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RNSG 6435: PEDS FINAL EXAM REVIEW WITH VERIFIED ANS

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RNSG 6435: PEDS FINAL EXAM REVIEW WITH VERIFIED ANS

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RNSG 6435: PEDS FINAL EXAM REVIEW WITH VERIFIED
ANS




 An exam of the male genitalia that consist of inserting a finger into the Louis cordam and

into the inguinal canal, and asking the patient to cough causes the nurse practitioner to feel a

sudden presence of a viscus that lies within the inguinal canal and comes through the external

canal passing into the scrotum is most likely called:

A. A direct inguinal hernia

B. An indirect inguinal hernia

C. A strangulated inguinal hernia

D. A femoral hernia

 An illed pediatric patient with respiratory symptoms has the following CXR based on this

imagery what is the most likely microorganism?

a. Haemophilus influenza

b. streptococcus pneumonia

c. rotavirus

d. mycoplasma pneumonia

 An 18-month-old child is brought to the clinic by her mother and is complaining of abrupt

onset of vomiting. Followed by more than 10 liquid stools with mucus for the past 48 hours.

The temperature is 100 degrees F (37.8) orally. The stool smear by the family

,nurse practitioner is negative for WBC’s. What is the most likely etiologic pathogen for this

young child’s gastroenteritis?

a. Shigella dysenteriae

b. Salmonella

c. Campylobacter jejuni

d. Rotavirus




 Missing??????




 A 3-year-old child with up to date immunizations is brought to the office by his mother with

a fairly rapid onset stridor and high-pitched wheeze. In view of this information, what would be

the least important condition to consider for the differential diagnosis?

a. Croup

b. Bacterial tracheitis

c. Foreign body aspiration

d. Epiglottitis

 When determining the classification of asthma control in a patient from 12 to 60 years old,

who has symptoms less than 2 days per week, no interference with normal activity, reports

nighttime awakening 1 time or less per month and using a short acting B2 agonist 3-4 times per

week, the family nurse practitioner would classify the patient as:

a. Well-controlled

, b. Very poorly controlled

c. Not well-controlled

d. Out of control

 A 3-year-old child is seen in the clinic for chronic, relapsing diarrhea. A stool for ova and

parasites is obtained and is positive for Giardia. What is the most appropriate pharmacologic

intervention?

a. Metronidazole (Flagyl)

b. Erythromycin (E-Mycin)

c. Ampicillin (Omnipen)




 Match the description of the skin lesions with the disorder where it is found.

1. Nevus (flat mole): Flat circumscribed area that is less than 1 cm in diameter

, 2. Psoriasis or seborrheic and actinic keratosis: Elevated, firm, and rough lesion with a flat

top surface greater than 1 cm in diameter

3. Varicella (Chickenpox), herpes zoster (shingles): Elevated circumscribed superficial

lesion filled with serous fluid, less than 1 cm in diameter

4. Urticaria allergic reaction: Elevated irregular-shaped area of cutaneous edema; solid

and transient with a variable diameter




 During examination of a 3-week-old it is noted that the child has irritability when lifted or

carried, asymmetrical Moro reflex and spasms along the right sternocleidomastoid. What does

this suggest?

a. Klippel-Feil syndrome

b. Torticollitis

c. Sprengel deformity

d. Fractured clavicle

 The family nurse practitioner is teaching a patient about the role of medications in the

treatment of asthma. Which statement by the patient would require further teaching?

a. “The Salmeterol that I take provides me with long-term control”

b. “I need to use my peak-flow meter to self-monitor how I am doing” c.

“I do not need to use a spacer with my MDI”

d. “My albuterol is my quick-relief mediation”

 Which of the is a typical presentation of a dislocation in the hip of a child 6 months of

older?

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