NURS 6541 Week 1 Quiz, NURS 6541 Week 2 Quiz, NURS 6541 Week 3 Quiz, NURS 6541 Week 4 Quiz, NURS 6541 Week 5 Quiz, NURS 6541 Week 6 Quiz, NURS 6541 Week 7 Quiz & NURS 6541 Week 8, 9, 10, 11 Quiz (2 Latest Versions of Each Quiz)

NURS 6541 Week 1 Quiz, NURS 6541 Week 2 Quiz, NURS 6541 Week 3 Quiz, NURS 6541 Week 4 Quiz, NURS 6541 Week 5 Quiz, NURS 6541 Week 6 Quiz, NURS 6541 Week 7 Quiz & NURS 6541 Week 8, 9, 10, 11 Quiz (2 Latest Versions of Each Quiz) NURS 6541N Week 1 Quiz, NURS 6541N Week 2 Quiz, NURS 6541N Week 3 Quiz, NURS 6541N Week 4 Quiz, NURS 6541N Week 5 Quiz, NURS 6541N Week 6 Quiz, NURS 6541N Week 7 Quiz, NURS 6541N Week 8, 9, 10, 11 Quiz ( 2 Latest Versions of Each Quiz) NURS6541 Week 1 Quiz, NURS6541 Week 2 Quiz, NURS6541 Week 3 Quiz, NURS6541 Week 4 Quiz, NURS6541 Week 5 Quiz, NURS6541 Week 6 Quiz, NURS6541 Week 7 Quiz, NURS6541 Week 8, 9, 10, 11 Quiz ( 2 Latest Versions of Each Quiz) NURS6541N Week 1 Quiz, NURS6541N Week 2 Quiz, NURS6541N Week 3 Quiz, NURS6541N Week 4 Quiz, NURS6541N Week 5 Quiz, NURS6541N Week 6 Quiz, NURS6541N Week 7 Quiz, NURS6541N Week 8, 9, 10, 11 Quiz ( 2 Latest Versions of Each Quiz) NURS-6541N Week 1 Quiz, NURS-6541N Week 2 Quiz, NURS-6541N Week 3 Quiz, NURS-6541N Week 4 Quiz, NURS-6541N Week 5 Quiz, NURS-6541N Week 6 Quiz, NURS-6541N Week 7 Quiz, NURS-6541N Week 8, 9, 10, 11 Quiz ( 2 Latest Versions of Each Quiz) NURS 6541 Week 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11 Quiz (2 Latest VERSIONS of Each Quiz)/ NURS 6541N Week 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11 Quiz NURS6541 Week 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11 Quiz (2 Latest VERSIONS of Each Quiz)/ NURS6541N Week 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11 Quiz NURS 6541 Week 1 Quiz / NURS6541 Week 1 Quiz (2 Latest Versions): Primary Care of Adolescents and Children: Walden University Walden University NURS 6541 Week 1 Quiz / Walden University NURS6541 Week 1 Quiz (2 Latest Versions) Question 1 You see a 13-year-old who reports she is learning some basic geometry (areas, volume etc.). The ability to successfully master these concepts occurs during which Piaget developmental stage? a. Sensorimotor b. Preoperational c. Concrete operational d. Formal operational 1 points Question 2 I can walk well on tiptoes, my speech is 50% understandable, I know six body parts, but I can’t balance on one foot for 1 second. I am: a.2 years old (24 months) b. 2½ years old (30 months) c. 3 years old (36 months) d. 4 years old (48 months) 1 points Question 3 I can roll over, grasp a rattle, and reach for things and have begun feeding myself finger foods, but I can’t wave bye-bye yet. How old am I? a. 5 months b. 6 months c. 9 months d. 12 months 1 points Question 4 Which of the following children has abnormal language development? a. Repeats simple phrases at 32 months b. Stutters when excited or tired at 4 years of age c. Has a 10-word vocabulary at 12 months d. Speech is 50% understandable at 36 months of age 1 points Question 5 The first sign of the onset of female puberty is usually: a. Sparsely distributed fine, pale pubic hairs b. Breast buds c. Menarche d. Peak height growth velocity 1 points Question 6 You see a 3-year-old for a well-child visit. His mother informs you that potty training has been very easy because he “has an amazing internal clock. He falls asleep, gets hungry, and has bowel movements at the same time every day.” This describes which aspect of temperament? a. Activity b. Rhythmicity c. Adaptability d. Threshold of response 1 points Question 7 You see a 6-month-old for a well-child visit and the mother tells you the child’s grandmother recommends that she give the infant whole milk and eggs when he starts solids. What should you tell the mother? a. It is okay to begin weaning to whole milk between 9 and 12 months of age. b. The most important thing to add at this time is table foods; discussion of other dietary issues will happen at 9 months of age. c. The baby should remain on infant formula and stage 2 and 3 baby foods for now. d. It is a good idea to introduce whole eggs to the diet of 5- to 6-month-olds. 1 points Question 8 A typically developing 8-year-old girl will have which of the following genital development? a. No pubic hair at all b. Small amount of long, downy pubic hair along the labia majora c. Coarse, curly pubic hair that extends laterally from the labia majora d. Adult-like pubic hair that extends along the mons pubis but does not include the medial thighs 1 points Question 9 Most children can independently get dressed by themselves by age: a. 2 years b. 3 years c. 4 years d. 5 years 1 points Question 10 The most likely weight of a 1-year-old whose birth weight was 6½ pounds would be: a. 13 to 14 pounds b. 19 to 20 pounds c. 25 to 25 pounds d. Impossible to estimate NURS 6541 Week 2 Quiz / NURS6541 Week 2 Quiz (2 Latest Versions): Primary Care of Adolescents and Children: Walden University Walden University NURS 6541 Week 2 Quiz / Walden University NURS6541 Week 2 Quiz (2 Latest Versions) QUESTION 1 1. You see a 30-month-old who speaks in mixed Spanish and English. The child’s vocabulary is normal but at the low end of the normal language spectrum. The parent is worried the child’s development will not be normal because she mixes up the two languages. You respond: a. “Your child’s speech is normal and bilingual children commonly intermix the words from both languages until about 3 years of age.” b. “Don’t be concerned because your child’s speech is normal and young childhood is the best time to learn languages.” c. “Stop speaking English at home to avoid confusion. She can always learn English outside the home.” d. “The child may confuse the words now, but that will change by second grade.” QUESTION 2 1. A mother of a 6-month-old asks you about normal sleep patterns for an infant this age. The best response is: a. 10 hours at night and 1 to 2 hours during the day b. 10 hours at night and 3 to 4 hours during the day c. 10 hours at night and 5 to 6 hours during the day d. 8 hours at night and 4 to 5 hours during the day QUESTION 3 1. You see a healthy 18-month-old for a well-child visit. At the 12-month