NR507 Week 1 Quiz (2 Versions, Latest-2022)/ NR 507 Week 1 Quiz: Advanced Pathophysiology: Chamberlain College of Nursing |100% Correct Answers, Already Graded “A”|

NR507 Week 1 Quiz (2 Versions, Latest-2022)/ NR 507 Week 1 Quiz: Advanced Pathophysiology: Chamberlain College of Nursing |100% Correct Answers, Already Graded “A”| NR507 Week 1 Quiz ( 2 Latest Versions): Advanced Pathophysiology: Chamberlain College of Nursing NR 507 Week 1 (Latest): Advanced Pathophysiology: Chamberlain College of Nursing Question 1. Once they have penetrated the first line of defense, which microorganisms do neutrophils actively attack, engulf, and destroy by phagocytosis? Bacteria Fungi Viruses Mycoplasma Question 2. What of the following remains a significant cause of morbidity and mortality worldwide? Starvation Traumatic injury Cardiovascular disease Infectious disease Question 3. What is the role of reverse transcriptase in HIV infection? It converts single DNA into double-stranded DNA. It is needed to produce integrase. It transports the RNA into the cell nucleus. It converts RNA into double-stranded DNA. Question 4. Which statement is true about fungal infections? They occur only on skin, hair, and nails. They are controlled by phagocytes and T lymphocytes. They result in release of endotoxins. They are prevented by vaccines. Question 5. Which statement about vaccines is true? Most bacterial vaccines contain attenuated organisms. Most viral vaccines are made by using dead organisms. Vaccines require booster injections to maintain lifelong protection. Vaccines provide effective protection for all people against viruses, bacteria, and fungal infections. Question 6. After sexual transmission of HIV, a person can be infected yet seronegative for _____ months. 1 to 2 6 to 14 18 to 20 24 to 36 Question 7. A person with type O blood is likely to have high titers of anti-___ antibodies. A B A and B O Question 8. In a type II hypersensitivity reaction, when soluble antigens from infectious agents enter circulation, tissue damage is a result of complement-mediated cell lysis. phagocytosis by macrophages. phagocytosis in the spleen. neutrophil granules and toxic oxygen products. Question 9. Deficiencies in which element can produce depression of both B- and T-cell function? Iron Zinc Iodine Magnesium Question 10. What disease involves the deposition of circulating immune complexes containing an antibody against host DNA, resulting in tissue damage? Hemolytic anemia Pernicious anemia Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) Myasthenia gravis Question 11. In which primary immune deficiency is there a partial to complete absence of T-cell immunity? Bruton disease DiGeorge syndrome Reticular dysgenesis Adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency Question 12. The class of antibody involved in type I hypersensitivity reactions is IgA. IgE. IgG. IgM. Question 13. During an IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reaction, what causes bronchospasm? Bronchial edema caused by chemotactic factor of anaphylaxis Bronchial edema caused by binding of the cytotropic antibody Smooth muscle contraction caused by histamine bound to H1 receptors Smooth muscle contraction caused by histamine bound to H2 receptors Question 14. Stress-induced norepinephrine results in decreased blood flow to the brain and skin. peripheral vasoconstriction. increased glycogen synthesis in the liver. decreased muscle contraction as a result of an energy depletion. Question 15. Stress-age syndrome results in decreased catecholamines. ACTH. cortisol. immune system. Question 16. Which hormone increases the formation of glucose from amino acids and free fatty acids? Epinephrine Norepinephrine Cortisol Growth hormone Question 17. Which cytokines initiate the production of corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH)? IL-1 and IL-6 IL-2 and TNF-a IFN and IL-12 TNF-ß and IL-4 Question 18. Cells from a muscle tumor show a reduced ability to form new muscle and appear highly disorganized. This is an example of dysplasia. hyperplasia. myoplasia. anaplasia. Question 19. Intestinal polyps are benign neoplasms and the first stage in development of colon cancer. These findings support the notion that cancers of the colon are more easily diagnosed in the benign form because they can be visualized during colonoscopy. an accumulation of mutations in specific genes is required for the development of cancer. tumor invasion and metastasis progress more slowly in the gastrointestinal tract. apoptosis is triggered by diverse stimuli including excessive growth. Question 20. Which of the following represents the correct nomenclature for benign and malignant tumors of adipose tissue, respectively? Liposarcoma, lipoma Lipoma, liposarcoma Adisarcoma, adipoma Adipoma, adisarcoma Question 21. Inherited mutations that predispose to cancer are almost invariably what kind of gene? Proto-oncogenes Oncogenes Tumor-suppressor genes Growth-promoting genes Question 22. By what process does the ras gene convert from a proto-oncogene to an oncogene? By designating a chromosome that has a piece of one chromosome fused to a piece of another chromosome By duplicating a small piece of a chromosome, repeatedly making numerous copies By alternating one or more nucleotide base pairs By promoting proliferation of growth signals by impairing tumor-suppressor genes Question 23. In chronic myeloid leukemia (CML), a piece of chromosome 9 fuses to a piece of chromosome 22. This is an example of which mutation of normal genes to oncogenes? Point mutation Chromosome fusion Gene amplification Chromosome translocation Question 24. Which characteristic among women correlates with a high morbidity of cancer of the colon, liver, gallbladder, pancreas, breast, uterus, and kidney? Women older than 45 years of age Women who never had children Women who had a high body mass index Woman who smoked for more than 10 years Question 25. What congenital malformation is commonly linked to acute leukemia in children? Down syndrome Wilms tumor Retinoblastoma Neuroblastoma