FINAL EXAM Pathophysiology Final Exam
1. The movement of a solvent (water) across the cell membrane from an area low solute
concentration to an area of high solute concentration is called:
a. Osmosis
2. The movement of a solute from an area of high concentration to an area of low
concentration is called:
a. Diffusion
3. Which of the following statements is false about autosomal dominant disorders?
a. A person needs 2 copies of the disease gene to develop the disorder
4. In contrast to a malignant tumor, benign tumor:
a. Grows relatively slow
5. A lung biopsy has confirmed the presence of benign lung tumors in a patient. Which of
the following characteristic is associated with these patients’ neoplasm?
a. The cell growth is relatively slow
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6. What causes the depolarization and repolarization during an action potential?
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a. Influx Na: efflux K
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7. Which of the following are examples of a negative feedback system? (select all that
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apply)
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a. Control elevated blood sugar by insulin
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b. Control of elevated serum calcium level by calcitonin
c. Control of elevated body temperature by sweating
8. When a reason for disease or etiology is from an unintended effect of medical
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treatment this is called?
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a. Iatrogenic
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9. Which of the following physical effects is not a part of an inflammatory response at a
site?
a. Coolness
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10. Which of the following is not a part of the inflammatory response at a site?
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a. Decrease blood flow
11. Which of the following is considered innate immunity? (select all)
a. Skin
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b. Interferons
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c. Tears and saliva
d. Complement system
12. Which of the following is not considered an innate defense/immunity?
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a. T-cell mediated immunity
13. Which of the following is an example of artificial active immunity?
a. Receiving vaccine injection
b. A person receives measles vaccine
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, 14. Acquire Immunity:
a. Natural Active Immunity: Person has Rubella once
b. Natural Passive: Breast milk and Placenta
c. Artificial Active: Vaccination
d. Artificial passive: Temp. Protection, antibodies are injected
15. HIV infection causes immunodeficiency because of it:
a. Causes the destruction of helper T cells
16. The nurse recognizes which the following indicates of diagnosis of AIDs by the CDC?
a. CDC4+ cell count of fewer than 200 cells per microliter
17. The nurse is teaching a community health class about the immune system. The nurse asks
the class to list various functions of B cell in immunity. Which of the following is the
best response by students?
a. They work to produce antibodies
18. Main types of WBCs info, not a question
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a. Neutrophils - phagocytes bacteria; serves as first responders against invading
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pathogens
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b. Eosinophils - phagocytizes antigen-antibody complex; attacks parasites
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c. Basophils - releases histamine during inflammation
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d. Monocytes - phagocytizes bacteria, dead cells, and cellular debris
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e. Lymphocytes - involves immune protection, either attacking cells directly to
producing antibodies
19. Which type of WBC is the most abundant number and serves as first responders
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against invading pathogens that primarily function to phagocytizes bacteria?
aC s
a. Neutrophils
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20. Pernicious anemia - info only, not question
a. Vitamin B12 or megaloblastic anemia
b. Characterized by large macrocytic immature erythrocytes
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c. Lack of intrinsic factor
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21. Cyanocobalamin (vitamin B12) deficiency is found in?
a. Pernicious anemia
22. Considering the normal hemoglobin and hematocrit ratio: if a female adult had a
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hemoglobin of 12 g/dl her hematocrit will likely be?
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a. 36%
23. Anemia is diagnosed in females when hematocrit is less than
a. 37%
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24. A client presents to the emergency department with nausea, vomiting and severe
headache. The patient is diagnosed with cerebral edema. Which of the following
intravenous solution would you anticipate to be ordered to manage this condition?
a. 3% NaCl
25. The healthcare provider orders an IV infusion of hypotonic solution. The nurse knows an
appropriate IV solution to administer will be:
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