NURS 6551 / NURS6551 MIDTERM EXAM 2 GUIDE - Stephen F. Austin State University

NURS 6551 / NURS6551 MIDTERM EXAM 2 GUIDE QUESTION 1 How can liver and renal diseases result in abnormal uterine bleeding (AUB)? a. They cause an imbalance in platelet aggregation. b. They result in an inability to adequately clear estrogen from the body. c. They cause thyroid dysfunction, which leads to bleeding abnormalities. d. They result in elevated prolactin levels, which lead to bleeding abnormalities. QUESTION 2 What is now thought to be the most important causative agent in cervical cancer? a. PCOS b. Vulvar cancer c. Herpes simplex d. HPV QUESTION 3 An initial or primary genital herpes infection characteristically lasts about: a. 1 week b. 3 weeks c. 1 month d. 6 weeks QUESTION 4 Which contraceptive methods have inherent failure rates? a. None b. Some c. All d. All except sterilization QUESTION 5 Why do adolescents have the highest risk of developing pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)? a. They have the highest risk for bacterial vaginosis. b. They are the least at risk for developing other STIs. c. They are the most sexually active. d. They have decreased immunity to infectious organisms. QUESTION 6 Exercise-induced amenorrhea is probably due to the combination of low body fat and decreased secretion of: a. Estrogen b. Prolactin c. Progesterone d. GnRH QUESTION 7 What can result from an imbalance in the vaginal flora? a. Herpes simplex virus b. Human papillomavirus c. Chlamydia d. Bacterial vaginosis QUESTION 8 The most effective means of obtaining the history of abuse is to use a communication model that: a. Avoids having the patient’s children present during the discussion b. Signals someone is interested and that the woman is not alone c. Emphasizes the belief that violence is not acceptable, no matter what the batterer might have said to the patient d. Allows the patient to talk without interruption and with time to relate, emphasize, and repeat her full story QUESTION 9 What is the most common STI in the United States? a. Gonorrhea b. Chlamydia c. Syphilis d. Herpes simplex virus QUESTION 10 Progestin-only pills (POPs): a. Have no possible side effects b. Suppress ovulation as reliably as COCs c. May be taken earlier or later than prescribed d. In combination with lactation are nearly 100% effective QUESTION 11 According to the World Health Organization (WHO), the presence of a disease state: a. Necessitates prompt medical attention b. Excludes a person from being considered healthy c. Does not exclude a person from being considered healthy d. Classifies a person as in poor health QUESTION 12 Which of the following might be a sign of hyperandrogenism? a. Irritable bowel syndrome b. Decreased sebum secretion in the skin c. Decreased muscle mass d. Acne associated with menstrual dysfunction QUESTION 13 Surgical abortion represents an option for women who desire termination of pregnancy beyond: a. 8 weeks’ gestation b. 12 weeks’ gestation c. 4 weeks’ gestation d. 15 weeks’ gestation QUESTION 14 How can weight loss specifically control symptoms of polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)? a. It decreases SHBG. b. It increases insulin resistance. c. It decreases androgen levels. d. It increases estrogen levels. QUESTION 15 Why is acknowledging the oppression of women more difficult within Western societies? a. The multiplicity of minority groups complicates the issue. b. The availability of health care makes acknowledgment more difficult. c. The diversity of the news media clouds the issue. d. Affluence and increased opportunities mask oppression. QUESTION 16 How does vaginosis differ from vaginitis? a. It must be treated with metronidazole. b. The discharge does not contain white blood cells. c. The discharge does not have an odor. d. It causes itching and/or burning. QUESTION 17 What area of injury prevention is a focus of the USPSTF’s guidelines for counseling all healthy, asymptomatic women? a. Motor vehicle accidents b. Falls c. Domestic violence d. All of the above QUESTION 18 What approach does Healthy People 2020 use to achieve its goals and objectives? a. Social determinants of health b. Evidence-based determinants of health c. Quality-of-life determinants of health d. Longevity promotion determinants of health QUESTION 19 Approximately what percentage of women with bacterial vaginosis are asymptomatic? a. 25% b. 40% c. 75% d. 50% QUESTION 20 The genetic counselor has a significant role in the care of women because BRCA1 and BRCA2 genetic mutations account for 5 to 10 percent of all cancer cases. a. Breast b. Ovarian c. Uterine d. Pancreatic QUESTION 21 Which organism causes 90% of vulvovaginal candidiasis episodes in women? a. Candida tropicalis b. Candida albicans c. Candida glabrata d. Candida krusei QUESTION 22 What term refers to the period from about 7 to 10 days before menstrual flow begins until the first or second day of menstrual flow? a. Amenorrhea b. Premenstrual c. Dysmenorrhea d. Perimenstrual QUESTION 23 The ParaGard IUD is impregnated with copper and is effective for: a. 15 years b. 3 years c. 5 years d. 10 years QUESTION 24 What is the danger of giving estrogen replacement therapy (ERT) to menopausal women with an intact uterus? a. A higher risk of heart disease b. An increased likelihood of blood clots c. An increased likelihood of osteoporosis d. A higher risk of endometrial cancer QUESTION 25 Although barrier contraception methods are less effective in preventing pregnancy than more modern methods, interest in them is on the rise because they: a. Can help protect against STIs, including HIV b. Are coitus dependent and require planning c. Are nonallergenic and male controlled d. Involve the use of hormones QUESTION 26 A risk factor that could lead to endometrial cancer is: a. Early menopause b. Late menopause c. High blood pressure d. Cervical cancer QUESTION 27 Of the two intrauterine contraceptive devices currently available in the United States