Kant's philosophy, as he develops it in his three Critiques, is driven by certain formalist criteria.
Following Kant's formalist agenda, the 20th century art critic Clement Greenberg has dubbed
Kant as the first great modernist. From what we have seen in the module and in the readings, we
can see why someone might hold this view. What are some of the formalist criteria, especially in
the Critique of Judgment, that lends credence to Kant as a modernist even before modernism as a
late 19th century phenomenon arrived on the scene? Are you convinced that Kant is in fact a
modernist? As will be the case throughout the course, draw upon ideas in the module, required
readings, and any supplemental readings suggested. Quote from these texts and be sure to cite
your sources in the process.
In the 18th century, Kant started his critical project starting with Critique of Pure Reason and ended
with Critique of Judgement followed by Critique of Reason. In Critique of Pure Reason, Kant
emphasized that real knowledge of the metaphysical postulates is not possible if we are unable to
transcend empirical experience whereas the empiricists believe in experience-driven knowledge.
Since Aesthetic judgment is purely subjective, constitutes a subjective universal. Kant believes
aesthetic judgments are not associated with purposes and are derived from feeling, not from
concepts. By focusing on form rather than content, the pure aesthetic transcendental subject is
converted into a universal subject that is disconnected from private feelings, interests, or
conceptual pursuits. Kant has a view that clarifies the disassociation of private likes-dislikes,
propriety concept, or religious and moral values with a pure judgment of taste. Cognitive powers
of imagination and understanding are the central concept of Kant's analysis of the judgment of
beauty in contrast to the idealists’ empiricism. These critiques, especially the critique of judgment,
hold evident of his modernist view before the explosion of modernism in the 19th century.