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Exam (elaborations)

Exam (elaborations) NR 507 Patho Final Examination

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Exam (elaborations) NR 507 Patho Final Examination What period follows depolarization of the myocardium and represents a period during which no new cardiac potential can be propagated? Correct! Refractory Threshold Sinoatrial (SA) Hyperpolarization During the refractory period, no new cardiac action potential can be initiated by a stimulus. This selection is the only option that accurately identifies the period described in the question. Question 2 2 / 2 pts What is the suggested mean blood pressure for an 8- to 9-year-old child? Correct! 106/58 mm Hg 104/55 mm Hg 112/62 mm Hg 121/70 mm Hg The suggested mean blood pressure for an 8- to 9- year-old child is 106/58 mm Hg. For a child of 6 to 7 years old, 104/55 mm Hg is appropriate; for a 12- to 13-year-old child, 112/62 mm Hg is appropriate, and for a 16- to 18-year-old young man, 121/70 mm Hg is appropriate. Question 3 2 / 2 pts Which is an example of an endogenous antigen? Yeast Correct! Cancer cells Fungus Bacteria Of the options provided, endogenous antigens include only those uniquely produced by cancerous cells. Question 4 2 / 2 pts An infant has a crescendo-decrescendo systolic ejection murmur located between the second and third intercostal spaces along the left sternal border. A wide fixed splitting of the second heart sound is also found. These clinical findings are consistent with which congenital heart defect? Atrioventricular canal (AVC) defect Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) Ventricular septal defect (VSD) Correct! Atrial septal defect (ASD) Because most children with ASD are asymptomatic, diagnosis is usually made during a routine physical examination by the auscultation of a crescendo-decrescendo systolic ejection murmur that reflects increased blood flow through the pulmonary valve. The location of the murmur is between the second and third intercostal spaces along the left sternal border. A wide fixed splitting of the second heart sound is also characteristic of ASD, reflecting volume overload to the right ventricle and causing prolonged ejection time and a delay of pulmonic valve closure. The presentations of other congenital heart defects are not consistent with the described symptoms. Question 5 2 / 2 pts Chvostek and Trousseau signs indicate which electrolyte imbalance? Correct! Hypocalcemia Hypercalcemia Hyperkalemia Hypokalemia Two clinical signs of hypocalcemia are the Chvostek sign and Trousseau sign. These clinical signs are not indicative of any of the other options. Question 6 2 / 2 pts How does chest wall compliance in an infant differ from that of an adult? An adult’s chest wall compliance is the same as an infant’s. An adult’s chest wall compliance is dissimilar to that of an infant’s. Correct! An adult’s chest wall compliance is lower than an infant’s. An adult’s chest wall compliance is higher than an infant’s. Chest wall compliance is higher in infants than it is in adults, particularly in premature infants. Question 7 2 / 2 pts What is the most commonly reported symptom of cancer treatment? Hair loss Nausea Weight loss Correct! Fatigue Fatigue is the most frequently reported symptom of cancer and cancer treatment. Although patients report the other options, they are not as frequently experienced as fatigue. Question 8 2 / 2 pts At birth, which statement is true? Correct! Gas exchange shifts from the placenta to the lung. Systemic resistance and pulmonary resistance fall. Systemic resistance and pulmonary resistance rise. Systemic resistance falls and pulmonary resistance rises. From the available options, the only change that takes place in the circulation at birth is the shift of gas exchange from the placenta to the lungs. Question 9 0 / 2 pts What is the treatment of choice for pernicious anemia (PA)? Correct Answer Vitamin B12 by injection Cyanocobalamin by oral intake You Answered Folate by oral intake Ferrous fumarate by Z-track injection Replacement of vitamin B12 (cobalamin) is the treatment of choice for PA. Initial injections of vitamin B12 are administered weekly until the deficiency is corrected, followed by monthly injections for the remainder of the individual’s life. The other options are not treatments for PA. Question 10 2 / 2 pts Which disease is an example of a rickettsial infection? Cholera Correct! Rocky Mountain spotted fever Sleeping sickness Candida Rocky Mountain spotted fever is a result of a rickettsiae. Cholera is a bacterial infection, candida is a fungal infection, and sleeping sickness is a protozoal infection. Question 11 2 / 2 pts Which statement is true regarding maternal antibodies provided to the neonate? Correct! The antibodies enter into the fetal circulation by means of active transport. The antibodies are transferred to the fetus via the lymphatic system. The antibodies reach protective levels after approximately 