NURS HEALTH ASS / 249660457-Intro-to-patient-care-Exam-2-content-Questions & Answers
1. A 14-year-old girl with seizure disorder is admitted to the Shadow General pediatric floor.
During her hospitalization she is diagnosed with Bell’s palsy. What would you expect to find
on physical exam?
A. Increased peripheral deep tendon reflexes
B. Decreased peripheral deep tendon reflexes
C. One-sided facial paralysis
D. One-sided body paralysis
C
2. A 72-year-old with a history of Parkinson’s is admitted to Shadow General Hospital for shoul-
der surgery. What would you expect to find on the neurological exam?
A. Tremor at rest
B. Flaccid arm muscles
C. Flaccid leg muscles
D. Tremor with activity
3. Which of the following could be used to assess abstract thought?
A. Asking Tina to explain an idiom like, “A rolling stone gathers no moss.”
B. Drawing the number 3 in Tina’s hand and asking her to identify the number.
C. Placing a paperclip in Tina’s hand and asking her to identify the object.
D. Asking Tina to explain a common phrase such as, “It is a beautiful day.”
A: A person exhibiting abstract thinking will be able to identify the intended connotation of a
phrase. A concrete thinker will only be able to describe the literal meaning. Abstract thinking can
also be assessed by asking about similarities between objects.
4. You examine cerebellar function by examining:
A Coordination
B Reflexes
C Flexibility
D Strength
A: The cerebellum is responsible for creating fluency and accuracy in voluntary motions. You
can test cerebellar function by assessing a person’s coordination and purpose in movements
while ambulating and while performing the finger-to-finger, finger-to-nose, heel-to-shin, rapid al-
ternating movements, and Romberg tests.
5. To determine Tina’s level of consciousness, you would assess her orientation to
A. Place, situation, and mediation list
B. Person, place, and time
C. Time, language, and family history
D. Person, place, and recent memory
B: The first sign of deterioration of a patient’s condition is usually changes in level of conscious-
ness.
,NURS HEALTH ASS / 249660457-Intro-to-patient-care-Exam-2-content-Questions & Answers
6. If during an exam, Tina told you that her feet occasionally felt “numb,” what assessment
would you do?
Because Tina is at risk for diabetic neuropathy, it is important to assess bilateral
sensations starting at her feet and proceeding up the legs. Sensation tests should include sharp
and dull touch, light touch, vibration, temperature, point location, and positioning of joints. Su-
perficial and deep tendon reflexes of the feet, ankles, and knees should also be assessed to de-
termine the extent of her neuropathy.
7. Imagine that the documentation in the Electronic Medical Record (EMR) described Tina as
“confused” yesterday evening. However, you had assessed orientation and basic level of con-
sciousness to find her alert and oriented to person, place and time. Would it be necessary to as-
sess Tina’s mental status further?
Usually mental status can be informally assessed during a patient interview.
However, due to Tina’s recent fluctuation in cognition, a formal mental status exam should be
performed to ensure that she is lucid in all domains.
8. Identify the components (domains) of a comprehensive mental status exam.
Comprehensive mental status exams should assess a patient’s orientation, at-
tention, abstract thinking, comprehension, judgment, memory, vocabulary, and speech. Mental
status assessment is usually performed informally and continuously throughout the physical
exam. When a problem is suspected, the clinician may choose to perform a complete formal
mental status exam.
9. A 3-year-old child with Down’s syndrome is in the cardiac ICU of Shadow General Hospital
following open heart surgery. Which of the following musculoskeletal physical exam findings
would you expect to find on this child?
A Fixed joints
B Lordosis
C Hyperextensible joints
D Scoliosis
10. An 86-year-old woman has been admitted to the Shadow General surgical floor after a knee
replacement. She has a history of degenerative joint disease (DJD). What physical exam find -
ings would you expect to find?
A Joint deformity
B Shuffling gait
C Postural instability
D Humpback
11. If Tina had displayed limited abduction of the left shoulder, it would mean that:
A She has limited movement forward
B She has limited movement in a circular motion
,NURS HEALTH ASS / 249660457-Intro-to-patient-care-Exam-2-content-Questions & Answers
C She has limited movement toward her body
D She has limited movement away from her body
D: Abduction is defined as a motion in which a body part is moved away from the body’s mid-
line.
12. Suppose you noted that Tina’s left knee was swollen. Which of the following tests should be
done?
A Balloon test
B Fluid wave
C Bulge sign
D Tinel's sign
C: The bulge sign is a test for excess fluid accumulation in the knee. It is performed by rubbing
the knee capsule in upward strokes to displace fluid and observing for the creation of a bulge
when the fluid returns to its original position.
13. Imagine that Tina was unable to move her right ankle. You notice that her muscles contract
as she attempts to dorsiflex her ankle, but no movement occurs. How would you grade her an-
kle strength?
A 1/5
B 2/5
C 4/5
D 3/5
A: According to the Oxford Scale, a muscle group that has no mobility but displays visible mus-
cle contraction is graded as a 1/5 strength.
