Foundations In Microbiology 9th Edition By Talaro Chess – Test Bank

Foundations In Microbiology 9th Edition By Talaro Chess – Test Bank Sample Test ch03 Student: 1. The Six I’s of studying microorganisms include all of the following except A. inoculation. B. incubation. C. infection. D. isolation. E. identification. 2. All of the following are examples of different types of microbiological media except A. broth. B. enriched. C. agar. D. petri dish. E. gelatin. 3. The term that refers to the purposeful addition of microorganisms into a laboratory nutrient medium is A. isolation. B. inoculation. C. immunization. D. infection. E. contamination. 4. Which of the following is essential for development of discrete, isolated colonies? A. broth medium B. differential medium C. selective medium D. solid medium E. assay medium 5. A pure culture contains only A. one species of microorganism. B. bacteria. C. a variety of microbes from one source. D. All of the choices are correct. E. None of the choices are correct. 6. Which of the following will result when 1% to 5% agar is added to nutrient broth, boiled and cooled? A. a pure culture B. a mixed culture C. a solid medium D. a liquid medium E. a contaminated medium 7. A microbiologist inoculates Staphylococcus aureus into a culture medium. Following incubation, both Staphylococcus aureus and Staphylococcus epidermidis are determined to be growing in this culture. What is the most likely explanation? A. The microbiologist used too much inoculum. B. The culture is contaminated. C. The incubation temperature was incorrect. D. The culture medium must be selective. E. The culture medium must be differential. 8. A microbiologist inoculates Staphylococcus epidermidis and Escherichia coli into a culture medium. Following incubation, only the E. coli grows in the culture. What is the most likely explanation? A. The microbiologist used too much inoculum. B. The culture is contaminated. C. The incubation temperature was incorrect. D. The culture medium must be selective. E. The culture medium must be differential. 9. Which method often results in colonies developing down throughout the agar and some colonies on the surface? A. streak plate B. spread plate C. pour plate D. All of the choices are correct E. None of the choices are correct 10. A common medium used for growing fastidious bacteria is A. blood agar. B. trypticase soy agar. C. mannitol salt agar. D. MacConkey medium. E. a reducing medium. 11. A nutrient medium that has all of its chemical components identified and their precise concentrations known and reproducible would be termed A. complex. B. reducing. C. enriched. D. enumeration. E. synthetic. 12. A reducing medium contains A. sugars that can be fermented. B. extra oxygen. C. hemoglobin, vitamins, or other growth factors. D. substances that remove oxygen. E. inhibiting agents. 13. Which type of medium is able to distinguish different species or types of microorganisms based on an observable change in the colonies or in the medium? A. differential B. selective C. enumeration D. enriched E. reducing 14. A microbiologist decides to use a nutrient medium that contains thioglycolic acid. What type of microbe is she attempting to culture? A. fastidious B. gram positive C. anaerobe D. gram negative E. virus 15. Mannitol salt agar is selective for which bacterial genus? A. Salmonella B. Streptococcus C. Neisseria D. Staphylococcus E. Escherichia 16. A microbiologist must culture a patient’s feces for intestinal pathogens. Which of the following would likely be present in selective media for analyzing this fecal specimen? A. NaCl B. sheep red blood cells C. bile salts D. thioglycolic acid E. peptone 17. Which of the following characteristics refers to the microscope’s ability to show two separate entities as separate and distinct? A. resolving power B. magnification C. refraction D. All of the choices are correct E. None of the choices are correct 18. Which of the following magnifies the specimen to produce the real image of the specimen? A. condenser B. objective lens C. ocular lens D. body E. nosepiece 19. If a microbiologist is studying a specimen at a total magnification of 950X, what is the magnifying power of the objective lens if the ocular lens is 10X? A. 100X B. 950X C. 85X D. 850X E. 95X 20. All of the following are diameters of cells that would be resolved in a microscope with a limit of resolution of 0.2 μm except A. 0.2 μm. B. 0.2 mm. C. 0.1 μm. D. 0.3 μm. E. 2.0 μm. 21. The wavelength of light used plus the numerical aperture governs A. illumination. B. resolution. C. magnification. D. size of the field. E. All of the choices are correct. 22. The type of microscope in which you would see brightly illuminated specimens against a black background is A. bright-field. B. dark-field. C. phase-contrast. D. fluorescence. E. electron. 