visit he received the diphtheria, tetanus, and acellular pertussis (DTaP) third dose; hepatitis B second dose; measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) first dose; injected poliovirus (IPV) second dose; pneumococcal conjugate (PCV13) fourth dose; and Haemophilus influenzae type B (Hib) fourth dose. Which of the following do you order today? a. Varicella and DTaP b. DTaP, varicella, hepatitis A, and hepatitis B c. DTaP, IPV, varicella, PCV13, and hepatitis B d. Hib, PCV 13, IPV, and hepatitis A QUESTION 4 1. A common feature of 2-year-old behavior is: a. Negativism b. Stranger anxiety c. Nonparallel play d. a and b QUESTION 5 1. You see a 6-month-old who is fussy, has interrupted sleep, and is drooling. You note large lower lateral incisor bulges. You recommend: a. Acetaminophen 10-15 mg/kg/dose every 4 to 6 hours as needed b. Ibuprofen 20 mg/kg/dose every 6 to 8 hours as needed c. Over-the-counter topical anesthetic gels d. Gum massage with a cold washcloth e. A and D QUESTION 6 1. You receive a phone call from the mother of a 2-year-old. She states her child has sleep refusal. You suggest the child should be able to: a. Set his own bedtime based on his internal clock b. Protest when he goes to bed, but the parents should not pick him up or give him any attention c. Put himself to sleep somewhere other than his own bed and the parents should move him to the bed once he is asleep d. Make multiple requests, but the parents should only respond to every third request QUESTION 7 1. The parent of a 2-year-old tells you her daughter recently started having breath-holding spells. She tells you the older sibling “did the same thing” and asks you for help. You advise her that after a breath-holding event: a. Act as if nothing abnormal happened. b. Stand and watch, but do nothing while she is holding her breath. c. Splash the child’s face to stimulate her breathing. d. Place her in a timeout as soon as the breath-holding spell is over. QUESTION 8 1. You see a 4-year-old for a well-child visit. He has received four diphtheria, tetanus, and acellular pertussis vaccines (DTaP); three injected polio vaccines (IPV); one measles, mumps, and rubella vaccine (MMR); one varicella vaccine; and two hepatitis B (Hep B) vaccines. What do you order today? a. Pneumococcal conjugate vaccine (PCV13), IPV, varicella, and DTaP b. Tetanus and diphtheria toxoid with acellular pertussis (TdaP), MMR, hepatitis B, and IPV c. DTaP, IPV, MMR, and Varivax d. PCV13, DTaP, IPV, MMR, and Varivax QUESTION 9 1. A 19-month-old says “mama” and “dada,” points and gestures if he wants things, and follows simple one-step commands. Your best response is which of the following? a. Tell parent, “Your child’s language development is normal ” b. Tell parent, “Boys typically have delayed speech compared with girls at this age.” c. Encourage early intervention services for speech d. Reevaluate the child at the 24-month visit. QUESTION 10 1. Which of the following represents normal sequencing of development in a toddler? a. Feeds self, can undress self with help, washes hands, imitates housework b. Uses spoon without difficulty, uses parallel play, dresses and undresses self independently, washes hands c. Feeds self, dresses and undresses self independently, washes hands and feet d. Washes hands, dresses self independently, uses nonparallel play, uses fork without difficulty QUESTION 11 1. When completing this quiz, did you comply with Walden University’s Code of Conduct including the expectations for academic integrity? Yes No NURS 6541 Week 3 Quiz / NURS6541 Week 3 Quiz (2 Latest Versions): Primary Care of Adolescents and Children: Walden University Walden University NURS 6541 Week 3 Quiz / Walden University NURS6541 Week 3 Quiz (2 Latest Versions) QUESTION 1 1. A 12-year-old male states he noticed an enlargement of his testes and scrotum. When counseling him about the next step in pubertal development, you state: a. The penis will grow in length and width b. The penis will grow in width. c. Facial hair will appear. d. Changes in your voice will occur. QUESTION 2 1. The mother of a 4-year-old tells you he likes to “play with himself” while playing and watching television. You advise the mother to: a. Send the child for a timeout without comment b. Ignore the behavior and make no comment to the child c. Explain to the child that masturbation is something that should be done in private d. Explain to the child the moral and social reasons why he should not masturbate Question 3 1. Which of the following statements about bullying is true? a. About 35% of second graders report having been bullied. b. It occurs most commonly during unstructured times (lunch, recess, etc.). c. Boys are more likely to indirectly bully while girls usually directly bully. d. Victims rarely have physical symptoms. QUESTION 4 1. Which of the following statements is true regarding lying and stealing by the school-age child? a. They are highly correlated with later criminal behavior. b. They are more likely to happen when parents use consistent and firm behavior modeling. c. They represent a common, transient problem. d. They are usually associated with serious psychological problems. QUESTION 5 1. Which of the following issues or concepts is relevant to the school-age child? a. Operational thinking b. Erikson’s initiative versus guilt c. Formal operational thinking d. Conservation, classification, and seriation QUESTION 6 1. You see a 7-year-old with complaints of “having accidents at night.” Physical exam and history are unremarkable. Urinalysis, urine culture, and specific gravity are normal. His parents ask about the best treatment for this problem. The best response is: a. Fluid restriction and voiding prior to the night may be effective. b. Maturation of the urinary tract is still incomplete at this age and they just need to give it more time. c. Conditioning devices like bed-wetting alarms are not the best option at this time because of the child’s age. d. Medications like desmopressin acetate (DDAVP) provide the best long-term resolution. QUESTION 7 1. A 9-year-old who weighs 70 pounds asks why she can’t sit in the front passenger seat of