neonate during the first few hours postbirth? a. Scattered crackles b. Wheezes c. Stridor d. Grunting 6. The nurse assesses that a full-term neonate’s temperature is 36.2°C. The first nursing action is to: a. Turn up the heat in the room. b. Place the neonate on the mother’s chest with a warm blanket over the mother and baby. c. Take the neonate to the nursery and place in a radiant warmer. d. Notify the neonate’s primary provider. 7. A nurse is assessing for the tonic neck reflex. This is elicited by: a. Making a load sound near the neonate. b. Placing the neonate in a sitting position. c. Turning the neonate’s head to the side so that the chin is over the shoulder while the neonate is in a supine position. d. Holding the neonate in a semi-sitting position and letting the head slightly drop back. 8. An infant admitted to the newborn nursery has a blood glucose level of 55 mg/dL. Which of the following actions should the nurse perform at this time? a. Provide the baby with routine feedings. b. Assess the baby’s blood pressure. c. Place the baby under the infant warmer. d. Monitor the baby’s urinary output. 9. Four babies have just been admitted into the neonatal nursery. Which of the babies should the nurse assess first? a. The baby with respirations 52, oxygen saturation 98% b. The baby with Apgar 9/9, weight 2960 grams c. The baby with temperature 96.3°F, length 17 inches d. The baby with glucose 60 mg/dL, heart rate 132 10. The nurse is about to elicit the rooting reflex on a newborn baby. Which of the following responses should the nurse expect to see? a. When the cheek of the baby is touched, the newborn turns toward the side that is touched. b. When the lateral aspect of the sole of the baby’s foot is stroked, the toes extend and fan outward. c. When the baby is suddenly lowered or startled, the neonate’s arms straighten outward and the knees flex. d. When the newborn is supine and the head is turned to one side, the arm on that same side extends. 11. A mother refused to allow her son to receive the vitamin K injection at birth. Which of the following signs or symptoms might the nurse observe in the baby as a result? a. Skin color is dusky. b. Vital signs are labile. c. Glucose levels are subnormal. d. Circumcision site oozes blood. 12. A nurse is assisting a physician during a baby’s circumcision. Which of the following demonstrates that the nurse is acting as the baby’s patient care advocate? a. The nurse requests that oral sucrose be ordered as a pain relief measure. b. The nurse restrains the baby on the circumcision board. c. The nurse wears a surgical mask during the procedure. d. The nurse provides the physician with an iodine solution for cleansing the skin. 13. A neonate is admitted to the nursery. The nurse makes the following assessments: weight 2845 grams, overriding sagittal suture, closed posterior fontanel, and point of maximum intensity at the xiphoid process. Which of the assessments should be reported to the health-care practitioner? a. Birth weight b. Sagittal suture line c. Closed posterior fontanel d. Point of maximum intensity 14. The nurse is about to elicit the Moro reflex. Which of the following responses should the nurse expect to see? a. When the cheek of the baby is touched, the newborn turns toward the side that is touched. b. When the lateral aspect of the sole of the baby’s foot is stroked, the toes extend and fan outward. c. When the baby is suddenly lowered or startled, the neonate’s arms straighten outward and the knees flex. d. When the newborn is supine and the head is turned to one side, the arm on that same side extends. 15. A nurse is doing a newborn assessment on a new admission to the nursery. Which of the following actions should the nurse make when evaluating the baby for developmental dysplasia of the hip? a. Grasp the inner aspects of the baby’s calves with thumbs and forefingers. b. Gently abduct the baby’s thighs. c. Palpate the baby’s patellae to assess for subluxation of the bones. d. Dorsiflex the baby’s feet. 16. A certified nursing assistant (CNA) is working with a registered nurse (RN) in the neonatal nursery. Which of the following actions would be appropriate for the nurse to delegate to the CNA? a. Admit a newly delivered baby to the nursery. b. Bathe and weigh a 3-hour-old baby. c. Provide discharge teaching to the mother of a 4-day-old baby. d. Interpret a bilirubin level reported by the laboratory. 17. A pregnant patient at 35 weeks’ gestation gives birth to a healthy baby boy. What factors regarding the development of the normal respiratory system should the nurse consider when performing an assessment of the neonate? a. As the fetus approaches term, there is an increase in the secretion of intrapulmonary fluid. b. Lung expansion after birth suppresses the release of surfactant. c. Surfactant causes an increased surface tension within the alveoli, which allows for alveolar reexpansion following each exhalation. d. Under normal circumstances, by the 34th to 36th weeks of gestation, surfactant is produced in sufficient amounts to maintain alveolar stability. 18. The perinatal nurse explains to a student nurse the cardiopulmonary adaptations that occur in the neonate. Which one of the following statements accurately describes the sequence of these changes? a. As air enters the lungs, the PO2 rises in the alveoli, which causes pulmonary artery relaxation and results in an increase in pulmonary vascular resistance. b. As the pulmonary vascular resistance increases, pulmonary blood flow increases, reaching 100% by the first 24 hours of life. c. Decreased pulmonary blood volume contributes to the conversion from fetal to newborn circulation. d. Once the pulmonary circulation has been functionally established, blood is distributed throughout the lungs. 