23. Which microscope does not use light in forming the specimen image? A. bright-field B. dark-field C. phase-contrast D. fluorescence E. electron 24. Which microscope achieves the greatest resolution and highest magnification? A. bright-field B. dark-field C. phase-contrast D. fluorescence E. electron 25. Which microscope shows cells against a bright background and the intracellular structures of unstained cells based on their varying densities? A. bright-field B. dark-field C. phase-contrast D. fluorescence E. electron 26. Which microscope is the most widely used to show stained cells against a bright background? A. bright-field B. dark-field C. phase-contrast D. fluorescence E. electron 27. All of the following pertain to the fluorescence microscope except it A. uses electron’s to produce a specimen image. B. is a type of compound microscope. C. requires the use of dyes like acridine and fluorescein. D. is commonly used to diagnose certain infections. E. requires an ultraviolet radiation source. 28. Which is incorrect about chocolate agar? A. It can be used to cultivate Neisseria. B. It usually uses sheep blood that has been heated. C. It has chocolate extract in it. D. It is an enriched medium. E. It is used to grow fastidious bacteria. 29. Which microscope bombards a whole, metal-coated specimen with electrons moving back and forth over it? A. fluorescence B. differential interference contrast C. scanning electron D. transmission electron E. phase-contrast 30. The specimen preparation that is best for viewing cell motility is A. hanging drop. B. fixed stained smear. C. Gram stain. D. negative stain. E. flagellar stain. 31. The primary purpose of staining cells on a microscope slide is to A. kill them. B. secure them to the slide. C. enlarge the cells. D. add contrast in order to see them better. E. see motility. 32. The Gram stain, acid-fast stain, and endospore stain . A. are used on a wet mount of the specimen B. use heat to force the dye into cell structures C. have outcomes based on cell wall differences D. use a negative stain technique E. are differential stains 33. Basic dyes are A. attracted to the acidic substances of bacterial cells. B. anionic. C. used in negative staining. D. repelled by cells. E. dyes such as India ink and nigrosin. 34. A microbiologist makes a fixed smear of bacterial cells and stains them with Loeffler’s methylene blue. All the cells appear blue under the oil lens. This is an example of A. negative staining. B. using an acidic dye. C. simple staining. D. using the acid-fast stain. E. capsule staining. 35. Media that contains extracts from plants, animals, or yeasts are A. synthetic. B. complex. C. reducing. D. enriched. E. All of the choices are correct. 36. Brain-heart infusion, trypticase soy agar (TSA), and nutrient agar are all examples of which type of media? A. synthetic B. reducing C. enriched D. nonsynthetic E. selective 37. Bacteria that require special growth factors and complex organic substances are called A. fastidious. B. pathogenic. C. harmless. D. anaerobic. E. aerobic. 38. A media is designed that allows only staphylococci to grow. In addition, S. aureus colonies have a yellow halo around them and other staphylococci appear white. This type of media is: A. selective only. B. differential only. C. both selective and differential. D. a reducing media. E. enriched. 39. All of the following are examples of basic dyes except A. Methylene Blue. B. Nigrosin. C. Crystal Violet. D. Safranin. E. Carbol Fuchsin. 40. Which type of media can be used to determine if a bacteria is motile? A. SIM B. MacConkey C. Enriched media D. Thayer-Martin media E. Chocolate agar 41. All of the following are correct about agar except A. it is flexible. B. it melts at the boiling point of water (100°C). C. it is a source of nutrition for bacteria. D. it solidifies below 42°C. E. it is solid at room temperature. 42. Which of the following media is useful for cultivating fungi? A. Sabouraud’s agar B. MacConkey agar C. Tomato juice agar D. Phenylethanol agar E. Mueller tellurite 43. Which of the following puts the Six “I”s in their correct order? A. inoculation, incubation, isolation, inspection, identification B. isolation, inspection, inoculation, incubation, identification C. incubation, inspection, isolation, identification, inoculation D. inspection, identification, isolation, incubation, inoculation E. inspection, isolation, incubation, inoculation, identification 44. Why is immersion oil often used when viewing specimens under the microscope? A. to stain the cells blue B. to prevent the smear from drying out C. to slow bacterial movement so you can see cells better D. to increase the resolution E. to reduce the amount of heat reaching the slide from the light source 45. The procedure for culturing a microorganism requires the use of a microscope. True