HISTOLOGY, CYTOLOGY, AND EMBRYOLOGY:
TESTS WITH ANSWERS
, 1.CYTOLOGY
Directions: each of the following statements contains five suggested completions.
Choose the one that is best in each case.
1. Each of the following statements concerning the plasmalemma is true, EXCEPT:
A – includes elementary cell membrane; B – its supermembranous layer consists of
glycolipids and glycoproteins; C – its submembranous layer contains filaments and
microtubules; D – is a semi-permeable cell boundary; E – is not an obligatory cell
component.
2. The plasma membrane functions are as follows, EXCEPT:
A – is a selectively permeable barrier; B – is the site for hormone receptors; C – provides
cell-to-cell interaction; D – is the primary protein synthesis site; E – takes part in the active
and passive transport.
3. Each of the following statements concerning the microvilli is true, EXCEPT:
A – are plasmalemma projections; B – contain microtubules; C – amplify cell surface area;
D – form the brush border of intestinal epithelium; E – contain microfilaments.
4. Each of the following statements concerning the cilia is true, EXCEPT:
A – are plasmalemma projections; B – contain nine peripheral doublets and the central
pair of microtubules; C – are not visible in light microscope; D – their basal bodies are
similar to centrioles; E – are movable organelles.
5. The intercellular junction where ionic channels pierce the adjacent membranes is
called:
A – desmosome; B – nexus; C – tight junction; D – synapse; E – lateral interdigitations.
6. The disk-shaped intercellular junction where a dense plaque with filaments is
present on the cytoplasmic surface of each opposing plasma membrane is called:
A – desmosome; B – nexus; C – tight junction; D – synapse; E – lateral interdigitations.
7. The intercellular junction that blocks the substance access to the intercellular
space is called:
A – desmosome; B – nexus; C – tight junction; D – synapse; E – lateral interdigitations.
8. Each of the following statements concerning the mitochondria is true, EXCEPT:
A – have a double-membrane structure; B – its inner membrane infolds to form cristae; C –
its matrix contains enzymes of Krebs’ cycle; D – its cristae contain enzymes of the
electron-transport chain; E – are not able to produce ATP.
9. The cytoplasm basophilia is inherent in cells that:
A – have cilia; B – accumulate lipids; C – actively synthesize proteins; D – accumulate
glycogen; E – synthesize mucus.
10. The microfilaments are composed of the following proteins:
A – actin; B – desmin; C – keratin; D – vimentin; E – integrin.
11. These filaments belong to the population of intermediate filaments, EXCEPT:
A – tonofilaments; B – neurofilaments; C – actin filaments; D – glial filaments; E – desmin
filaments.
12. Each of the following statements concerning the nuclear envelope structure is
true, EXCEPT:
A – consists of two membranes separated by the perinuclear space; B – contains nuclear
pores providing communication between the nucleus and cytoplasm; C – its outer
membrane is studded with ribosomes; D – its inner membrane has a fibrous lamina
anchoring chromatin; E – its outer membrane is continuous with Golgi apparatus.
13. Each of the following statements concerning chromatin is true, EXCEPT:
A – euchromatin is a lightly stained and dispersed; B – heterochromatin is a densely
stained and condensed; C – heterochromatin takes part in transcription; D – two types of
,chromatin may be transformed one into another; E – the abundance of euchromatin gives
evidence of intense protein synthesis.
14. Each of the following statements concerning the nucleolus functions is true,
EXCEPT:
A – the nucleolar organizer region contains genes encoding mRNA; B – rRNA is
synthesized and assembled into ribosome subunits; C – ribosome subunits leave the
nucleus through nuclear pores; D – in the cytoplasm, ribosomes either assemble into
polysomes or bind to rER; E – the number and size of nucleoli give evidence of intense
protein synthesis.
15. Each of the following statements concerning mitosis is true, EXCEPT:
A – results in the production of two identical daughter cells; B – is direct cell division; C –
equally divides chromosomes between daughter cells; D – maintains the diploid number of
chromosomes; E – consists of four phases.
16. Each of the following statements concerning the mitotic spindle is true,
EXCEPT:
A – contains microtubules; B – its components are attached to a chromosome at the
kinetochore; C – is responsible for chromosome movement in the anaphase; D – is formed
before chromosome condensation; E – centrioles take part in its formation.
17. The following cytoplasmic components are inclusions, EXCEPT:
A – lipid droplets; B – glycogen clumps; C – lysosomes; D – mucous granules; E – protein
granules.