19. A perinatal nurse assesses the skin condition of a newborn, which is characterized by a yellow coloration of the skin, sclera, and oral mucous membranes. What condition is most likely the cause of this symptom? a. Hypoglycemia b. Physiologic anemia of infancy c. Low glomerular filtration rate d. Jaundice 20. The nurse is assessing the neonate’s skin and notes the presence of small, irregular, red patches on the cheeks that will develop into single, yellow pimples on the chest or abdomen. The name for this common neonatal skin condition is: a. Milia b. Neonatal acne c. Erythema toxicum d. Pustular melanosis 21. The nurse completes an initial newborn examination on a baby boy at 90 minutes of age. The baby was born at 40 weeks’ gestation with no birth trauma. The nurse’s findings include the following parameters: heart rate, 136 beats per minute; respiratory rate, 64 breaths per minute; temperature, 98.2°F (36.8°C); length, 49.5 cm; and weight, 3500 g. The nurse documents the presence of a heart murmur, absence of bowel sounds, symmetry of ears and eyes, no grunting or nasal flaring, and full range of movement of all extremities. Which assessment would warrant further investigation and require immediate consultation with the baby’s health-care provider? a. Respiratory rate b. Presence of a heart murmur c. Absent bowel sounds d. Weight ANS: c 22. The nursery nurse notes the presence of diffuse edema on a baby girl’s head. Review of the birth record indicates that her mother experienced a prolonged labor and difficult childbirth. By the second day of life, the edema has disappeared. The nurse documents the following condition in the infant’s chart. a. Caput succedaneum b. Cephalhematoma c. Subperiosteal hemorrhage d. Epstein pearls 23. The perinatal nurse contacts the pediatrician about a heart murmur that was auscultated during a routine newborn assessment. This finding would be abnormal at: a. 8 to 12 hours b. 12 to 24 hours c. 24 to 48 hours d. 48 to 72 hours 24. Heat loss through radiation can be reduced by: a. Closing door to room b. Warming equipment used on the neonate c. Drying the neonate d. Placing crib near a warm wall Multiple Response 25. A healthy, full-term baby is scheduled for a circumcision. Nursing actions prior to the procedure include which of the following? (Select all that apply.) a. Obtain written consent from the mother. b. Administer acetaminophen PO 1 hour before procedure per MD order. c. Feed the neonate glucose water 30 minutes before the procedure. d. Obtain the neonate’s protime. 26. A first-time mother informs her nurse that another staff member came in and wanted to take her baby to the nursery. The mother refused to let the woman take her baby because the staff member did not have a picture ID. The nurse should do which of the following? (Select all that apply.) a. Praise the mother for not allowing a person without proper ID to take her baby. b. Check with the nursery to see if a staff member was recently in the patient’s room. c. Notify security of an unauthorized person in the unit. d. Alert staff of the incident. 27. The clinical nurse recalls that the newborn has four mechanisms by which heat is lost following birth: evaporation, conduction, convection, and radiation. Which of the following are examples of heat lost via convection? (Select all that apply.) a. An infant loses heat when not dried adequately after birth b. An infant is placed on a cold scale c. An infant is placed under a ceiling fan d. An infant is placed near an open window 28. A perinatal nurse assesses a term newborn for respiratory functioning. The nurse knows that which of the following conditions is normal for newborns? (Select all that apply.) a. A respiratory rate of 60 to 80 breaths per minute b. A breathing pattern that is often shallow, diaphragmatic, and irregular c. Periodic episodes of apnea d. The neonate’s lung sounds may sound moist during early auscultation ANS: b, d 29. The perinatal nurse observed the pediatrician completing the Ballard Gestational Age by Maturity Rating tool. The maturity components used with this assessment tool are (select all that apply): a. Physical b. Behavioral c. Reflexive d. Neuromuscular ANS: a, d True/False Chapter 16: Discharge Planning and Teaching Multiple Choice 1. A nurse is making a home visit on the seventh postpartum day to assess a 23-year-old primipara woman and her full-term, healthy baby. Breastfeeding is the method of infant nutrition. The woman tells the nurse that she does not think her milk is good because it looks very watery when she expresses a little before each feeding. The nurse’s best response is: a. “This is normal. You only have to be concerned when your baby does not gain weight.” b. “What types of foods are you eating? A lack of protein in the diet can cause watery looking breast milk.” c. “How much fluid are you drinking while you are nursing your baby? Too much fluid during the feeding session can dilute the breast milk.” d. “This is normal and is referred to as foremilk which is higher in water content. Later in the feeding the fat content increases and the milk becomes richer in appearance.” 