only one provides a local delivery of protestin. It is the: a. Combined contraceptive patch (Ortho Evra) b. Copper IUD (T380A, ParaGard) c. LNG-IUS (Mirena) d. Dalkon Shield QUESTION 28 Approximately what percentage of vulvar cancers occur in women older than the age of 50? a. 50% b. 70% c. 85% d. 60% QUESTION 29 What is the best definition of abnormal uterine bleeding (AUB)? a. Uterine bleeding for which no pelvic pathology is found b. Uterine bleeding that is irregular during a woman’s menstrual cycle c. Uterine bleeding that is irregular in amount or frequency d. Uterine bleeding that is related to systemic conditions QUESTION 30 The most common benign breast masses are: a. Galactoceles b. Hamartomas c. Fibroadenomas and cysts d. Lipomas and phyllodes tumors QUESTION 31 Which cancer has the highest mortality rate of all gynecological cancers? a. Vulvar cancer b. Endometrial cancer c. Cervical cancer d. Ovarian cancer QUESTION 32 Vulvovaginal candidiasis accounts for what percentage of all vaginal infections? A. 10–15% B. 20–25% C. 50–55% D. 60–65% QUESTION 33 Which type of counseling results in a statistically significant reduction in STIs? a. Abstinence-only education b. Counseling delivered in multiple individual or group sessions totaling more than 3 hours c. Remote counseling via Internet or phone d. Brief, individual sessions in the primary care setting QUESTION 34 Which of the following is an ethical issue that is specifically associated with pre- implantation testing with ART? a. Ownership of frozen embryos after the couple has divorced b. A surrogate deciding she does not want to relinquish the infant c. Genetic engineering and the ability to reject embryos affected by inherited disorders d. The implantation of multiple embryos, which can create high risk for the embryos and the woman QUESTION 35 What symptom is present in 80 to 90 percent of women with cervical cancer? a. Abnormal vaginal bleeding b. Abnormal vaginal discharge c. Pelvic pain d. Ectopic pregnancy QUESTION 36 If a patient has not reported a sexual assault to law enforcement, all of the following clinician actions are important except: a. Asking if reporting is something she wants to consider b. Discussing any fears or concerns that she may have about reporting c. Explaining that only some forced sexual contacts are reportable crimes d. Telling her that women who report do better psychologically than those who do not QUESTION 37 What test should be ordered for a woman who is experiencing abnormal uterine bleeding (AUB) as well as headaches and peripheral vision changes? a. Thyroid-stimulating hormone test b. Nucleic acid amplification test c. Complete blood count d. Prolactin level test QUESTION 38 What had been a significant problem in medical research well into the 1990s? a. The focus on randomized clinical trials over epidemiological investigations b. The lack of representation of women in research trials c. The lack of research related to gynecology d. The focus on randomized clinical trials over observational research QUESTION 39 What is the definitive diagnostic technique for vulvar dermatoses? a. Pap test b. Biopsy c. Colposcopy d. Physical exam QUESTION 40 Where in the breast do most malignancies develop? a. Upper inner quadrant b. Upper outer quadrant c. Lower outer quadrant d. Lower inner quadrant QUESTION 41 Approximately how many Americans will contract one or more sexually transmitted infections during their lifetime? a. 50% b. 25% c. 40% d. 60% QUESTION 42 In the GTPAL system for recording pregnancy history, the “T” stands for: a. Term births b. Terminal pregnancies c. Total number of pregnancies d. Type of birth (spontaneous, assisted, or cesarean) QUESTION 43 Both very young and elderly sexual assault victims: a. Are addressed in most state mandatory reporting laws b. never has any difficulty describing the incident and related symptoms c. Require the same equipment for proper examination that others do d. Have fewer injuries than victims of other age groups QUESTION 44 What is one of the side effects of hormonal contraceptives? a. Reduction in ovarian cancer risk b. Increased menstrual blood loss c. Increased risk of endometrial cancer d. Heavier menstrual flow QUESTION 45 Tubal sterilization for women who have completed their families is highly effective, but there are disadvantages such as: a. Women are less likely to use condoms or return for health services. b. There is a decreased risk of ovarian cancer and pelvic inflammatory disease. c. There is a high likelihood of complications and side effects. d. The surgery is not covered by insurance. QUESTION 46 What is the current (2006) recommendation by the CDC regarding HIV testing? a. Test all patients who report risk behaviors associated with HIV. b. Test all patients unless they explicitly decline to be tested. c. Test all patients. d. Test only those patients who ask to be tested. QUESTION 47 What is generally the cause of Bartholin’s cyst? a. Complications from gonorrhea b. Cystic fluid in Bartholin’s gland becomes infected c. A fungal infection in Bartholin’s gland d. Obstruction of a duct in Bartholin’s gland QUESTION 48 Which of the following factors associated with increased risk for developing osteoporosis appears to be the best predictor of risk? a. Smoking b. Low body weight c. Sedentary lifestyle d. Family history QUESTION 49 What is the definition of primary amenorrhea? a. The cessation of menses for an interval of 6 months b. The failure to begin menses by age 14 c. The cessation of menses due to outflow tract obstruction d. The failure to begin menses by age 16 QUESTION 50 In respect to an evidentiary examination: a. The patient may not withhold consent if the clinician is a mandated reporter. b. The clinician is required to strictly follow local agency protocols, no others. c. The time frame within which it must take place depends on local standards. d. Maintaining the chain of custody of all evidence collected is recommended, not required.