Directions: one or more of the given statements or completions is/are correct. Choose the
answer: A – if only 1,2, and 3 are correct; B – if only 1 and 3 are correct; C – if only 2 and
4 are correct; D – if only 4 is correct; E – if all are correct.
18. The glycocalyx is composed of:
(1) glycoproteins (2) cholesterol (3) glycolipids (4) glycogen
19. The rER synthesizes:
(1) secretory proteins (2) cell membrane proteins (3) lysosome enzymes (4) cytosol
proteins
20. The abundance of rER in the cytoplasm can be identified by:
(1) diffuse basophilia (2) acidophilia (3) absence of staining (4) local basophilia
21. The functions of sER are as follows:
(1) lipid metabolism (2) carbohydrate metabolism (3) detoxification (4) release and
recapture of calcium ions in muscles
22. The following statements regarding the Golgi apparatus are true:
(1) consists of several disk-shaped saccules arranged in a stack (2) its cis (convex) face is
associated with small vesicles from ER (3) its trans (concave) face is associated with
vacuoles (4) it is abundant in secretory cells
23. The following statements regarding the Golgi apparatus functions are true:
(1) accumulates, modifies, and packs secretory products (2) forms primary lysosomes (3)
takes part in the synthesis of lipoproteins, glycoproteins, and glycolipids (4) manufactures
membrane proteins
24. The lysosome membranes and lysosome enzymes are formed in:
(1) rER (2) sER (3) Golgi apparatus (4) free ribosomes
25. The following statements regarding the lysosome functions are true:
(1) protect cells from waste products accumulation (2) degrade aged organelles (3) take
part in phagocytosis (4) provide autolysis
26. The following statements regarding the peroxisome are true:
(1) is a spherical structure surrounded by unit membrane (2) its matrix contains the
enzyme catalase (3) its catalase converts hydrogen peroxide to water and oxygen (4) is
derived from rER
, 27. The following statements regarding the centrioles are true:
(1) exist as a pair of cylinder-like structures oriented at right angle to one another (2) each
centriole has nine peripheral microtubule triplets but lacks the central pair (3) before cell
division they replicate themselves by forming procentrioles (4) during cell division,
separate and migrate to the cell poles
28. The cytoskeleton includes:
(1) actin filaments (2) intermediate filaments (3) microtubules (4) centrioles
29. The following statements regarding the microtubule functions are true:
(1) are parts of the cytoskeleton (2) form the mitotic spindle (3) take part in intracellular
transport and cell movement (4) constitute cilia, flagella, and centrioles
30. The cells containing a lot of free ribosomes synthesize:
(1) secretory proteins (2) cytosol proteins (3) cell membrane proteins (4) proteins for cell
growth and differentiation
31. The following events take place in the G1 period of the mitotic interphase:
(1) intense protein synthesis (2) DNA reduplication (3) daughter cell growth (4) self-
replication of centrioles
32. The following events take place in the S period of the mitotic interphase:
(1) DNA reduplication (2) daughter cell growth (3) self-replication of centrioles (4) intense
energy production
33. The following events take place in the G2 period of the mitotic interphase:
(1) intense energy production (2) ATP accumulation (3) intense tubulin synthesis (4) DNA
reduplication
34. The following events take place in the mitotic prophase:
(1) chromosome condensation (2) nucleolus disappearance (3) nuclear envelope
disorganization (4) centriole migration to the opposite cell poles
35. The following events take place in the mitotic metaphase:
(1) chromosome condensation (2) chromosome assembling on the equatorial plate (3)
nucleolus disappearance (4) the mitotic spindle formation
36. The following events take place in the mitotic anaphase:
(1) chromosome condensation (2) nucleolus disappearance (3) the mitotic spindle
formation (4) movement of chromosomes to the opposite cell poles
37. The following events take place in the mitotic telophase:
(1) chromosome decondensation (2) nuclear envelope restoration (3) nucleolus re-
appearance (4) cytoplasm division
38.The absence of cytoplasmic division (cytokinesis) in mitosis results in:
(1) cell death (2) generation of a subsequent mitosis (3) formation of haploid cell (4)
formation of multinuclear cell
2. EPITHELIAL TISSUE
Directions: each of the following statements contains five suggested completions. Choose
the one that is best in each case.
1. Each of the following statements concerning the mesothelium is true, EXCEPT:
A – is derived from mesoderm; B – is simple; C – its cells are squamous; D – not each of
its cells reaches the lumen; E – lines the peritoneal cavity.
2. Each of the following statements concerning the pseudostratified epithelium is
true, EXCEPT:
A – all its cells rest on the basement membrane; B – all its cells reach the apical surface;
C – contains goblet cells; D – is ciliated; E – contains short (basal) cells.
