Exam (elaborations) NURS 231 PATHOPHYSIOLOGY FINAL EXAM

Exam (elaborations) NURS 231 PATHOPHYSIOLOGY FINAL EXAM 1. The movement of a solvent (water) across the cell membrane from an area low solute concentration to an area of high solute concentration is called: a. Osmosis 2. The movement of a solute from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration is called: a. Diffusion 3. Which of the following statements is false about autosomal dominant disorders? a. A person needs 2 copies of the disease gene to develop the disorder 4. In contrast to a malignant tumor, benign tumor: a. Grows relatively slow 5. A lung biopsy has confirmed the presence of benign lung tumors in a patient. Which of the following characteristic is associated with these patients’ neoplasm? a. The cell growth is relatively slow 6. What causes the depolarization and repolarization during an action potential? a. Influx Na: efflux K 7. Which of the following are examples of a negative feedback system? (select all that apply) a. Control elevated blood sugar by insulin b. Control of elevated serum calcium level by calcitonin c. Control of elevated body temperature by sweating 8. When a reason for disease or etiology is from an unintended effect of medical treatment this is called? a. Iatrogenic 9. Which of the following physical effects is not a part of an inflammatory response at a site? a. Coolness 10. Which of the following is not a part of the inflammatory response at a site? a. Decrease blood flow 11. Which of the following is considered innate immunity? (select all) a. Skin b. Interferons c. Tears and saliva d. Complement system 12. Which of the following is not considered an innate defense/immunity? a. T-cell mediated immunity 13. Which of the following is an example of artificial active immunity? a. Receiving vaccine injection b. A person receives measles vaccine This study source was downloaded by from CourseH on :24:26 GMT -05:00 This study resource was shared via CourseH NURS 231 PATHOPHYSIOLOGY FINAL EXAM 14. Acquire Immunity: a. Natural Active Immunity: Person has Rubella once b. Natural Passive: Breast milk and Placenta c. Artificial Active: Vaccination d. Artificial passive: Temp. Protection, antibodies are injected 15. HIV infection causes immunodeficiency because of it: a. Causes the destruction of helper T cells 16. The nurse recognizes which the following indicates of diagnosis of AIDs by the CDC? a. CDC4+ cell count of fewer than 200 cells per microliter 17. The nurse is teaching a community health class about the immune system. The nurse asks the class to list various functions of B cell in immunity. Which of the following is the best response by students? a. They work to produce antibodies 18. Main types of WBCs info, not a question a. Neutrophils - phagocytes bacteria; serves as first responders against invading pathogens b. Eosinophils - phagocytizes antigen-antibody complex; attacks parasites c. Basophils - releases histamine during inflammation d. Monocytes - phagocytizes bacteria, dead cells, and cellular debris e. Lymphocytes - involves immune protection, either attacking cells directly to producing antibodies 19. Which type of WBC is the most abundant number and serves as first responders against invading pathogens that primarily function to phagocytizes bacteria? a. Neutrophils 20. Pernicious anemia - info only, not question a. Vitamin B12 or megaloblastic anemia b. Characterized by large macrocytic immature erythrocytes c. Lack of intrinsic factor 21. Cyanocobalamin (vitamin B12) deficiency is found in? a. Pernicious anemia 22. Considering the normal hemoglobin and hematocrit ratio: if a female adult had a hemoglobin of 12 g/dl her hematocrit will likely be? a. 36% 23. Anemia is diagnosed in females when hematocrit is less than a. 37% 24. A client presents to the emergency department with nausea, vomiting and severe headache. The patient is diagnosed with cerebral edema. Which of the following intravenous solution would you anticipate to be ordered to manage this condition? a. 3% NaCl 25. The healthcare provider orders an IV infusion of hypotonic solution. The nurse knows an appropriate IV solution to administer will be: This study source was downloaded by from CourseH on :24:26 GMT -05:00 This study resource was shared via CourseH a. 0.45% 26. Isotonic: a. 0.9% NaCl b. 5% Dextrose 27. Which of the following electrolytes is most abundant/prevalent within the intracellular fluid compartments? a. Potassium 28. The primarily intracellular cation is a. Potassium 29. The primarily intracellular anion is a. Sodium 30. Interpret the following arterial blood gas analysis: ph 7.48, paCO2 = 52mmHg, HCO3 = 31mEq/L a. Partially compensated metabolic alkalosis 31. Interpret the following arterial blood gas analysis: pH = 7.51, PaCO2 = 42mmHg, HCO3 =32mEq/L a. Uncompensated metabolic acidosis 32. Which of the following is the