14. The group of axillary lymph nodes that drains the other three groups of nodes is the:
A anterior nodes.
B central nodes
C lateral nodes.
D posterior nodes.
B The central axillary nodes receive lymph from the other three groups of nodes (i.e., anterior
[pectoral], posterior [subscapular], and lateral).
15. An older adult female is having an annual mammogram. Before the mammogram, the nurse
does a breast examination. Expected normal findings would include:
A palpable, firm, stringy lactiferous ducts.
B increased glandularity.
C yellow colostrum expressed from the nipple.
D a unilateral venous pattern.
, NURS HEALTH ASS / 249660457-Intro-to-patient-care-Exam-2-content-Questions & Answers
A An older adult’s (eighth to ninth decades) lactiferous ducts are more palpable and feel firm
and stringy because of fibrosis and calcification. The older adult’s glandular breast tissue atro-
phies. Yellow colostrums may be expressed from the nipple of a pregnant female after the first
trimester. A venous pattern is prominent over the skin surface of pregnant women.
16. The number of lobes within the breast ranges between:
A 10 and 20.
B 15 and 20.
C 20 and 25.
D 20 and 40.
B The glandular breast tissue contains between 15 and 20 lobes radiating from the nipple.
17. Gynecomastia occurs with:
A Addison disease.
B hypothyroidism.
C calcium channel blockers.
D liver cirrhosis.
D Gynecomastia occurs in liver cirrhosis because the liver is unable to metabolize estrogens.
Gynecomastia may occur in hyperthyroidism. Gynecomastia may occur in Cushing syndrome
not Addison disease. Gynecomastia may occur as an adverse effect of certain medications
(e.g., metronidazole, isoniazid, digoxin, ACE inhibitors, diazepam, and tricyclic antidepressants)
18. The relative proportion of glandular, fibrous, and adipose breast tissue depends on
A environmental factors.
B genetics.
C sex.
D nutritional state.
D The relative proportion of glandular, fibrous, and fatty tissue varies depending on age, cycle,
pregnancy, lactation, and general nutritional state.
19. A known risk factor for breast cancer includes:
A early menarche or late menopause.
B low breast tissue density.
C breastfeeding an infant for more than 6 months.
D low-fat, low cholesterol diet.
A. A risk factor for breast cancer is early menarche (less than 12 years) or late menopause (af-
ter 55 years). A risk factor for breast cancer is high breast tissue density. A risk factor for breast
cancer is never breastfeeding a child. A risk factor for breast cancer is a high-fat diet.
20. A normal common breast variation is:
A enlarged axillary lymph nodes.
B a supernumerary breast.
C a supernumerary nipple.
1. A 14-year-old girl with seizure disorder is admitted to the Shadow General pediatric floor.
During her hospitalization she is diagnosed with Bell’s palsy. What would you expect to find
on physical exam?
A. Increased peripheral deep tendon reflexes
B. Decreased peripheral deep tendon reflexes
C. One-sided facial paralysis
D. One-sided body paralysis
C
2. A 72-year-old with a history of Parkinson’s is admitted to Shadow General Hospital for shoul-
der surgery. What would you expect to find on the neurological exam?
A. Tremor at rest
B. Flaccid arm muscles
C. Flaccid leg muscles
D. Tremor with activity
3. Which of the following could be used to assess abstract thought?
A. Asking Tina to explain an idiom like, “A rolling stone gathers no moss.”
B. Drawing the number 3 in Tina’s hand and asking her to identify the number.
C. Placing a paperclip in Tina’s hand and asking her to identify the object.
D. Asking Tina to explain a common phrase such as, “It is a beautiful day.”
A: A person exhibiting abstract thinking will be able to identify the intended connotation of a
phrase. A concrete thinker will only be able to describe the literal meaning. Abstract thinking can
also be assessed by asking about similarities between objects.
4. You examine cerebellar function by examining:
A Coordination
B Reflexes
C Flexibility
D Strength
A: The cerebellum is responsible for creating fluency and accuracy in voluntary motions. You
can test cerebellar function by assessing a person’s coordination and purpose in movements
while ambulating and while performing the finger-to-finger, finger-to-nose, heel-to-shin, rapid al-
ternating movements, and Romberg tests.
5. To determine Tina’s level of consciousness, you would assess her orientation to
A. Place, situation, and mediation list
B. Person, place, and time
C. Time, language, and family history
D. Person, place, and recent memory
B: The first sign of deterioration of a patient’s condition is usually changes in level of conscious-
ness.
,NURS HEALTH ASS / 249660457-Intro-to-patient-care-Exam-2-content-Questions & Answers
6. If during an exam, Tina told you that her feet occasionally felt “numb,” what assessment
would you do?
Because Tina is at risk for diabetic neuropathy, it is important to assess bilateral
sensations starting at her feet and proceeding up the legs. Sensation tests should include sharp
and dull touch, light touch, vibration, temperature, point location, and positioning of joints. Su-
perficial and deep tendon reflexes of the feet, ankles, and knees should also be assessed to de-
termine the extent of her neuropathy.
