NSG 6440Predictor test (336 question &answers and
explanation)_latest,2021/2022 100% CORRECT
NSG6440 Practicum IV Family Health
1) A 15 years old high school student with a mild sore throat and low-grade
fever that has persisted for about 3 weeks. She reports general malaise, fatigue,
and loss of appetite. The NP suspects mononucleosis. Which of the following is
the LEAST appropriate intervention?
a. Palpate the lymph nodes and spleen
b. Examine the posterior oropharynx for petechiae
c. Obtain a CBC, throat culture, and heterophil
antibody test. d. Obtain an urinalyses and serum for
LFTs and amylase
Explanation: mononucleosis is a symptomatic infection caused by the Epstein-Bar
virus. Common is people 15-24 years of age. Common signs and symptoms
following incubation period (1-2 months) include fatigue, chills, malaise, anorexia,
white tonsillar exudates and lymphadenopathy or posterior cervical region.
Splenomegaly can be present. A maculopapular or occasionally a petechial rash
occurs in less than 15% of patients. A diagnosis is usually made using the
Monospot. In addition, neutropenia and lymphocytosis are usually detected in the
CBC.
2) A 32 years old male patient complaint of urinary frequency and burning on
urination for 3 days. Urinalyses reveals bacteriuria and positive nitrites. He denies
any past hx. Of urinary tract infections. The initial treatment should be:
NSG 6440Predictor test (336 question &answers and
1
explanation)_latest,2021/2022 100% CORRECT
, NSG 6440Predictor test (336 question &answers and
explanation)_latest,2021/2022 100% CORRECT
a. trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim, Sulfatrim) for 7-10 day
b. ciprofloxacin (Cipro) for 3-5 days
c. Trimethoprim-Sulfamethoxazole for 3 days
d. 750 mg ciprofloxacin as a one-time dose
Explanation: trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMPS) is usually n appropriate
medication to treat urinary tract infections in most patients. In the case of
community resistance to TMPS
>20%^, another medication should be substituted. In men, the appropriate length
of time is 7-10 days. Women may be treated for 3 days for uncomplicated UTI
3) Which agent is most effective for the treatment of nodulocystic acne?
a. Benzoyl peroxide (Benzac)
b. Retinoic acid (Retin A)
c. Topical
tetracycline d.
Isotretinoin)
Explanation: Isotretinoin (Accutane) is a systemic agent indicated for treatment
with severe inflammatory acne. Guidelines for its use must be clearly understood
by the patient. A woman of childbearing age must use an effective method of
contraception because isotretinoin is teratogenic. There are many restrictions in
prescribing this medication because of the teratogenic effects is given during
pregnancy. Therefore, it is a pregnancy category X.
NSG 6440Predictor test (336 question &answers and
2
explanation)_latest,2021/2022 100% CORRECT
, NSG 6440Predictor test (336 question &answers and
explanation)_latest,2021/2022 100% CORRECT
4) An 18 y/o woman is taking a combined hormonal oral contraceptive.
She should be instructed to use a backup method for the prevention of
pregnancy
a. Throughout the week of placebo pills
NSG 6440Predictor test (336 question &answers and
3
explanation)_latest,2021/2022 100% CORRECT
, NSG 6440Predictor test (336 question &answers and
explanation)_latest,2021/2022 100% CORRECT
b. If prescribed topiramate (Topamax) for the treatment of migraines.
c. If prescribed amoxicillin/clavulanate (Augmentin) for a sinus infection
d. if she forgets to take a single dose of the contraceptive
Explanation: Anticonvulsant including phenytoin (Dilantin), carbamazepine
(Tegretol), primidone (Mysoline), topiramate (Topamax) and oxcarbazepine
(Trileptal) reduce the effectiveness of contraceptives. Depo-medroxyprogesterone
acetate injections or levonorgestrel- releasing intrauterine devices would be a
better method of contraceptive for patients taking anticonvulsants. Most commonly
used antibiotics have not been proven to reduce the effectiveness of contraceptives.
Rifampin is an exception, and additional …. Be used by women taking this drug
and using oral contraceptives, transdermal, or vaginal ring preparations.
Additional backup contraception should be used if taking antifungal agents. No
additional protection is needed thought the week of placebo pills. Missing one
single dose of contraceptive does not require additional protection, missing more
than one doses does.
5) A 44 years old female patient has diabetes. Her total cholesterol (TC) is 250
mg/dl (6.5 mmol/L), LDL= 190 mg/dL (4.94 mmol/L), HDL= 25 mg/dL (65
mmol/L), and triglycerides= 344 mg/dL (8.94 mmol/L). What agent have the
greatest effect on improving her lipid profile and reducing morbidity and mortality
associates with dyslipidemia?
a. Niacin
(Niaspan) b.