the family car. Your best response is: a. The safest place for children under 12 years old and 100 pounds is the backseat of the car. b. Air bags are not effective for children this age and will often not reach the child. c. It’s okay to sit in the front seat as long as air bags are not present or are turned off. d. Booster seats should never be used after 8 years of age. QUESTION 8 1. Which of the following statements regarding adolescent substance use is true? a. A negative drug screen effectively rules out drug use. b. Taking drug screen samples from adolescents without their assent is acceptable in pediatrics. c. Tobacco is the most commonly abused substance during adolescence. d. Most teen alcohol abusers are not “functional” alcoholics. QUESTION 9 1. Which of the following is a priority nurse practitioner role to help children and adolescents to have healthy sexual development? a. Begin anticipatory guidance related to sexuality and normal pubertal development in the early school-age visits. b. Inform parents about a child’s risky sexual behaviors. c. Ask teenage girls if they have a boyfriend. d. Assessing parental beliefs regarding sexual education. QUESTION 10 1. The mother of a 5-year-old informs you her daughter cheats when playing board games. What is the best response? a. Encourage the parents to use timeouts when cheating occurs. b. Explain that this is developmentally normal until the child is old enough to understand complex game rules. c. Tell the mother to spend time clarifying board game rules before starting games. d. Have the mother explain to her daughter that cheating, like lying, is unacceptable behavior and make her stop playing. NURS 6541 Week 4 Quiz / NURS6541 Week 4 Quiz (2 Latest Versions): Primary Care of Adolescents and Children: Walden University Walden University NURS 6541 Week 4 Quiz / Walden University NURS6541 Week 4 Quiz(2 Latest Versions) • Question 1 A 30-year-old Caucasian female was recently diagnosed with primary hypertension. She reports that she eats fairly well, usually having red meat and potatoes daily. She also reports that her father has hypertension as well. A nurse determines which of the following risk factors is most likely associated with this diagnosis? • Question 2 A 70-year-old female is in the hospital for pelvic fracture. She develops pulmonary thromboembolism. The nurse realizes this embolus is composed of: • Question 3 An 80-year-old female is in the hospital for a bone fracture. While there she develops a large, nonlethal pulmonary embolus. Which of the following is a direct result of the obstruction to pulmonary blood flow? • Question 4 A 65-year-old male is diagnosed with chronic pulmonary disease and elevated pulmonary vascular resistance. Which of the following heart failures should the nurse assess for in this patient? • Question 5 A 65-year-old female presents to the emergency department reporting difficulty swallowing and shortness of breath. A CT scan would most likely reveal an aneurysm in the: • Question 6 A 52-year-old female is diagnosed with coronary artery disease. The nurse assesses for myocardial: • Question 7 A 59-year-old female is diagnosed with left ventricular failure. If a decrease in kidney perfusion occurs, the nurse knows this would ultimately cause: • Question 8 A 50-year-old male with a 30-year history of smoking was diagnosed with bronchogenic cancer. He developed edema and venous distention in the upper extremities and face. Which of the following diagnosis will the nurse observe on the chart? • Question 9 Which characteristic changes should the nurse keep in mind while caring for a patient with left heart failure? As left heart failure progresses: • Question 10 A patient wants to know what causes atherosclerosis. How should the nurse respond? In general, atherosclerosis is caused by: • Question 11 What term should the nurse document for a detached blood clot? • Question 12 A 28-year-old female presents with severe chest pain and shortness of breath. She is diagnosed with pulmonary embolism, which most likely originated from the: • Question 13 A 50-year-old male is diagnosed with pulmonary embolism (PE). Which of the following symptoms most likely occurred before treatment? • Question 14 A 5-year-old female is found to have hypertension during three separate visits to her primary care provider. The nurse would expect tests to suggest that the hypertension is secondary to: • Question 15 A 56-year-old male is diagnosed with coronary artery disease. Which of the following modifiable risk factors would the nurse suggest the patient change? • Question 16 Which organ should the nurse monitor closely since it is often the first to fail in patients with multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS)? • Question 17 Which of the following findings in the patient with Raynaud disease would indicate a need for further teaching? • Question 18 A 60-year-old male is diagnosed with cerebral aneurysm. Where does the nurse suspect the cerebral aneurysm is located? • Question 19 A 35-year-old male presents with pulmonary hypertension. Testing reveals he is in right heart failure. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis the nurse will see listed on the chart? • Question 20 A 50-year-old female received trauma to the chest that caused severe impairment of the primary pacemaker cells of the heart. Which of the following areas received the greatest damage? • Question 21 Many valvular stenosis and regurgitation disorders in adults have a common etiology. Which of the following conditions should alert the nurse that the patient may have both types of valve dysfunction? • Question 22 A 50-year-old obese male with hypertension and coronary artery disease visits a nutritionist for food counseling. He has an elevated level of low-density lipoprotein (LDL) and a low level of high-density lipoprotein (HDL). Which of the following should the nurse advise him to avoid? • Question 23 A 68-year-old female is experiencing left heart failure. Physical exam reveals elevated blood pressure. The nurse understands this is most likely caused by: • Question 24 A 54-year-old male is diagnosed with left bundle branch block. Which of the following structures would not receive an electrical impulse? • Question 25 Which of the following patients is at highest risk for developing pulmonary embolism (PE)? • Question 26 A 50-year-old male visits the cardiologist for an EKG. Results indicate that he has no PR interval and a variable QRS rate with rhythm irregularity. