NURS6630 Final Exam Latest/NURS6630 Final Exam Latest/NURS6630 Final Exam Latest

NURS6630 Final Exam Latest




QUESTION 1

What will the PMHNP most likely prescribe to a patient with psychotic aggression who needs
to manage the top-down cortical control and the excessive drive from striatal hyperactivity?

A. Stimulants

B. Antidepressants

C. Antipsychotics

D. SSRIs

QUESTION 2

The PMHNP is selecting a medication treatment option for a patient who is exhibiting
psychotic behaviors with poor impulse control and aggression. Of the available treatments,
which can help temper some of the adverse effects or symptoms that are normally caused by
D2 antagonism?

A. First-generation, conventional antipsychotics

B. First-generation, atypical antipsychotics

C. Second-generation, conventional antipsychotics

D. Second-generation, atypical antipsychotics

QUESTION 3

The PMHNP is discussing dopamine D2 receptor occupancy and its association with
aggressive behaviors in patients with the student. Why does the PMHNP prescribe a standard
dose of atypical antipsychotics?

A. The doses are based on achieving 100% D2 receptor occupancy.

B. The doses are based on achieving a minimum of 80% D2 receptor occupancy.

C. The doses are based on achieving 60% D2 receptor occupancy.

D. None of the above.

QUESTION 4

Why does the PMHNP avoid prescribing clozapine (Clozaril) as a first-line treatment to the
patient with psychosis and aggression?