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NURS 6630 Final Exam: Psychopharmacologic Approaches to Treatment of Psychopathology: Walden University

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NURS 6630 Final Exam: Psychopharmacologic Approaches to Treatment of Psychopathology: Walden UniversityQUESTION 1 What will the PMHNP most likely prescribe to a patient with psychotic aggression who needs to manage the top-down cortical control and the excessive drive from striatal hyperactivity? A. Stimulants B. Antidepressants C. Antipsychotics D. SSRIs QUESTION 2 The PMHNP is selecting a medication treatment option for a patient who is exhibiting psychotic behaviors with poor impulse control and aggression. Of the available treatments, which can help temper some of the adverse effects or symptoms that are normally caused by D2 antagonism? A. First-generation, conventional antipsychotics B. First-generation, atypical antipsychotics C. Second-generation, conventional antipsychotics D. Second-generation, atypical antipsychotics QUESTION 3 The PMHNP is discussing dopamine D2 receptor occupancy and its association with aggressive behaviors in patients with the student. Why does the PMHNP prescribe a standard dose of atypical antipsychotics? A. The doses are based on achieving 100% D2 receptor occupancy. B. The doses are based on achieving a minimum of 80% D2 receptor occupancy. C. The doses are based on achieving 60% D2 receptor occupancy. D. None of the above. QUESTION 4 Why does the PMHNP avoid prescribing clozapine (Clozaril) as a first-line treatment to the patient with psychosis and aggression? A. There is too high a risk of serious adverse side effects. B. It can exaggerate the psychotic symptoms. C. Clozapine (Clozaril) should not be used as high-dose monotherapy. D. There is no documentation that clozapine (Clozaril) is effective for patients who are violent. QUESTION 5 The PMHNP is caring for a patient on risperidone (Risperdal). Which action made by the PMHNP exhibits proper care for this patient? A. Explaining to the patient that there are no risks of EPS B. Prescribing the patient 12 mg/dail C. Titrating the dose by increasing it every 5–7 days D. Writing a prescription for a higher dose of oral risperidone (Risperdal) to achieve high D2 receptor occupancy QUESTION 6 The PMHNP wants to prescribe Mr. Barber a mood stabilizer that will target aggressive and impulsive symptoms by decreasing dopaminergic neurotransmission. Which mood stabilizer will the PMHNP select? A. Lithium (Lithane) B. Phenytoin (Dilantin) C. Valproate (Depakote) D. Topiramate (Topamax)

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NURS 6630 Final Exam: Psychopharmacologic Approaches to Treatment of
Psychopathology: Walden University
(FOR 100% CORRECT ANSWER CHECK THE LAST PAGE)



QUESTION 1

What will the PMHNP most likely prescribe to a patient with psychotic aggression who

needs to manage the top-down cortical control and the excessive drive from striatal

hyperactivity?

A. Stimulants B. Antidepressants C. Antipsychotics D. SSRIs

QUESTION 2

The PMHNP is selecting a medication treatment option for a patient who is exhibiting

psychotic behaviors with poor impulse control and aggression. Of the available treatments,

which can help temper some of the adverse effects or symptoms that are normally caused

by D2 antagonism?

A. First-generation, conventional antipsychotics B. First-generation, atypical antipsychotics

C. Second-generation, conventional antipsychotics D. Second-generation, atypical

antipsychotics

QUESTION 3

The PMHNP is discussing dopamine D2 receptor occupancy and its association with

aggressive behaviors in patients with the student. Why does the PMHNP prescribe a

standard dose of atypical antipsychotics?

, A. The doses are based on achieving 100% D2 receptor occupancy. B. The doses are based

on achieving a minimum of 80% D2 receptor occupancy. C. The doses are based on

achieving 60% D2 receptor occupancy. D. None of the above.

QUESTION 4

Why does the PMHNP avoid prescribing clozapine (Clozaril) as a first-line treatment to the

patient with psychosis and aggression?

A. There is too high a risk of serious adverse side effects. B. It can exaggerate the psychotic

symptoms. C. Clozapine (Clozaril) should not be used as high-dose monotherapy. D. There

is no documentation that clozapine (Clozaril) is effective for patients who are violent.

QUESTION 5

The PMHNP is caring for a patient on risperidone (Risperdal). Which action made by the

PMHNP exhibits proper care for this patient?

A. Explaining to the patient that there are no risks of EPS B. Prescribing the patient 12

mg/dail C. Titrating the dose by increasing it every 5–7 days D. Writing a prescription for a

higher dose of oral risperidone (Risperdal) to achieve high D2 receptor occupancy

QUESTION 6

The PMHNP wants to prescribe Mr. Barber a mood stabilizer that will target aggressive

and impulsive symptoms by decreasing dopaminergic neurotransmission. Which mood

stabilizer will the PMHNP select? A. Lithium (Lithane) B. Phenytoin (Dilantin) C.

Valproate (Depakote) D. Topiramate (Topamax)

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