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis to be recorded on the chart? • Question 27 A 32-year-old female presents with lower leg pain, with swelling and redness. While obtaining the patient’s history, which finding could have caused her condition? • Question 28 A 75-year-old female has been critically ill with multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS) for longer than a week and has developed a severe oxygen supply and demand imbalance. The statement that best describes this imbalance is which of the following? • Question 29 A 60-year-old male presents to his primary care provider reporting chest pain. He is diagnosed with atherosclerosis. This disease is caused by: • Question 30 While planning care for a patient with superior vena cava syndrome (SVCS), which principle should the nurse remember? SVCS is a progressive _____ of the superior vena cava (SVC) that leads to venous distention of the upper extremities and head. NURS 6541 Week 5 Quiz / NURS6541 Week 5 Quiz (2 Latest Versions): Primary Care of Adolescents and Children: Walden University Walden University NURS 6541 Week 5 Quiz / Walden University NURS6541 Week 5 Quiz (2 Latest Versions) QUESTION 1 1. Which of the following treatments is indicated for tinea versicolor? a. Mupirocin (Bactroban) topical ointment b. Cephalexin (Keflex) oral for 10 days c. Selenium sulfide 2.5% lotion (Selsun) d. Griseofulvin microsize oral until clear QUESTION 2 1. Jaime presents with lesions on his forearms. He was bit by mosquitos and he “just wouldn’t stop scratching them.” You notice two crusted lesions with erythematous bases on the lower portion of both arms. He also has two pustular lesions around his nose. What is the preferred therapy for this child? a. Topical neomycin-based antibiotic like Neosporin b. Topical antibiotic therapy with mupirocin (Bactroban) c. Oral antibiotic therapy with penicillin VK d. Oral antibiotic therapy with cephalexin (Keflex) QUESTION 3 1. A 7-year-old presents to your office with several linear, curved lines approximately 4 millimeters in length that end in a papule. The lines are near the umbilicus and waist area. He complains about severe itching that is worse at night. You suspect: a. Scabies b. Hives c. Fleas d. Ticks QUESTION 4 1. You see a 10-year-old with warts on the hand. This is best treated with: a. Topical salicylic acid applied twice daily b. Podophyllum resin c. Referral to dermatology for removal d. Topical freezing of the warts and referral to dermatology if they do not respond QUESTION 5 1. A new mother is concerned about a strawberry hemangioma that her infant daughter has on the back of her neck. What is the treatment of choice for the majority of infants with hemangiomas? a. Cryosurgery b. Interlesional steroid injections c. Oral steroids d. Observation QUESTION 6 1. Michael is a 10-month-old with erythematous papular dermatitis on the face, scalp, and neck. His mother says he is constantly rubbing the skin. There is a strong family history of asthma and allergies. The most likely diagnosis is: a. Contact dermatitis b. Atopic dermatitis c. Seborrheic dermatitis d. Scabies infestation QUESTION 7 1. You see a 6-year-old who obtained a cut on his foot while walking barefoot. You diagnose cellulitis. He is up to date on his DTaP vaccine. There is a low-grade temperature and appears nontoxic. There is considerable pain when you palpate the foot. Which of the following treatments is best? a. Apply cool, moist compresses to the area to decrease pruritis and begin oral amoxicillin at 80 mg/kg/day. b. Give ibuprofen for pain and/or fever and begin oral penicillin VK. c. Advise rest and immobilization, begin cephalexin (Keflex) or sulfamethoxazole/trimethoprim (Bactrim), and use warm moist compresses. d. Give acetaminophen for pain or fever and begin oral azithromycin (Zithromax). QUESTION 8 1. You receive a phone call from a mother of a 3-year-old who was diagnosed yesterday with molluscum contagiosum at a well-child visit. The mother was not at the visit and has questions about what type of treatment the child will need. Your best response is: a. There is low risk of communicability to others and the rash is self-limiting, so no treatment is necessary. b. The rash is highly contagious and the child should avoid contact with other children until the rash clears. c. Systemic involvement is common, so the child must be treated with oral antivirals like acyclovir. d. The child should be evaluated by a dermatologist because this disorder can cause long-term sequelae. QUESTION 9 1. You diagnose a 2-month-old with atopic dermatitis. She has an erythematous pruritic rash on her cheeks and scalp with ovoid patches on her trunk. What is the most important intervention at this time? a. Educate the parents this is a chronic disease she will likely have for the rest of her life. b. Discuss potential food triggers that should be avoided. c. Prescribe a medium potency topical corticosteroid. d. Emphasize the importance of consistent daily skin care with frequent bathing and emollient lotions. QUESTION 10 1. You diagnose a 14-year-old with tinea capitis. Which of the following treatments do you recommend? a. Oral griseofulvin microsize for 2 full weeks b. Nizoral shampoo and do not return to school for 1 week c. Oral griseofulvin microsize taken with whole milk or other fatty foods, and selenium sulfide shampoo d. Oral nystatin, selenium sulfide shampoo, and the child can return to school as long as he wears a cap NURS 6541 Week 6 Quiz / NURS6541 Week 6 Quiz (2 Latest Versions): Primary Care of Adolescents and Children: Walden University Walden University NURS 6541 Week 6 Quiz / Walden University NURS6541 Week 6 Quiz (2 Latest Versions) QUESTION 1 1. Therapeutic treatment for Coxsackie infections include: a. Antiviral treatment like