2. A postpartum woman, who gave birth 12 hours ago, is breastfeeding her baby. She tells her nurse that she is concerned that her baby is not getting enough food since her milk has not come in. The best response for this patient is: a. “I understand your concern, but your baby will be okay until your milk comes in.” b. “Your baby seems content, so you should not worry about him getting enough to eat.” c. “Milk normally comes in around the third day. Prior to that, he is getting colostrum which is high in protein and immunoglobulins which are important for your baby’s health.” d. “You can bottle feed until your milk comes in.” 3. Which of the following positions for breastfeeding is preferred for a 2-day post-cesarean-birth woman? a. Lying down on side b. Sitting c. Cradle d. Cross-cradle 4. Painful nipples are a major reason why women stop breastfeeding. A primary intervention to decrease nipple irritation is: a. Teaching proper techniques for latching-on and releasing of suction b. Applying hot compresses to breast prior to feeding c. Instructing woman to express colostrum or milk at the end of the feeding session and rub it on her nipples d. Air drying nipples for 10 minutes at the end of the feeding session ANS: a 5. The nurse is developing a discharge teaching plan for a 21-year-old first-time mom. This was an unplanned pregnancy. She had a prolonged labor and an early postpartum hemorrhage. The woman plans to breastfeed her baby. She plans to return to work when her baby is 3 months old. Based on this information, the three primary learning needs of this woman are: a. Breastfeeding, bathing of the newborn, and infant safety b. Breastfeeding, storage of milk, and nutrition c. Breastfeeding, contraception, infant safety d. Breastfeeding, storage of milk, and rest 6. Instructions to a mother of an uncircumcised male infant should include which of the following? a. Instruct her to use a cotton swab to clean under the foreskin. b. Instruct her to clean the penis by retracting the foreskin. c. Instruct her to clean the penis with alcohol. d. Instruct her not to retract the foreskin. 7. A mother of a 10-day-old infant calls the clinic and reports that her baby is having loose, green stools. The mother is breastfeeding her infant. Which of the following is the best nursing action? a. Instruct the woman to bring her infant to the clinic. b. Instruct the woman to decrease the amount of feeding for 24 hours and to call if the stools continue to be loose. c. Explain that this is a normal stool pattern. d. Instruct the woman to eat a bland diet for the next 24 hours and call back if the stools continue to be loose and green. 8. The perinatal nurse is teaching her new mother about breastfeeding and explains that the most appropriate time to breastfeed is: a. 3 to 4 hours after the last feeding b. When her infant is in a quiet alert state c. When her infant is in an active alert state d. When her infant exhibits hunger-related crying 9. Felicity Chan, a new mother, is accompanied by her mother during her hospital stay on the postpartum unit. Felicity’s mother makes specific, various requests of the nurses including bringing warm tea, a cot to sleep on, and that the baby not be bathed at this time. Felicity’s mother is also concerned about the amount of work that Felicity may be doing in the provision of infant care. Felicity asks for help with breastfeeding. After Felicity has finished breastfeeding, her mother asks for a bottle so they can warm it and “feed” the baby. How would the perinatal nurse best respond to Felicity’s mother in a culturally sensitive way? a. Ask Felicity’s mother to leave for 30 minutes to allow for some private time with Felicity to explore her learning needs privately. b. Ask both Felicity and her mother about the preferred infant feeding method, and assess what they already know. c. Convey to Felicity and her mother an understanding of the concepts of “hot” and “cold” within their belief system. d. Ask Felicity what she knows about breastfeeding, and provide information to both women to support Felicity’s decision. 10. A neonatal nurse caring for newborns knows that the best time for a mother to first attempt breastfeeding is during which one of the following stages of activity? a. First period of reactivity b. First period of inactivity and sleep c. Second period of reactivity d. Second period of inactivity and sleep 11. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to the parents of a 2-day-old neonate. Which of the following information should be included in the discharge teaching on umbilical cord care? a. Cleanse the cord twice a day with hydrogen peroxide. b. Remove the cord with sterile tweezers if the cord does not fall off by 10 days of age. c. Call the doctor if greenish discharge appears. d. Cover the cord with sterile dressing until it falls off. 12. The nurse is teaching the parents of a 1-day-old baby how to give their baby a bath. Which of the following actions should be included? a. Clean the eye from the outer canthus to the inner canthus. b. Keep the door of the room open to allow for ventilation. c. Gather all supplies before beginning the bath. d. Check the temperature of the water with your fingertip. 13. The nurse is teaching the parents of a female baby how to change a baby’s diapers. Which of the following should be included in the teaching? a. Always wipe the perineum from front to