False 46. One colony typically develops from the growth of several parent bacterial cells. True False 47. Some microbes are not capable of growing on artificial media. True False 48. Mixed cultures are also referred to as contaminated cultures. True False 49. A medium that is gel-like has less agar in it compared to a solid medium. True False 50. A selective medium contains one or more substances that inhibit growth of certain microbes in order to facilitate the growth of other microbes. True False 51. A bacterial species that grows on blood agar but will not grow on trypticase soy agar is termed an anaerobe. True False 52. Fixed smears of specimens are required in order to perform the Gram stain and endospore stain on the specimens. True False 53. The bending of light rays as they pass from one medium to another is called refraction. True False 54. At the end of the Gram stain, gram-positive bacteria will be seen as purple cells. True False 55. Scanning tunneling and atomic force microscopes are used to image the detailed structure of biological molecules. True False 56. The correct microbiological term for the tiny sample of specimen that is put into a nutrient medium in order to produce a culture is the . 57. The three physical forms of laboratory media are: solid, semisolid, and . 58. Bacteria that require special growth factors and complex nutrients are termed . 59. is the term for a culture made from one isolated colony. 60. Newly inoculated cultures must be at a specific temperature and time to encourage growth. 61. Magnification is achieved in a compound microscope through the initial magnification of the specimen by the lens. This image is then projected to the lens that will further magnify the specimen to form a virtual image received by the eye. 62. The of the microscope holds and allows selection of the objective lenses. 63. dyes have a negative charge on the chromophore and are repelled by bacterial cells. 64. has the same optical qualities as glass and thus prevents refractive loss of light as it passes from the slide to the objective lens. 65. Compare and contrast the reagents and functions of negative staining versus positive staining. 66. Explain the difference and significance between a contaminated culture and a mixed culture. 67. A contaminated food sample contains several different species of bacteria. A food microbiologist is interested in studying just one of these species. Describe the sequence of procedures that the microbiologist must perform in order to obtain a pure culture of the bacterial species of interest from this food sample. Detail all the necessary media and equipment. 68. Explain how and why immersion oil increases resolution but not magnification when using the 100X objective. 69. Which of the following reagents reacts with crystal violet as the mordant? A. Crystal violet B. Gram’s iodine C. 95% ethyl alcohol D. Safranin 70. How will E. coli appear if the mordant is not applied? A. Gram-positive B. Gram-negative C. Gram-variable D. Colorless E. None of these 71. Observing and characterizing colonial growth for size, shape, edge, elevation, color, odor, and texture is part of . A. Specimen collection B. Inoculation C. Incubation D. Isolation E. Inspection 72. In lab, Tom was given a mixed culture. His objective is to isolate single colonies. What should be used to accomplish this goal? A. Sterile swab, loop dilution, TSB B. Hockey stick, spread plate technique, and 4 degree Celsius incubation temperature C. Loop dilution, TSA, hockey stick, 37 degree Celsius incubator D. Inoculating loop, incinerator, streak plate method, 37 degree Celsius incubator E. Sterile swab, streak plate method, 37 degree Celsius incubator 73. Sally had a throat sample taken at a satellite lab within her health care provider’s office. What kind of media would be best suited for this specimen? A. TSA plate B. TSB tube C. Transport media D. Pour plate E. Quadrant streak plate 74. Identification relies entirely on biochemical test results. True False 75. Using the numbers 1-4, label the correct chronological sequence of events for the Gram staining procedure. (1, 2, 3, 4) Apply iodine for 1 minute to the smear and rinse (1, 2, 3, 4) Add crystal violet for 60 seconds and rinse (1, 2, 3, 4) Add 95% ethanol for 10-20 seconds and rinse (1, 2, 3, 4) Apply safranin for 60 seconds and rinse ch03 Key 1. C 2. D 3. B 4. D 5. A 6. C 7. B 8. D 9. C 10. A 11. E 12. D 13. A 14. C 15. D 16. C 17. A 18. B 19. E 20. C 21. B 22. B 23. E 24. E 25. C 26. A 27. A 28. C 29. C 30. A 31. D 32. E 33. A 34. C 35. B 36. D 37. A 38. C 39. B 40. A 41. C 42. A 43. A 44. D 45. FALSE 46. FALSE 47. TRUE 48. FALSE 49. TRUE 50. TRUE 51. FALSE 52. TRUE 53. TRUE 54. TRUE 55. TRUE 56. inoculum 57. liquid 58. fastidious 59. subculture 60. incubated 61. objective, ocular 62. nosepiece 63. acidic 64. immersion oil 65. 