SELECT ALL THAT APPLY
NCLEX PRACTICE QUESTIONS QUIZ 1
(50 ITEMS)
Question 1 of 50
1. Question
A patient is admitted to the same-day surgery unit for liver biopsy.
Which of the following laboratory tests assesses coagulation? Select
all that apply.
A. Partial thromboplastin time.
B. Prothrombin time.
C. Platelet count.
D. Hemoglobin
E. Complete Blood Count
F. White Blood Cell Count
Correct Answer: A, B, and C
Prothrombin time, partial thromboplastin time, and platelet count are
all included in coagulation studies. The hemoglobin level, though
important information prior to an invasive procedure like liver biopsy,
does not assess coagulation.
Option A: Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) is the time it
takes for a patient’s blood to form a clot as measured in
seconds. It is used to measure the activity of the intrinsic
pathway of the clotting cascade. PTT tests the function of all
clotting factors except factor VII (tissue factor) and factor
XIII (fibrin stabilizing factor).
Option B: Prothrombin time (PT) is one of several blood
tests routinely used in clinical practice to evaluate the
coagulation status of patients. More specifically, PT is used
to evaluate the extrinsic and common pathways of
, coagulation, which would detect deficiencies of factors II, V,
VII, and X, and low fibrinogen concentrations.
Option C: Platelet count is being assessed to determine the
number of platelets in a sample of the blood as part of a
health exam; to screen for, diagnose, or monitor conditions
that affect the number of platelets, such as a bleeding
disorder, a bone marrow disease, or other underlying
conditions.
Option D: Hemoglobin is used to evaluate the hemoglobin
content of your blood as part of a general health checkup;
to screen for and help diagnose conditions that affect red
blood cells (RBCs); if there is anemia (low hemoglobin) or
polycythemia (high hemoglobin), and to assess the severity
of these conditions and to monitor response to treatment.
Option E: The complete blood count (CBC) is a group of
tests that evaluate the cells that circulate in blood,
including red blood cells (RBCs), white blood cells (WBCs),
and platelets (PLTs). The CBC can evaluate your overall
health and detect a variety of diseases and conditions, such
as infections, anemia and leukemia.
Option F: WBC count is used to screen for or diagnose a
variety of conditions that can affect the number of white
blood cells (WBCs), such as an infection, inflammation or a
disease that affects WBCs; to monitor treatment of a
disorder or to monitor therapy that is known to affect WBCs
2. Question
A patient is admitted to the hospital with suspected polycythemia
vera. Which of the following symptoms is consistent with the
diagnosis? Select all that apply.
A. Weight loss.
B. Prolonged clotting time.
C. Hypertension.
D. Headaches.
E. Polyphagia
, F. Pruritus
Correct Answer: B, C, D, and F.
Polycythemia vera is a condition in which the bone marrow produces
too many red blood cells. This causes an increase in hematocrit and
viscosity of the blood. Patients can experience headaches, dizziness,
and visual disturbances. Bleeding is also a complication, possibly
because the platelets are often very large and somewhat
dysfunctional. The bleeding can be significant and can occur in the
form of nosebleeds, ulcers, frank GI bleeding, hematuria, and
intracranial hemorrhage.
Option A: Weight loss is not a manifestation of
polycythemia vera. Weight loss may result from early
satiety or from the increased myeloproliferative activity of
the abnormal clone.
Option B: Patients with polycythemia vera are at increased
risk for thrombosis that may result in CVAs (strokes, brain
attacks) or myocardial infarctions (MIs); thrombotic
complications are the most common cause of death.
Option C: Cardiovascular effects include increased blood
pressure and delayed clotting time. Thrombotic
complications (1%) include venous thrombosis or
thromboembolism and an increased prevalence of stroke
and other arterial thrombosis.
Option D: Physical complaints can include fatigue,
headache, dizziness, tinnitus, vision changes, insomnia,
claudication, pruritus, gastritis, and early satiety.
Subsequent sludging of blood flow and thrombosis lead to
poor oxygen delivery, with symptoms that include
headache.