6 months of age. The antibodies are directly related to the mother’s nutritional intake. To protect the child against infectious agents both in utero and during the first few postnatal months, a system of active transport facilitates the passage of maternal antibodies into the fetal circulation. The antibodies are transmitted via the placenta and are related to the mother’s immune system. The infant’s own IgG-related antibodies reach protective levels by 6 months of age. Question 12 2 / 2 pts Which statement is true regarding pain and cancer? Pain is primarily a result of pressure caused by the tumor. Correct! Pain is generally associated with late-stage cancer. Pain indicates the metastasis of a cancer. Pain is usually the initial symptom of cancer. Pain is generally associated with the late stages of cancer. Pressure, obstruction, invasion of a structure sensitive to pain, stretching, tissue destruction, and inflammation can cause pain. Pain is not the initial symptom of cancer nor does it indication that the cancer has metastasized. Question 13 2 / 2 pts During an infection, why do lymph nodes enlarge and become tender? The nodes fill with purulent exudate. Correct! B lymphocytes proliferate. The nodes are not properly functioning. The nodes are inflamed. The B lymphocyte proliferation in response to significant antigen (e.g., during infection) may result in lymph node enlargement and tenderness (reactive lymph node). This description is not accurate for the other options. Question 14 2 / 2 pts What is a significant cause of morbidity and mortality worldwide? Starvation Cardiovascular disease Correct! Infectious disease Traumatic injury Despite the wide-scale implementation of progressive public health and immunization policies, infectious disease remains a significant cause of morbidity and mortality. The other options are not significant causes. Question 15 2 / 2 pts Which renal change is found in older adults? Sharp decline in glomerular filtration rate Decrease in urine output Sharp decline in renal blood flow Correct! Decrease in the number of nephrons With aging, the number of nephrons decreases. The other options are not necessarily related to aging. Question 16 2 / 2 pts After sexual transmission of HIV, a person can be infected yet seronegative for how many months? 24 to 36 18 to 20 Correct! 6 to 14 1 to 2 Antibody appears rather rapidly after infection through blood products, usually within 4 to 7 weeks. After sexual transmission, however, the individual can be infected yet seronegative for 6 to 14 months or, in at least one case, for years. Question 17 2 / 2 pts Which organism is responsible for the development of syphilis? Neisseria syphilis Correct! Treponema pallidum Chlamydia trachomatis Haemophilus ducreyi T. pallidum is the only cause of syphilis. Question 18 2 / 2 pts The common hay fever allergy is expressed through a reaction that is mediated by which class of immunoglobulins? Correct! IgE IgG T cells IgM Type I reactions are mediated by antigen-specific IgE and the products of tissue mast cells (see Figure 9-1). The most common allergies (e.g., pollen allergies) are type I reactions. In addition, most type I reactions occur against environmental antigens and are therefore allergic. The other options do not accurately identify the mediation factor related to hay fever. Question 19 2 / 2 pts Blood cells that differentiate into macrophages are known as: Neutrophils Basophils Eosinophils Correct! Monocytes Only monocytes migrate into a variety of tissues and fully mature into tissue macrophages and myeloid dendritic cells (see Table 27-3). Question 20 2 / 2 pts In which structure does B lymphocytes mature and undergo changes that commit them to becoming B cells? Spleen Regional lymph nodes Thymus gland Correct! Bone marrow B lymphocytes mature and become B cells in specialized (primary) lymphoid organs— the thymus gland for T cells and the bone marrow for B cells. Neither regional lymph nodes nor the spleen are involved in changing B lymphocytes into B cells. Question 21 2 / 2 pts Hemophilia B is caused by a deficiency of which clotting factor? V Correct! IX X VIII Only factor IX deficiency causes hemophilia B (Christmas disease). Question 22 2 / 2 pts Which of the following causes condylomata acuminata or genital warts? Correct! Human papillomavirus (HPV) Herpes simplex virus 1 (HSV-1) Chlamydia Adenovirus Genital warts are quite contagious and are a result of only HPV. Question 23 2 / 2 pts Exhaustion occurs if stress continues when which stage of the general adaptation syndrome is not successful? Alarm Correct! Adaptation Flight or fight Arousal Exhaustion occurs if stress continues and adaptation is not successful, ultimately causing impairment of the immune response, heart failure, and kidney failure, leading to death. The other stages occur before the adaptation stage. Question 24 2 / 2 pts Which chamber of the heart endures the highest pressures?

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