66. 67. 68. 69. B 70. B 71. E 72. D 73. C 74. FALSE 75. Using the numbers 1-4, label the correct chronological sequence of events for the Gram staining procedure. 2 Apply iodine for 1 minute to the smear and rinse 1 Add crystal violet for 60 seconds and rinse 3 Add 95% ethanol for 10-20 seconds and rinse 4 Apply safranin for 60 seconds and rinse ch03 Summary Category # of Questions ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including brig ht field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). 7 ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same process es as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different. 1 ASM Objective: 03.02 The interactions of microorganisms among themselves and with their environment are determined by their metabolic abilities (e.g., quorum sensing, oxygen consumption, nitrogen transformations). 4 ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteris tics. 11 ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. 10 ASM Objective: 07.01b Ability to apply the process of science: Analyze and interpret results from a variety of microbiological met hods and apply these methods to analogous situations. 6 ASM Objective: 07.02 Ability to use quantitative reasoning: Use mathematical reasoning and graphing skills to solve problems in microbiology. 1 ASM Objective: 08.01 Properly prepare and view specimens for examination using microscopy (bright field and, if possible, phase contrast). 15 ASM Objective: 08.02 Use pure culture and selective techniques to enrich for and isolate microorganisms. 20 ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). 14 ASM Objective: 08.04 Estimate the number of microorganisms in a sample (using, for example, direct count, viable plate count, an d spectrophotometric methods). 1 ASM Objective: 08.05 Use appropriate microbiological and molecular lab equipment and methods. 34 ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function 8 ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways 14 ASM Topic: Module 07 Scientific Thinking 7 ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills 72 Learning Outcome: 03.02 Briefly outline the processes and purposes of the six types of procedures that are used in handling, maint aining, and studying microorganisms. 5 Learning Outcome: 03.03 Describe the basic plan of an optical microscope, and differentiate between magnification and resolution. 3 Learning Outcome: 03.04 Explain how the images are formed, along with the role of light and the different powers of lenses. 5 Learning Outcome: 03.05 Indicate how the resolving power is determined and how resolution affects image visibility. 6 Learning Outcome: 03.06 Differentiate between the major types of optical microscopes, their illumination sources, image appearan ce, and uses. 4 Learning Outcome: 03.07 Describe the operating features of electron microscopes and how they differ from optical microscopes in illumination source, magnification, resolution, and image appearance. 3 Learning Outcome: 03.08 Differentiate between transmission and scanning electron microscopes in image formation and appearan ce. 1 Learning Outcome: 03.09 Explain the basic differences between fresh and fixed preparations for microscopy and how they are use d. 3 Learning Outcome: 03.10 Define dyes and describe the basic chemistry behind the process of staining. 3 Learning Outcome: 03.11 Differentiate between negative and positive staining, giving examples. 1 Learning Outcome: 03.12 Distinguish between simple, differential, and structural stains, including their applications. 3 Learning Outcome: 03.13 Describe the process of Gram staining and how its results can aid the identification process. 5 Learning Outcome: 03.14 Define inoculation, media, and culture, and describe sampling methods and instruments, and what events must be controlled. 6 Learning Outcome: 03.15 Describe three basic techniques for isolation, including tools, media, incubation, and outcome. 4 Learning Outcome: 03.16 Explain what an isolated colony is and indicate how it forms. 1 Learning Outcome: 03.17 Differentiate between a pure culture, subculture, mixed culture, and contaminated culture. Define conta minant. 5 Learning Outcome: 03.18 What kinds of data are collected during information gathering? 2 Learning Outcome: 03.19 Describe some of the processes involved in identifying microbes from samples. 3 Learning Outcome: 03.20 Explain the importance of media for culturing microbes in the laboratory. 4 Learning Outcome: 03.21 Name the three general categories of media, based on their inherent properties and uses. 2 Learning Outcome: 03.22 Compare and contrast liquid, solid, and semisolid media, giving examples. 6 Learning Outcome: 03.23 Analyze chemically defined and complex media, describing their basic differences and content. 