acyclovir b. Immunoglobulin c. Supportive care d. Antimicrobial treatment like amoxicillin or cephalexin QUESTION 2 1. A 10-year-old comes to your school-based clinic with complaint of a painful sore on the upper lip for 5 days. The sore is getting better since yesterday, but today the right eyelid is swelling and there are blisters on the eye. The best management is to: a. Suggest warm compresses three times a day b. Start topical antibiotic drops like polymixin B (Polytrim) c. Immediately refer to ophthalmology d. Start oral antiviral treatment like acyclovir QUESTION 3 1. You see a 9-year-old after he was hit in the eye with a foreign body. Flourescein staining reveals a vertical line abrasion lateral to the iris. The pupils are equal in size and reactive; a positive red reflex is present bilaterally. There are no abnormal extraocular movements. Visual acuity is normal. An appropriate plan of care includes follow-up in 48 to 72 hours and: a. Prescribing ophthalmic steroid drops three times a day but not applying an eye patch b. Prescribing ophthalmic antibiotic drops three to four times daily and placing a patch over the eye for 24 to 48 hours c. Prescribing topical ophthalmic steroid drops three times a day and placing a patch over the eye for 24 to 48 hours d. Prescribing ophthalmic antibiotic drops three to four times daily but not applying an eye patch QUESTION 4 1. A 3-year-old has a history of upper respiratory tract infection 2 weeks ago. She recently started awakening at night. Physical exam reveals a normothermic child. She is smiling, playful, and sitting on the father’s lap. The TMs are gray with scattered bubbles and good motility. What is the best treatment? a. Amoxicillin at 80 mg/kg/day in two divided doses for 10 days b. Observation without therapy; recheck in 1 month c. Nasal corticosteroids daily d. Referral to an otolaryngologist QUESTION 5 1. John, age 5, was diagnosed with a ruptured tympanic membrane as a result of acute otitis media 2 weeks ago. He was treated with oral antibiotics at the time of diagnosis and has finished his course. He has no purulent drainage, but he still has a TM perforation. His plan of care should include: a. Refer child to an ENT for evaluation and treatment. b. Educate the parents about strategies to prevent water from entering the middle ear. c. Continue the oral antibiotics to prevent infection until the tympanic membrane heals. d. Use topical antibiotic drops to prevent infection until the tympanic membrane heals. QUESTION 6 1. Each of the following is a risk factor for the development of acute otitis media EXCEPT: a. Breastfeeding b. Group child care attendance c. Respiratory viral infection d. Ambient tobacco smoke QUESTION 7 1. Mikayla is a 15-month-old female who has had recurrent bouts of acute otitis media. Her mother is concerned about future school performance. Which of the following statements regarding otitis media is true? a. The incidence of acute otitis media is highest from 18 to 24 months of age. b. Bilateral otitis media with effusion does not cause hearing deficits. c. Potential aggravating factors for Mikayla include pacifier use, bottle use, and cigarette smoke exposure. d. There is a correlation between the number of school days missed due to acute otitis media and IQ measurement. QUESTION 8 1. You see a 6-month-old with a diagnosis of dacryocystitis. The mother states “her left eye tears all the time and it has since birth.” The infant was seen in urgent care last week and was prescribed antibiotic eye drops that “don’t seem to help.” You confirm the diagnosis of dacryocystitis without evidence of infection. What education and counseling do you provide? a. The infant should see an ophthalmologist since the condition has persisted for 6 months. b. The infant should get another course of antibiotic eye drops to prevent secondary infection. c. The blockage in the tear duct is probably the result of a neonatal eye infection. d. Spontaneous resolution usually occurs by 9 to 12 months. QUESTION 9 1. Kelly is a 9-year-old who presents to your office with complaint of nasal congestion, nasal obstruction, and facial pain with radiation to her teeth and jaw for the last 14 days. The pain is described as throbbing and is worsened by abrupt movements, walking, or bending over. Her temperature is currently 100.4°F. Your most likely diagnosis is: a. Dental infection b. Chronic rhinitis c. Maxillary sinusitis d. Allergic rhinitis QUESTION 10 1. A 7-year-old presents with a complaint of ear pain with purulent discharge. He states it hurts when he is lying on the affected side and when anyone touches his pinna. The most likely diagnosis is: a. Otitis media with effusion b. Acute otitis media c. Otitis interna d. Otitis externa NURS 6541 Week 7 Quiz / NURS6541 Week 7 Quiz (2 Latest Versions): Primary Care of Adolescents and Children: Walden University Walden University NURS 6541 Week 7 Quiz / Walden University NURS6541 Week 7 Quiz (2 Latest Versions) Question 1 1. A 7-year-old presents with abrupt fever, stridor, drooling, and hyperextension of the neck. You examine the nose and throat and notice one tonsil is enlarged and there is marked erythema of the pharynx with uvular deviation. Which is most appropriate? 2. a. Start amoxicillin at the appropriate dose for weight after obtaining a throat culture. b. Place on a 5-day course of oral steroids after obtaining a monospot, EBV titers, and a CBC. c. Refer to otolaryngology for management of a peritonsillar abscess and possible hospital admission. d. Start cephalexin (Keflex) at the appropriate dose for weight after obtaining a throat culture. Question 2 1. Hope is a 7-month-old who presents in January with a 1-day history of cough, yellow nasal discharge, and low-grade temp (T max 100°F). She was previously healthy. She does have 2+ edema of the nasal turbinates and cloudy rhinorrhea. She is afebrile in the office. Her chest, mouth, and ears are clear. You prescribe: 2. a. Guaifenesin liquid suspension b. Amoxicillin 80 mg/kg/day in two divided doses for 10 day c. Neo-Synephrine half-strength drops three times a day for 5 to 6 days d. Saline drops, bulb suction, humidified air, and increased PO fluids Question 3 1. In children who have not received antibiotics in the past month, which antibiotic is recommended by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention for the management of acute bacterial respiratory infection? 