TESTS WITH ANSWERS
, 1.CYTOLOGY
Directions: each of the following statements contains five suggested completions.
Choose the one that is best in each case.
1. Each of the following statements concerning the plasmalemma is true, EXCEPT:
A – includes elementary cell membrane; B – its supermembranous layer consists of
glycolipids and glycoproteins; C – its submembranous layer contains filaments and
microtubules; D – is a semi-permeable cell boundary; E – is not an obligatory cell
component.
2. The plasma membrane functions are as follows, EXCEPT:
A – is a selectively permeable barrier; B – is the site for hormone receptors; C – provides
cell-to-cell interaction; D – is the primary protein synthesis site; E – takes part in the active
and passive transport.
3. Each of the following statements concerning the microvilli is true, EXCEPT:
A – are plasmalemma projections; B – contain microtubules; C – amplify cell surface area;
D – form the brush border of intestinal epithelium; E – contain microfilaments.
4. Each of the following statements concerning the cilia is true, EXCEPT:
A – are plasmalemma projections; B – contain nine peripheral doublets and the central
pair of microtubules; C – are not visible in light microscope; D – their basal bodies are
similar to centrioles; E – are movable organelles.
5. The intercellular junction where ionic channels pierce the adjacent membranes is
called:
A – desmosome; B – nexus; C – tight junction; D – synapse; E – lateral interdigitations.
6. The disk-shaped intercellular junction where a dense plaque with filaments is
present on the cytoplasmic surface of each opposing plasma membrane is called:
A – desmosome; B – nexus; C – tight junction; D – synapse; E – lateral interdigitations.
7. The intercellular junction that blocks the substance access to the intercellular
space is called:
A – desmosome; B – nexus; C – tight junction; D – synapse; E – lateral interdigitations.
8. Each of the following statements concerning the mitochondria is true, EXCEPT:
A – have a double-membrane structure; B – its inner membrane infolds to form cristae; C –
its matrix contains enzymes of Krebs’ cycle; D – its cristae contain enzymes of the
electron-transport chain; E – are not able to produce ATP.
9. The cytoplasm basophilia is inherent in cells that:
A – have cilia; B – accumulate lipids; C – actively synthesize proteins; D – accumulate
glycogen; E – synthesize mucus.
10. The microfilaments are composed of the following proteins:
A – actin; B – desmin; C – keratin; D – vimentin; E – integrin.
11. These filaments belong to the population of intermediate filaments, EXCEPT:
A – tonofilaments; B – neurofilaments; C – actin filaments; D – glial filaments; E – desmin
filaments.
12. Each of the following statements concerning the nuclear envelope structure is
true, EXCEPT:
A – consists of two membranes separated by the perinuclear space; B – contains nuclear
pores providing communication between the nucleus and cytoplasm; C – its outer
membrane is studded with ribosomes; D – its inner membrane has a fibrous lamina
anchoring chromatin; E – its outer membrane is continuous with Golgi apparatus.
13. Each of the following statements concerning chromatin is true, EXCEPT:
A – euchromatin is a lightly stained and dispersed; B – heterochromatin is a densely
stained and condensed; C – heterochromatin takes part in transcription; D – two types of
,chromatin may be transformed one into another; E – the abundance of euchromatin gives
evidence of intense protein synthesis.
14. Each of the following statements concerning the nucleolus functions is true,
EXCEPT:
A – the nucleolar organizer region contains genes encoding mRNA; B – rRNA is
synthesized and assembled into ribosome subunits; C – ribosome subunits leave the
nucleus through nuclear pores; D – in the cytoplasm, ribosomes either assemble into
polysomes or bind to rER; E – the number and size of nucleoli give evidence of intense
protein synthesis.
15. Each of the following statements concerning mitosis is true, EXCEPT:
A – results in the production of two identical daughter cells; B – is direct cell division; C –
equally divides chromosomes between daughter cells; D – maintains the diploid number of
chromosomes; E – consists of four phases.
16. Each of the following statements concerning the mitotic spindle is true,
EXCEPT:
A – contains microtubules; B – its components are attached to a chromosome at the
kinetochore; C – is responsible for chromosome movement in the anaphase; D – is formed
before chromosome condensation; E – centrioles take part in its formation.
17. The following cytoplasmic components are inclusions, EXCEPT:
A – lipid droplets; B – glycogen clumps; C – lysosomes; D – mucous granules; E – protein
granules.
Directions: one or more of the given statements or completions is/are correct. Choose the
answer: A – if only 1,2, and 3 are correct; B – if only 1 and 3 are correct; C – if only 2 and
4 are correct; D – if only 4 is correct; E – if all are correct.