3 Learning Outcome: 03.24 Describe functional media; list several different categories, and explain what characterizes each type of f unctional media. 13 Learning Outcome: 03.25 Identify the qualities of enriched, selective, and differential media; use examples to explain their content and purposes. 10 Learning Outcome: 03.26 Explain what it means to say that microorganisms are not culturable. 1 Talaro – Chapter 03 75 Topic: Culturing Microorganisms 41 Topic: Identifying Microorganisms 5 Topic: Microscopy 18 Topic: Preparing Microscopy Specimens 13 ch04 Student: 1. Bacterial cells could have any of the following appendages, except A. flagella. B. cilia. C. fimbriae. D. periplasmic flagella (axial filaments). E. sex pili. 2. Spirochetes have a twisting and flexing locomotion due to appendages called A. flagella. B. cilia. C. fimbriae. D. periplasmic flagella (axial filaments). E. sex pili. 3. The short, numerous appendages used by some bacterial cells for adhering to surfaces are called A. flagella. B. cilia. C. fimbriae. D. periplasmic flagella (axial filaments). E. sex pili. 4. The transfer of genes during bacterial conjugation involves rigid, tubular appendages called A. flagella. B. cilia. C. fimbriae. D. periplasmic flagella (axial filaments). E. sex pili. 5. All bacterial cells have A. a chromosome. B. fimbriae. C. endospores. D. capsules. E. flagella. 6. The term that refers to the presence of flagella all over the cell surface is A. amphitrichous. B. atrichous. C. lophotrichous. D. monotrichous. E. peritrichous. 7. The outcome of the Gram stain is based on differences in the cell’s A. ribosomes. B. inclusions. C. cell wall. D. cell membrane. E. flagella. 8. The most immediate result of destruction of a cell’s ribosomes would be A. material would not be able to cross the cell membrane. B. protein synthesis would stop. C. destruction of the cell’s DNA. D. formation of glycogen inclusions. E. loss of capsule. 9. A bacterial cell exhibiting chemotaxis probably has A. fimbriae. B. capsule. C. mesosomes. D. flagella. E. metachromatic granules. 10. Which structure protects bacteria from being phagocytized? A. slime layer B. fimbriae C. cell membrane D. capsule E. All of the choices are correct 11. If bacteria living in salty seawater were displaced to a freshwater environment, the cell structure that would prevent the cells from rupturing is A. endospore. B. cell wall. C. cell membrane. D. capsule. E. slime layer. 12. Peptidoglycan is a unique macromolecule found in bacterial A. cell walls. B. cell membranes. C. capsules. D. slime layers. E. inclusions. 13. All of the following structures contribute to the ability of pathogenic bacteria to cause disease, except A. inclusions. B. fimbriae. C. capsule. D. slime layer. E. outer membrane of gram-negative cell walls. 14. A prokaryotic cell wall that has primarily peptidoglycan with small amounts of teichoic acid and lipoteichoic acid is A. gram-negative. B. gram-positive. C. archaea. D. spheroplast. E. acid fast. 15. A bacterial genus that has waxy mycolic acid in the cell walls is A. Mycobacterium. B. Mycoplasma. C. Streptococcus. D. Corynebacterium. E. Salmonella. 16. All of the following pertain to endotoxins, except they A. are specific bacterial cell wall lipids. B. can stimulate fever in the human body. C. can cause shock in the human body. D. are involved in typhoid fever and some meningitis cases. E. are found in acid fast bacterial cell walls. 17. The difference in cell wall structure of Mycobacterium and Nocardia compared to the typical grampositive bacterial cell wall structure is A. more peptidoglycan. B. predominance of unique, waxy lipids. C. easily decolorized. D. presence of lipopolysaccharide. E. All of the choices are correct. 18. Lipopolysaccharide is an important cell wall component of A. gram-negative bacteria. B. gram-positive bacteria. C. acid-fast bacteria. D. mycoplasmas. E. protoplasts. 19. The periplasmic space is A. larger in gram-positive bacteria. B. made up of lipopolysaccharides and phospholipids. C. an important reaction site for substances entering and leaving the cell. D. where peptidoglycan is located. E. absent in gram-negative bacteria. 20. Which of the following, pertaining to prokaryotic cell membranes, is mismatched? A. internal folds – mesosomes B. sterols present – mycoplasmas C. form a bilayer – phospholipids D. unique hydrocarbon present – cyanobacteria E. function – regulates transport of nutrients and wastes 21. The site/s for most ATP synthesis in prokaryotic cells is/are the A. ribosomes. B. mitochondria. C. cell wall. D. inclusions. E. cell membrane. 22. The bacterial chromosome A. is located in the cell membrane. B. contains all the cell’s plasmids. C. is part of the nucleoid. D. forms a single linear strand of DNA. E. All of the choices are correct. 23. Which is mismatched?