2. a. Azithromycin (Zithromax) b. Amoxicillin (Amoxil) c. Amoxicillin plus clavulanic acid (Augmentin) d. Sulfamethoxasole (Bactrim) Question 4 1. A 3-year-old presents to your office with a history of wheezing over the last 3 months and has only been moderately responsive to therapy. Which of the following diagnostic tests would be appropriate? 2. a. Sweat chloride testing b. Pulmonary function testing c. Bronchoscopy d. All of the above Question 5 1. You are on call and receive a phone call from the parents of a 13-year-old known asthmatic. She has been having chest tightness and a worsening cough for 48 hours. She has significant nasal discharge that began 14 days ago and intermittent complaint of headache. She is now running a low-grade fever. Her peak flow the last 48 hours is 70–80% of personal best. Her temperature right now is 101.7°F. She is on salmeterol with corticosteroid (Advair) and PRN albuterol. Which of the following is most appropriate? 2. a. Continue home management with the use of inhaled beta agonists and inhaled corticosteroids, and add the use of oral antihistamine/decongestant combinations. b. See her in the office in the morning and prescribe a 14-day course of amoxicillin plus the addition of a short course of oral steroids. c. See her in the office in the morning and prescribe a short course of oral steroids. d. Continue home management and add inhaled cromolyn sulfate. Question 6 1. Anthony is a known asthmatic. He has symptoms three times a week but never more than once a day. Exacerbations affect his normal activities occasionally. He awakens with cough three to four times a month. You classify his asthma as: 2. a. Mild intermittent b. Mild persistent c. Moderate persistent d. Severe persistent Question 7 1. Which of the following symptoms are most suggestive of pneumonia in a young child? 2. a. Headache, fever, malaise, congestion, scattered rhonchi b. Fever, tachypnea, coryza, cough, scattered rales c. Fever, vomiting, coryza, cough, scattered rales d. Irritability, fever, decreased appetite, scattered rhonchi Question 8 1. A 16-year-old presents with pharyngitis, cough, and high fever. Her chest X-ray reveals bilateral pulmonary infiltrates. Her white blood cell count is normal and the neutrophil count is normal. The most likely etiology is: 2. a. Chlamydia pneumonia b. Streptococcus pneumonia c. Legionella d. Staphylococcus aureus Question 9 1. A 2-year-old presents to your office with the following symptoms: nasal congestion and rhinorrhea for 48 hours, low-grade fever, and a harsh/barky cough that is significantly worse at night. Inspiratory stridor is present and she has clear but slightly decreased breath sounds. Which of the following treatments is best? 2. a. Albuterol sulfate solution via nebulizer every 4 to 6 hours b. Azithromycin (Zithromax) treatment for 5 days c. One dose of oral dexamethasone d. Oral dextromethorphan extended release at night only Question 10 1. A 2-year-old presents with a history of wheezing and persistent cough. The father reports the child had a coughing/choking episode about a week ago that was spontaneously resolved. A few days later she began to cough and wheeze. This scenario is most consistent with: 2. a. Restrictive airway disease b. Sinusitis c. Bronchiolitis d. Foreign body aspiration NURS 6541 Week 8 Quiz / NURS6541 Week 8 Quiz (2 Latest Versions): Primary Care of Adolescents and Children: Walden University Walden University NURS 6541 Week 8 Quiz / Walden University NURS6541 Week 8 Quiz (2 Latest Versions) QUESTION 1 Abdominal pain and vomiting are troublesome in children with type 1 diabetes because these symptoms can occur in which of the following dangerous conditions? a. Ketoacidosis b. Parasitic gastroenteritis c. Hyperglycemia d. Autoimmune response in the pancreas QUESTION 2 A 2-year-old with sickle-cell anemia presents to your office with a fever of 103.4°F, lethargy, and malaise. The mother tells you she stopped giving the child the amoxicillin prescribed by his hematologist because she is concerned about antimicrobial resistance. Which of the following diagnoses should be considered in this scenario? a. Acute chest syndrome b. Pneumococcal bacteremia c. Vasocclusive crisis d. Hemarthrosis QUESTION 3 Which of the following scenarios is suspicious for the development of neonatal jaundice with potential for kernicterus? a. A 7-day-old breastfed infant with yellowing of the sclera b. A 7-day-old infant with AB+ blood whose mother has B+ blood c. A 7-hour-old infant who is breastfed, is alert, and has normal skin tone d. A 7-hour-old infant who is Rh positive and whose mother is Rh negative QUESTION 4 Which of the following statements regarding infants with PKU is true? a. They require special infant formulas. b. They are seriously ill in the newborn period. c. Breastfeeding is contraindicated. d. Aspartame (NutraSweet) is a preferred sugar substitute for these children. QUESTION 5 Children and adolescents with acquired hypothyroidism often have: a. Decreased linear growth b. Third fontanelles c. Soft, silky hair d. Advanced bone age QUESTION 6 Iron deficiency anemia is most common in what age group? a. 6 to 9 months b. 9 to 24 months c. 18 to 36 months d. 4 to 5 years QUESTION 7 Which of the following is NOT a standard of care for children with sickle-cell anemia? a. Annual complete blood count (CBC) b. Bimonthly liver and kidney function testing c. Collaboration with a pediatric hematologist d. Routine wellness care with special attention to immunization status QUESTION 8 Which of the following children is at risk for lead poisoning? a. A child who lives in a home with copper water pipes b. A child whose sibling has an elevated lead level c. A child who lives in public housing built in 1999 d. A child whose father is a hunter QUESTION 9 Which of the following statements regarding galactosemia is true? a. The disease is X-linked. b. Infants with