Option E: Early satiety can occur in patients with
splenomegaly, because gastric filling being impaired by the
enlarged spleen or, rarely, as a symptom of splenic
infarction.
Option F: Generalized pruritus is caused by histamine
release due to an increased number of basophils. Aquagenic
pruritus, which occurs during or after a hot shower, is a
complaint in 40% of patients. The mechanism is likely from
mast cell and basophil degranulation, causing a histamine
surge.
Question 3 of 50
, 3. Question
The nurse is teaching the client how to use a metered-dose inhaler
(MDI) to administer a Corticosteroid drug. Which of the following client
actions indicates that he is using the MDI correctly? Select all that
apply.
A. The inhaler is held upright.
B. Head is tilted down while inhaling the medication.
C. Client waits 5 minutes between puffs.
D. Mouth is rinsed with water following administration.
E. Client lies supine for 15 minutes following administration.
Correct Answer: A & D.
In using a corticosteroid MDI, remove the cap and hold the inhaler
upright, stand or sit up straight, shake the inhaler, tilt your head back
slightly, put the inhaler in the mouth, press down on the inhaler
quickly, breathe in slowly for 3 to 5 seconds, hold the breath for 10
seconds, breathe out slowly, repeat puffs as prescribed, rinse the
mouth, and gargle using water or mouthwash after each use.
Option A: Keep the chin up and the inhaler upright (not
aimed at the roof of the mouth or the tongue). Use a
spacer/valve-holding chamber (the best way, useful for all
patients) by putting the inhaler into the end with the hole
and the mouthpiece end in the mouth. If there is no spacer,
hold the inhaler 1 to 2 inches (or two-finger widths) in front
of an open mouth.
Option B: Head is tilted up during inhalation of the
medication. Start breathing in slowly through the mouth and
press down on the inhaler one time. If using a spacer or
valved-holding chamber, press down on the inhaler before
starting to breathe in. Breathe in slowly.
Option C: For inhaled quick-relief medicine (like albuterol),
wait about 1 minute between puffs. There is no need to wait
between puffs for other medicines.
NCLEX PRACTICE QUESTIONS QUIZ 1
(50 ITEMS)
Question 1 of 50
1. Question
A patient is admitted to the same-day surgery unit for liver biopsy.
Which of the following laboratory tests assesses coagulation? Select
all that apply.
A. Partial thromboplastin time.
B. Prothrombin time.
C. Platelet count.
D. Hemoglobin
E. Complete Blood Count
F. White Blood Cell Count
Correct Answer: A, B, and C
Prothrombin time, partial thromboplastin time, and platelet count are
all included in coagulation studies. The hemoglobin level, though
important information prior to an invasive procedure like liver biopsy,
does not assess coagulation.
Option A: Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) is the time it
takes for a patient’s blood to form a clot as measured in
seconds. It is used to measure the activity of the intrinsic
pathway of the clotting cascade. PTT tests the function of all
clotting factors except factor VII (tissue factor) and factor
XIII (fibrin stabilizing factor).
Option B: Prothrombin time (PT) is one of several blood
tests routinely used in clinical practice to evaluate the
coagulation status of patients. More specifically, PT is used
to evaluate the extrinsic and common pathways of
, coagulation, which would detect deficiencies of factors II, V,
VII, and X, and low fibrinogen concentrations.
Option C: Platelet count is being assessed to determine the
number of platelets in a sample of the blood as part of a
health exam; to screen for, diagnose, or monitor conditions
that affect the number of platelets, such as a bleeding
disorder, a bone marrow disease, or other underlying
conditions.
Option D: Hemoglobin is used to evaluate the hemoglobin
content of your blood as part of a general health checkup;
to screen for and help diagnose conditions that affect red
blood cells (RBCs); if there is anemia (low hemoglobin) or
polycythemia (high hemoglobin), and to assess the severity
of these conditions and to monitor response to treatment.
Option E: The complete blood count (CBC) is a group of
tests that evaluate the cells that circulate in blood,
including red blood cells (RBCs), white blood cells (WBCs),
and platelets (PLTs). The CBC can evaluate your overall
health and detect a variety of diseases and conditions, such
as infections, anemia and leukemia.