least likely manifestation of Cushing syndrome? a. Weight loss 33. Diabetes types a. Type I: insulin-dependent i. Usually autoimmune (body attacks pancreas) ii. Usually born within (childhood; young-onset) iii. No cure b. Type II: not insulin-dependent i. Occurs after a long-standing history ii. older/overweight iii. The pancreas works but has a problem with insulin iv. No cure, but can be modified/controlled by diet and other agents 34. Which of the following laboratory test results indicated hyperthyroidism a. ↑T3/T4, ↓TSH 35. A 75-year-old mal present to the Ed with elevated serum level of blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine. The provider determines his long term use of furosemide(diuretics) caused acute kidney injury. The cause of the AKI is categorized: a. Prerenal 36. A 75-year-old mal present to the Ed with elevated serum level of blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine. The provider determines his long-standing benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) caused acute kidney injury (AKI). the cause of the AKI classified as a. Postrenal 37. Which of the following hormone is synthesized by the kidneys in response to hypoxia and stimulate the bone marrow to produce red blood cells (RBCs)? This study source was downloaded by from CourseH on :24:26 GMT -05:00 This study resource was shared via CourseH a. Erythropoietin 38. Hormones synthesized by the kidneys 1. Renin 2. Calcitriol 3. Erythropoietin 39. Which of the following “clinical manifestation management” match is least likely recommended for nephrotic syndrome? a. Massive proteinuria 3.5 grams - high protein diet 40. What is the hallmark clinical manifestation of nephrotic syndrome? a. Urinary loss of protein 3.5g of protein a day can make urine foamy 41. Which of the following is true about the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone (RAA) system? a. Renin converts angiotensin I to angiotensin II 42. ADH is made by the ______stored and secreted from ________gland. a. Hypothalamus, Posterior pituitary 43. ADH alters tubular reabsorption increasing fluid volume by ____________ (vasoconstriction) a. 44. The most accurate indicator of fluid loss or gain is a. Bodyweight 45. The wave of an electrocardiogram (ECG): a. QRS wave: Depolarization of the ventricles b. P wave: atrial depolarization c. T wave: ventricular repolarization d. U wave: thought to be the repolarization of the Purkinje fibers (rarely observed) 46. Conduction system a. Conduction: transmission of electrical impulsive within the heart b. Coordinated contraction of the atria and ventricles c. Normally the conduction pathway originates in the SA node d. Properties of the myocardial cells: e. Conductivity: the ability to conduct electrical impulses f. Excitability: the ability to respond to electrical impulses g. Automaticity: ability to generate an impulse to contract without external nerve stimuli h. Contractility: ability to respond mechanically to an impulse 47. The ability of the myocardial cells to generate an impulse to contract without external nerves stimulus is called a. Automaticity 48. Stenosis of the heart valve means a. Narrowing of heart valves 49. What are the findings in a patient’s who have right-sided heart failure? select all that This study source was downloaded by from CourseH on :24:26 GMT -05:00 This study resource was shared via CourseH apply a. Jugular vein distension (JVD) b. Edema c. Weight gain d. Decrease CO 50. Left-sided heart failure is a result of ineffective left ventricular contractility and pulmonary congestion develops as blood backs up in the lungs. a. True 51. What is atherosclerosis? a. Abnormal accumulation of lipids and fibrous plate (plaque) in the lining of the arterial blood vessel 52. Baroreceptors located in the carotid responds to _______ in the circulating blood volume by stimulating the _______ nervous system and releasing epinephrine, which leads to increase blood pressure and heart rate a. Decrease, sympathetic 53. Baroreceptors also knowns as a. stretch receptors 54. Which of the following pressure measurement is considered as hypertension stage I according to American heart association (AHA) blood pressure category a. 134/78 55. Which of the following is the less likely response in the compensatory stage of shock? a. Bradycardia 56. Vomitus (Emesis) (info) a. Content Vomitted i. Hematemesis: Vomiting of blood. ii. Coffee Ground: Vomiting of coagulated blood. iii. Yellow or green: Vomiting of bile. iv. Deep brown: Vomiting of chyme of small intestine. 57. Which of the following is the by-product of anaerobic respirations due to oxygen supply reproduction to the myocardium? a. Lactic acid 58. A 7-year old female complains of chest pain when she exerts herself but is relieved by rest. What should the nurse most likely suspect? a. Stable angina 59. Which of the following statement is