galactosemia are ill at birth. c. The disease is due to a buildup of an amino acid. d. Vomiting, seizures, and lethargy start in the second and third weeks of life. QUESTION 10 A 14-month-old is diagnosed with iron deficiency secondary to poor iron intake. Her hemoglobin is 8.7 g/dl. You counsel regarding the sources of dietary iron. The most appropriate next step is: a. Give intramuscular ferrous sulfate. b. Administer oral ferrous sulfate 3–6 mg/kg divided three times daily. c. Measure Hgb again in 1 month after dietary changes. d. Refer for a hematology consult. NURS 6541 Week 9 Quiz / NURS6541 Week 9 Quiz (2 Latest Versions): Primary Care of Adolescents and Children: Walden University Walden University NURS 6541 Week 9 Quiz / Walden University NURS6541 Week 9 Quiz (2 Latest Versions) QUESTION 1 1. A healthy 8-month-old infant presents with diarrhea but no dehydration. What is the best advice to give to the parents? a. Encourage half-strength formula for 12 hours. b. Administer oral electrolyte solutions. c. Give only fluids until stool returns to normal. d. Give bananas, cereal, vegetables, and full-strength formula as tolerated. QUESTION 2 1. An adolescent female presents with a 2-day history of increasing lower abdominal pain. She has mild vomiting and anorexia and fevers to 101°F. She is unable to defecate but has an urge to do so. CBC reveals a slightly elevated WBC of 14,000 but is otherwise normal. Serum electrolytes are normal. The next step is: a. Refer to gynecology for a pelvic exam. b. Refer to surgery for evaluation of appendicitis. c. Allow her to go home on clear fluids and reassess in the morning. d. Initiate oral rehydration therapy and evaluate for symptom progression. QUESTION 3 1. The most accurate way to determine the degree of dehydration in a vomiting child is to assess: a. Urine output b. Skin turgor c. Level of consciousness d. Presence of tears QUESTION 4 1. A mother brings a 2-year-old to your office with the complaint that she passes 5 to 10 watery stools per day that often contain undigested food. The child appears healthy and has no other GI symptoms. She is acting, eating, and voiding normally. Weight gain is normal and the mother states she often drinks (her favorite drink is Kool-Aid) instead of eating. The best management for this condition is: a. Refer to gastroenterology for assessment and treatment. b. Initiate treatment with metronidazole (Flagyl), after obtaining a stool O&P, and counsel to decrease fruit juice intake. c. Initiate treatment with erythromycin and counsel to increase dietary fiber. d. Counsel to decrease fluid intake, increase dietary fiber, and increase fats to 40% of calories. QUESTION 5 1. A 14-year-old has a 3-week history of fever, anorexia, and abdominal pain. What additional symptom would cause the NP to suspect Crohn’s disease? a. Mid-menstrual increase in abdominal pain b. Bloody, mucous diarrhea c. Pain with urination and mouth sores d. Pale, clay-colored stools QUESTION 6 1. You see a 7-year-old with a positive stool culture for Salmonella enteritidis. The appropriate therapy for a non-dehydrated child is: a. Metronidazole (Flagyl) b. Sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim) c. Bland diet with focus on maintaining hydration d. Immodium A-D over the counter QUESTION 7 1. A common presenting symptom of inflammatory bowel disease is: a. Joint infection b. Accelerated growth c. Unexplained fever d. Kidney stones QUESTION 8 1. The most common presentation of Hirschprung disease is which of the following? a. An abdominal mass b. Diarrhea c. Infrequent bowel movements d. Sepsis QUESTION 9 1. A 9-year-old is diagnosed with dyspepsia without hematemesis, melena, or occult blood. The most appropriate next step is: a. Refer for endoscopy of the upper gastrointestinal tract b. Trial of omeprazole (Prilosec) c. Trial of ranitidine (Zantac) d. Upper GI series with contrast QUESTION 10 1. A healthy, thriving 4-month-old male has had sudden episodes of drawing his knees to his chest and crying like he is in acute pain for the last 5 hours. These episodes are separated by quiet times when he appears normal and comfortable. He is not vomiting and has not had a bowel movement today. What is the most likely diagnosis? a. Gastroenteritis b. Pyloric stenosis c. Intussusception d. Hirschprung disease NURS 6541 Week 10 Quiz / NURS6541 Week 10 Quiz (2 Latest Versions): Primary Care of Adolescents and Children: Walden University Walden University NURS 6541 Week 10 Quiz / Walden University NURS6541 Week 10 Quiz (2 Latest Versions) QUESTION 1 1. The initial evaluation of an asymptomatic child with 1+ proteinuria and 1.020 specific gravity on a random dipstick urinalysis would include: a. Urine protein/creatinine ratio b. CBC, renal disease battery, and liver function tests c. Repeat dipstick analysis on an early morning urine d. Reassurance for the parents QUESTION 2 1. A male infant born at 36 weeks gestation has a left testicle palpated in the inguinal canal. At 12 months of age the left testicle has failed to descend. Which of the following is most appropriate? a. Observation until 12 years of age b. Refer for orchiopexy c. Radionucleotide scan of the left testicle d. Treatment with testosterone QUESTION 3 1. A 7-month-old male presents with a bulge in the scrotal sac. It is only found in the scrotum and does not seem to bother the child. No difference in size is noted when the child strains or cries. His scrotum’s size is normal in the morning but increases as the day progresses. The scrotal mass is transilluminable and both testes are located in the scrotal sac. You anticipate: a. Emergent referral to a pediatric surgeon/urologist for repair b. Surgical repair of the above condition before age 1 to maintain testicular viability c. Reassurance for the parents and observation of the condition with no need for further intervention as long as the mass resolves by age 1 d. Increased risk of testicular cancer with decreased fertility in later life QUESTION 4 1. A 12-year-old boy awakes with onset of severe, unilateral scrotal pain, nausea, and vomiting. He is afebrile. Inspection reveals a tender scrotum and marked scrotal