7. Imagine that the documentation in the Electronic Medical Record (EMR) described Tina as
“confused” yesterday evening. However, you had assessed orientation and basic level of con-
sciousness to find her alert and oriented to person, place and time. Would it be necessary to as-
sess Tina’s mental status further?
Usually mental status can be informally assessed during a patient interview.
However, due to Tina’s recent fluctuation in cognition, a formal mental status exam should be
performed to ensure that she is lucid in all domains.
8. Identify the components (domains) of a comprehensive mental status exam.
Comprehensive mental status exams should assess a patient’s orientation, at-
tention, abstract thinking, comprehension, judgment, memory, vocabulary, and speech. Mental
status assessment is usually performed informally and continuously throughout the physical
exam. When a problem is suspected, the clinician may choose to perform a complete formal
mental status exam.
9. A 3-year-old child with Down’s syndrome is in the cardiac ICU of Shadow General Hospital
following open heart surgery. Which of the following musculoskeletal physical exam findings
would you expect to find on this child?
A Fixed joints
B Lordosis
C Hyperextensible joints
D Scoliosis
10. An 86-year-old woman has been admitted to the Shadow General surgical floor after a knee
replacement. She has a history of degenerative joint disease (DJD). What physical exam find -
ings would you expect to find?
A Joint deformity
B Shuffling gait
C Postural instability
D Humpback
11. If Tina had displayed limited abduction of the left shoulder, it would mean that:
A She has limited movement forward
B She has limited movement in a circular motion
,NURS HEALTH ASS / 249660457-Intro-to-patient-care-Exam-2-content-Questions & Answers
C She has limited movement toward her body
D She has limited movement away from her body
D: Abduction is defined as a motion in which a body part is moved away from the body’s mid-
line.
12. Suppose you noted that Tina’s left knee was swollen. Which of the following tests should be
done?
A Balloon test
B Fluid wave
C Bulge sign
D Tinel's sign
C: The bulge sign is a test for excess fluid accumulation in the knee. It is performed by rubbing
the knee capsule in upward strokes to displace fluid and observing for the creation of a bulge
when the fluid returns to its original position.
13. Imagine that Tina was unable to move her right ankle. You notice that her muscles contract
as she attempts to dorsiflex her ankle, but no movement occurs. How would you grade her an-
kle strength?
A 1/5
B 2/5
C 4/5
D 3/5
A: According to the Oxford Scale, a muscle group that has no mobility but displays visible mus-
cle contraction is graded as a 1/5 strength.
14. The group of axillary lymph nodes that drains the other three groups of nodes is the:
A anterior nodes.
B central nodes
C lateral nodes.
D posterior nodes.
B The central axillary nodes receive lymph from the other three groups of nodes (i.e., anterior
[pectoral], posterior [subscapular], and lateral).
15. An older adult female is having an annual mammogram. Before the mammogram, the nurse
does a breast examination. Expected normal findings would include:
A palpable, firm, stringy lactiferous ducts.
B increased glandularity.
C yellow colostrum expressed from the nipple.
D a unilateral venous pattern.
, NURS HEALTH ASS / 249660457-Intro-to-patient-care-Exam-2-content-Questions & Answers
A An older adult’s (eighth to ninth decades) lactiferous ducts are more palpable and feel firm
and stringy because of fibrosis and calcification. The older adult’s glandular breast tissue atro-
phies. Yellow colostrums may be expressed from the nipple of a pregnant female after the first
trimester. A venous pattern is prominent over the skin surface of pregnant women.
16. The number of lobes within the breast ranges between:
A 10 and 20.
B 15 and 20.
C 20 and 25.
D 20 and 40.
B The glandular breast tissue contains between 15 and 20 lobes radiating from the nipple.
17. Gynecomastia occurs with:
A Addison disease.
B hypothyroidism.
C calcium channel blockers.
D liver cirrhosis.
D Gynecomastia occurs in liver cirrhosis because the liver is unable to metabolize estrogens.
Gynecomastia may occur in hyperthyroidism. Gynecomastia may occur in Cushing syndrome
not Addison disease. Gynecomastia may occur as an adverse effect of certain medications
(e.g., metronidazole, isoniazid, digoxin, ACE inhibitors, diazepam, and tricyclic antidepressants)
18. The relative proportion of glandular, fibrous, and adipose breast tissue depends on
A environmental factors.
B genetics.
C sex.
D nutritional state.
D The relative proportion of glandular, fibrous, and fatty tissue varies depending on age, cycle,
pregnancy, lactation, and general nutritional state.
19. A known risk factor for breast cancer includes:
A early menarche or late menopause.
B low breast tissue density.
C breastfeeding an infant for more than 6 months.
D low-fat, low cholesterol diet.
A. A risk factor for breast cancer is early menarche (less than 12 years) or late menopause (af-
ter 55 years). A risk factor for breast cancer is high breast tissue density. A risk factor for breast
cancer is never breastfeeding a child. A risk factor for breast cancer is a high-fat diet.
20. A normal common breast variation is:
A enlarged axillary lymph nodes.
B a supernumerary breast.
C a supernumerary nipple.