18. The glycocalyx is composed of:
(1) glycoproteins (2) cholesterol (3) glycolipids (4) glycogen
19. The rER synthesizes:
(1) secretory proteins (2) cell membrane proteins (3) lysosome enzymes (4) cytosol
proteins
20. The abundance of rER in the cytoplasm can be identified by:
(1) diffuse basophilia (2) acidophilia (3) absence of staining (4) local basophilia
21. The functions of sER are as follows:
(1) lipid metabolism (2) carbohydrate metabolism (3) detoxification (4) release and
recapture of calcium ions in muscles
22. The following statements regarding the Golgi apparatus are true:
(1) consists of several disk-shaped saccules arranged in a stack (2) its cis (convex) face is
associated with small vesicles from ER (3) its trans (concave) face is associated with
vacuoles (4) it is abundant in secretory cells
23. The following statements regarding the Golgi apparatus functions are true:
(1) accumulates, modifies, and packs secretory products (2) forms primary lysosomes (3)
takes part in the synthesis of lipoproteins, glycoproteins, and glycolipids (4) manufactures
membrane proteins
24. The lysosome membranes and lysosome enzymes are formed in:
(1) rER (2) sER (3) Golgi apparatus (4) free ribosomes
25. The following statements regarding the lysosome functions are true:
(1) protect cells from waste products accumulation (2) degrade aged organelles (3) take
part in phagocytosis (4) provide autolysis
26. The following statements regarding the peroxisome are true:
(1) is a spherical structure surrounded by unit membrane (2) its matrix contains the
enzyme catalase (3) its catalase converts hydrogen peroxide to water and oxygen (4) is
derived from rER
, 27. The following statements regarding the centrioles are true:
(1) exist as a pair of cylinder-like structures oriented at right angle to one another (2) each
centriole has nine peripheral microtubule triplets but lacks the central pair (3) before cell
division they replicate themselves by forming procentrioles (4) during cell division,
separate and migrate to the cell poles
28. The cytoskeleton includes:
(1) actin filaments (2) intermediate filaments (3) microtubules (4) centrioles
29. The following statements regarding the microtubule functions are true:
(1) are parts of the cytoskeleton (2) form the mitotic spindle (3) take part in intracellular
transport and cell movement (4) constitute cilia, flagella, and centrioles
30. The cells containing a lot of free ribosomes synthesize:
(1) secretory proteins (2) cytosol proteins (3) cell membrane proteins (4) proteins for cell
growth and differentiation
31. The following events take place in the G1 period of the mitotic interphase:
(1) intense protein synthesis (2) DNA reduplication (3) daughter cell growth (4) self-
replication of centrioles
32. The following events take place in the S period of the mitotic interphase:
(1) DNA reduplication (2) daughter cell growth (3) self-replication of centrioles (4) intense
energy production
33. The following events take place in the G2 period of the mitotic interphase:
(1) intense energy production (2) ATP accumulation (3) intense tubulin synthesis (4) DNA
reduplication
34. The following events take place in the mitotic prophase:
(1) chromosome condensation (2) nucleolus disappearance (3) nuclear envelope
disorganization (4) centriole migration to the opposite cell poles
35. The following events take place in the mitotic metaphase:
(1) chromosome condensation (2) chromosome assembling on the equatorial plate (3)
nucleolus disappearance (4) the mitotic spindle formation
36. The following events take place in the mitotic anaphase:
(1) chromosome condensation (2) nucleolus disappearance (3) the mitotic spindle
formation (4) movement of chromosomes to the opposite cell poles
37. The following events take place in the mitotic telophase:
(1) chromosome decondensation (2) nuclear envelope restoration (3) nucleolus re-
appearance (4) cytoplasm division
38.The absence of cytoplasmic division (cytokinesis) in mitosis results in:
(1) cell death (2) generation of a subsequent mitosis (3) formation of haploid cell (4)
formation of multinuclear cell
2. EPITHELIAL TISSUE
Directions: each of the following statements contains five suggested completions. Choose
the one that is best in each case.
1. Each of the following statements concerning the mesothelium is true, EXCEPT:
A – is derived from mesoderm; B – is simple; C – its cells are squamous; D – not each of
its cells reaches the lumen; E – lines the peritoneal cavity.
2. Each of the following statements concerning the pseudostratified epithelium is
true, EXCEPT:
A – all its cells rest on the basement membrane; B – all its cells reach the apical surface;
C – contains goblet cells; D – is ciliated; E – contains short (basal) cells.