Option F: WBC count is used to screen for or diagnose a
variety of conditions that can affect the number of white
blood cells (WBCs), such as an infection, inflammation or a
disease that affects WBCs; to monitor treatment of a
disorder or to monitor therapy that is known to affect WBCs
2. Question
A patient is admitted to the hospital with suspected polycythemia
vera. Which of the following symptoms is consistent with the
diagnosis? Select all that apply.
A. Weight loss.
B. Prolonged clotting time.
C. Hypertension.
D. Headaches.
E. Polyphagia
, F. Pruritus
Correct Answer: B, C, D, and F.
Polycythemia vera is a condition in which the bone marrow produces
too many red blood cells. This causes an increase in hematocrit and
viscosity of the blood. Patients can experience headaches, dizziness,
and visual disturbances. Bleeding is also a complication, possibly
because the platelets are often very large and somewhat
dysfunctional. The bleeding can be significant and can occur in the
form of nosebleeds, ulcers, frank GI bleeding, hematuria, and
intracranial hemorrhage.
Option A: Weight loss is not a manifestation of
polycythemia vera. Weight loss may result from early
satiety or from the increased myeloproliferative activity of
the abnormal clone.
Option B: Patients with polycythemia vera are at increased
risk for thrombosis that may result in CVAs (strokes, brain
attacks) or myocardial infarctions (MIs); thrombotic
complications are the most common cause of death.
Option C: Cardiovascular effects include increased blood
pressure and delayed clotting time. Thrombotic
complications (1%) include venous thrombosis or
thromboembolism and an increased prevalence of stroke
and other arterial thrombosis.
Option D: Physical complaints can include fatigue,
headache, dizziness, tinnitus, vision changes, insomnia,
claudication, pruritus, gastritis, and early satiety.
Subsequent sludging of blood flow and thrombosis lead to
poor oxygen delivery, with symptoms that include
headache.
Option E: Early satiety can occur in patients with
splenomegaly, because gastric filling being impaired by the
enlarged spleen or, rarely, as a symptom of splenic
infarction.
Option F: Generalized pruritus is caused by histamine
release due to an increased number of basophils. Aquagenic
pruritus, which occurs during or after a hot shower, is a
complaint in 40% of patients. The mechanism is likely from
mast cell and basophil degranulation, causing a histamine
surge.
Question 3 of 50
, 3. Question
The nurse is teaching the client how to use a metered-dose inhaler
(MDI) to administer a Corticosteroid drug. Which of the following client
actions indicates that he is using the MDI correctly? Select all that
apply.
A. The inhaler is held upright.
B. Head is tilted down while inhaling the medication.
C. Client waits 5 minutes between puffs.
D. Mouth is rinsed with water following administration.
E. Client lies supine for 15 minutes following administration.
Correct Answer: A & D.
In using a corticosteroid MDI, remove the cap and hold the inhaler
upright, stand or sit up straight, shake the inhaler, tilt your head back
slightly, put the inhaler in the mouth, press down on the inhaler
quickly, breathe in slowly for 3 to 5 seconds, hold the breath for 10
seconds, breathe out slowly, repeat puffs as prescribed, rinse the
mouth, and gargle using water or mouthwash after each use.
Option A: Keep the chin up and the inhaler upright (not
aimed at the roof of the mouth or the tongue). Use a
spacer/valve-holding chamber (the best way, useful for all
patients) by putting the inhaler into the end with the hole
and the mouthpiece end in the mouth. If there is no spacer,
hold the inhaler 1 to 2 inches (or two-finger widths) in front
of an open mouth.
Option B: Head is tilted up during inhalation of the
medication. Start breathing in slowly through the mouth and
press down on the inhaler one time. If using a spacer or
valved-holding chamber, press down on the inhaler before
starting to breathe in. Breathe in slowly.
Option C: For inhaled quick-relief medicine (like albuterol),
wait about 1 minute between puffs. There is no need to wait
between puffs for other medicines.