Atorvastatin
NSG 6440Predictor test (336 question &answers and
4
explanation)_latest,2021/2022 100% CORRECT
explanation)_latest,2021/2022 100% CORRECT
NSG6440 Practicum IV Family Health
1) A 15 years old high school student with a mild sore throat and low-grade
fever that has persisted for about 3 weeks. She reports general malaise, fatigue,
and loss of appetite. The NP suspects mononucleosis. Which of the following is
the LEAST appropriate intervention?
a. Palpate the lymph nodes and spleen
b. Examine the posterior oropharynx for petechiae
c. Obtain a CBC, throat culture, and heterophil
antibody test. d. Obtain an urinalyses and serum for
LFTs and amylase
Explanation: mononucleosis is a symptomatic infection caused by the Epstein-Bar
virus. Common is people 15-24 years of age. Common signs and symptoms
following incubation period (1-2 months) include fatigue, chills, malaise, anorexia,
white tonsillar exudates and lymphadenopathy or posterior cervical region.
Splenomegaly can be present. A maculopapular or occasionally a petechial rash
occurs in less than 15% of patients. A diagnosis is usually made using the
Monospot. In addition, neutropenia and lymphocytosis are usually detected in the
CBC.
2) A 32 years old male patient complaint of urinary frequency and burning on
urination for 3 days. Urinalyses reveals bacteriuria and positive nitrites. He denies
any past hx. Of urinary tract infections. The initial treatment should be:
NSG 6440Predictor test (336 question &answers and
1
explanation)_latest,2021/2022 100% CORRECT
, NSG 6440Predictor test (336 question &answers and
explanation)_latest,2021/2022 100% CORRECT
a. trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim, Sulfatrim) for 7-10 day
b. ciprofloxacin (Cipro) for 3-5 days
c. Trimethoprim-Sulfamethoxazole for 3 days
d. 750 mg ciprofloxacin as a one-time dose
Explanation: trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMPS) is usually n appropriate
medication to treat urinary tract infections in most patients. In the case of
community resistance to TMPS
>20%^, another medication should be substituted. In men, the appropriate length
of time is 7-10 days. Women may be treated for 3 days for uncomplicated UTI
3) Which agent is most effective for the treatment of nodulocystic acne?
a. Benzoyl peroxide (Benzac)
b. Retinoic acid (Retin A)
c. Topical
tetracycline d.
Isotretinoin)
Explanation: Isotretinoin (Accutane) is a systemic agent indicated for treatment
with severe inflammatory acne. Guidelines for its use must be clearly understood
by the patient. A woman of childbearing age must use an effective method of
contraception because isotretinoin is teratogenic. There are many restrictions in
prescribing this medication because of the teratogenic effects is given during
pregnancy. Therefore, it is a pregnancy category X.
NSG 6440Predictor test (336 question &answers and
2
explanation)_latest,2021/2022 100% CORRECT
, NSG 6440Predictor test (336 question &answers and
explanation)_latest,2021/2022 100% CORRECT
4) An 18 y/o woman is taking a combined hormonal oral contraceptive.
She should be instructed to use a backup method for the prevention of
pregnancy
a. Throughout the week of placebo pills
NSG 6440Predictor test (336 question &answers and
3
explanation)_latest,2021/2022 100% CORRECT
, NSG 6440Predictor test (336 question &answers and
explanation)_latest,2021/2022 100% CORRECT
b. If prescribed topiramate (Topamax) for the treatment of migraines.
c. If prescribed amoxicillin/clavulanate (Augmentin) for a sinus infection
d. if she forgets to take a single dose of the contraceptive
Explanation: Anticonvulsant including phenytoin (Dilantin), carbamazepine
(Tegretol), primidone (Mysoline), topiramate (Topamax) and oxcarbazepine
(Trileptal) reduce the effectiveness of contraceptives. Depo-medroxyprogesterone
acetate injections or levonorgestrel- releasing intrauterine devices would be a
better method of contraceptive for patients taking anticonvulsants. Most commonly
used antibiotics have not been proven to reduce the effectiveness of contraceptives.
Rifampin is an exception, and additional …. Be used by women taking this drug
and using oral contraceptives, transdermal, or vaginal ring preparations.
Additional backup contraception should be used if taking antifungal agents. No
additional protection is needed thought the week of placebo pills. Missing one
single dose of contraceptive does not require additional protection, missing more
than one doses does.
5) A 44 years old female patient has diabetes. Her total cholesterol (TC) is 250
mg/dl (6.5 mmol/L), LDL= 190 mg/dL (4.94 mmol/L), HDL= 25 mg/dL (65
mmol/L), and triglycerides= 344 mg/dL (8.94 mmol/L). What agent have the
greatest effect on improving her lipid profile and reducing morbidity and mortality
associates with dyslipidemia?
a. Niacin
(Niaspan) b.
Atorvastatin
NSG 6440Predictor test (336 question &answers and
4
explanation)_latest,2021/2022 100% CORRECT