edema. The most likely cause is: a. Scrotal trauma b. Epididymitis c. Testicular torsion d. Testicular malignancy QUESTION 5 1. When assessing a child with glomerulonephritis, what symptoms would the nurse practitioner anticipate will be present? a. Anorexia and dysuria b. Periorbital edema and hypertension c. Polyuria with strong-smelling, concentrated urine d. Fever to 102°F and unilateral flank pain QUESTION 6 1. A 4-year-old presents with a chief complaint of pallor. He was well until 1 week ago when he developed bloody diarrhea that improved with oral antibiotics. His blood pressure is 150/100, he is afebrile, and his heart rate is 130 beats per minute. The best test to establish diagnosis is: a. Complete blood count and smear, serum electrolytes b. Renal ultrasound c. Routine stool culture d. Urine analysis and culture QUESTION 7 1. A 10-year-old male has proteinuria in the afternoon but not on first morning void. He probably has: a. Early chronic renal failure b. Idiopathic hypercalciuria c. Minimal change disease d. Orthostatic proteinuria QUESTION 8 1. After diagnosing a urinary tract infection in a 14-month-old, you note partial fusion of the labia minora that extends for 1 centimeter and obscures the posterior fourchette. There is no evidence of inflammation, although she does have some dysuria. The preferred management of this condition is: a. Administration of low-dose oral estrogen therapy b. Application of estrogen cream c. Genital examination under anesthesia d. Watchful waiting QUESTION 9 1. Vulvovaginitis in a prepubertal child: a. Is an infrequent finding b. May be a risk factor for the development of labial adhesions c. Is usually caused by a sexually transmitted infection d. Is almost always caused by sexual abuse QUESTION 10 1. You see a 3-year-old female with dysuria. She is potty trained, febrile, and nontoxic. She has no prior history of UTI. Urine dipstick reveals 1+ leukocyte esterase, 2+ nitrites, 1+ non-hemolyzed blood, pH of 6.0, and specific gravity 1.025. Her vulvovaginal area is slightly red with no discharge. Which of the following treatments is recommended? a. Start sulfamethoxazole/trimethoprim (Bactrim) for 10 days and refer for renal ultrasound by day 2 of illness. b. Start azithromycin (Zithromax) for 5 days, increase fluids, and send urine for culture and sensitivity. c. Start cephalexin (Keflex) for 10 days, increase fluids, and send urine for culture and sensitivity. d. Increase fluids, use sitz baths, and apply liberal A&D ointment to the vulvovaginal area. NURS 6541 Week 11 Quiz / NURS6541 Week 11 Quiz (2 Latest Versions): Primary Care of Adolescents and Children: Walden University Walden University NURS 6541 Week 11 Quiz / Walden University NURS6541 Week 11 Quiz (2 Latest Versions) QUESTION 1 1. Which of the following diagnostic tests are indicated for a child with a first-time nontraumatic, non-febrile seizure? a. CBC with differential, basic metabolic panel, skull X-ray, and CT scan of the head b. CBC with differential, basic metabolic panel, liver function tests, and electroencephalogram (EEG) c. CBC with differential, liver function tests, and electroencephalogram (EEG) d. Liver function tests and basic metabolic panel QUESTION 2 1. Which of the following is characteristic of slipped capital femoral epiphysis? a. It spontaneously resolves without intervention; intervention is to improve long-term outcomes. b. It is associated with a fracture along the growth plate. c. It is always bilateral. d. It is best treated by casting the hips in adduction. QUESTION 3 1. Which of the following children is most likely to have a febrile seizure? a. A 1-year-old with otitis media and a fever of 104°F b. A 3-month-old with unequal pupils and a bulging fontanelle c. An 11-year-old with a fever of 102°F who is on valproate for a seizure disorder d. A 5-year-old with stiff neck and meningismus QUESTION 4 1. The most definitive features of “growing pains” include: a. Exclusion of other causes of lower extremity pain b. Pain, swelling, and erythema c. Limp and decreased ambulation d. Painless joint involvement QUESTION 5 1. Which of the following signs is characteristic of Duchenne muscular dystrophy? a. School-age children are unable to keep up with their peers when running. b. At birth, affected infants are notably hypotonic and ”floppy.” c. The earliest symptom is a refusal to bear weight. d. Abnormal gait and posture become evident during the preschool years. QUESTION 6 1. Which of the following statements regarding Osgood-Schlatter disease is true? a. Quadriceps stretching is contraindicated. b. It is more common in obese children and adolescents. c. Pain worsens with rest and improves with exercise. d. Growth spurts contribute to the phenomenon. QUESTION 7 1. Which of the following statements regarding scoliosis is correct? a. The majority of cases are idiopathic. b. Most cases have an onset in the preschool years. c. Males have a 3:1 occurrence rate over females. d. The best way to detect minor curvatures is to examine the spine in the standing position. QUESTION 8 1. Correct management of a dislocated hip in the newborn is likely to include: a. Triple diapering until orthopedics can evaluate the child b. Following the child carefully for the first 6 months, then referring to orthopedics if no improvement c. Use of a Pavlik harness to ensure flexion d. Traction and surgical reduction QUESTION 9 1. Which of the following diagnostic tests should be performed routinely following an episode of bacterial meningitis? a. CT scan of the brain b. Electroencephalogram (EEG) c. Hearing evaluation d. Psychometric and IQ testing QUESTION 10 1. Michael is a 3-year-old with a recent upper respiratory tract infection. His mother states he began limping in the last 24 hours and he is complaining of anterior thigh pain on the affected side. He is afebrile, is unable to move his hip without considerable pain, and is maintaining his hip in a flexed, externally rotated position. This scenario is consistent with: a. Septic arthritis of the hip b. Transient synovitis of the hip c. Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease d. Slipped capital femoral epiphysis