CTS 2302 Review for Test for final 1 | 2022 LATEST UPDATE

REVIEW QUESTIONS FOR TEST 1 Lesson 1, Supporting Windows Store and Cloud Apps 1. Which of the following features are available for usage in Office 365? (Choose all that apply.) a. Microsoft Exchange b. Microsoft SharePoint c. Microsoft Lync d. Microsoft Office Web Apps 2. Which of the following are features of Windows apps? (Choose all that apply.) a. They are designed to run in a single, full window display. b. They are designed to run only on a single form factor (desktops, laptops, or tablets). c. They are available from the Windows Store. d. They are certified for content by Microsoft. 3. Which of the following methods are available to deploy a Windows app that has been created within an organization and needs to be deployed to users? (Choose all that apply.) a. Place the app in the Windows Store. b. Deploy the app using Group Policy. c. Sideload the app using Microsoft Intune. d. Preload the app using Windows To Go workspaces. 4. Before sideloading Windows apps, several requirements must be met on the organization’s computers. Which of the following requirements must be met? (Choose all that apply.) a. The computers must be running Windows 10 Enterprise or Professional. b. The app must be signed by a trusted external certificate authority, such as VeriSign. c. Group Policy settings must allow trusted apps to be installed. d. A product activation key must be available for non-domain-joined computers. 5. When an organization signs up for Office 365, on how many devices can each user use Office products? a. Three b. Five c. Seven d. Unlimited 6. Which Office 365 deployment model only allows for 32-bit Office 2016 deployments? a. Deploying directly from the Office 365 portal b. Deploying from a network share c. Deploying using Group Policy d. Deploying using Microsoft System Center Configuration Manager 7. Which role is given to the person who creates the Office 365 account for his company? a. User Management Administrator b. Global Administrator c. Service Administrator d. Billing Administrator 8. Which of the following Office 365 administrator groups can monitor the health of the Office 365 account? (Choose all that apply.) a. Global Administrator b. Billing Administrator c. Password Administrator d. User Management Administrator 9. How can a Windows image be mounted using so that it can be updated? a. Read-only b. Staged c. Offline d. MountDir 10. Which of the following utilities must be run on a cloned system to ensure that the clone receives its own SID? a. adprep /renew b. sysprep c. dcpromo d. ntconfig 11. Which of the following functions does the System Preparation Utility () perform on a system? a. It removes a system from the Active Directory domain. b. It removes a system’s name and SID. c. It reboots the system and places it into capture mode. d. It starts the Snapshot Wizard in Windows Server 2012 R2 Enterprise. 12. When using sysprep on the master computer, why should the /oobe parameter be included? a. It prevents out-of-band Ethernet parameters from being sent from a DHCP server. b. It reboots the computer twice to enable a full sysprep. c. It disables PXE boot in favor of a local DVD image boot. d. It presents the Windows Welcome Wizard on the next boot. 13. When adding a Windows update to a WIM image file, the Windows update must be in which of the following file formats? a. .cab file b. .msi file c. .exe file d. .vsb file 14. Which Office 365 administrative role can manage users and groups and provides limited password reset abilities? a. Service Administrator b. User Management Administrator c. Password Administrator d. Billing Administrator 15. Which Office 365 administrative role can manage purchases and support tickets? a. Service Administrator b. User Management Administrator c. Password Administrator d. Billing Administrator 16. Which Office 365 administrative role can manage service requests but cannot manage passwords? a. Service Administrator b. User Management Administrator c. Password Administrator d. Billing Administrator 17. Which Office 365 administrative role can reset passwords and monitor the overall health of services? a. Service Administrator b. User Management Administrator c. Password Administrator d. Billing Administrator 18. Which Office 365 feature leverages SharePoint as a document repository and workspace? a. Maintenance b. Hardware c. Collaboration d. Software upgrades 19. Which Office 365 feature reduces administrative overhead? a. Maintenance b. Hardware c. Collaboration d. Software upgrades 20. Which Office 365 feature keeps Exchange, Lync, and SharePoint up to date? a. Maintenance b. Hardware c. Collaboration d. Software upgrades 21. An organization has 20 users. The organization needs to have file storage and sharing, Office Online, and desktop versions of Office. Which Office 365 business plan is the least expensive option for what is needed? a. Office 365 Small Business Premium b. Office 365 Small Business Basic c. Office 365 Enterprise E3 d. Office 365 Midsize Business 22. Which of the following Office 2016 products is not available in the Office 365 Small Business Premium offering? a. Lync b. InfoPath c. Access d. Publisher 23. Which type of file is a WIM file? a. A sector-based image b. A file-based disk image c. A hybrid image d. A thin image 24. Which type of account is used to synchronize a user’s desktop across multiple Windows 10 devices? a. Microsoft accounts b. Local user accounts c. Domain-based accounts d. Hybrid accounts Short Answer 25. Describe how the Windows Store app can be provided to users of Windows 10 devices. Answer: You don’t have to do anything—it comes preinstalled. Difficulty: Easy Section Ref: Installing and Managing Software Explanation: The Windows Store app comes preinstalled on Windows 10 devices. 26. When using Office 365, how many Global Administrators can exist within the account? Answer: One Difficulty: Medium Section Ref: Introducing Microsoft Office 365 Explanation: Only one person in the company can serve in the Global Administrator role. 27. What is the name of the Microsoft cloud-based client management solution for managing computers, tablets, and phones? Answer: Microsoft Intune Best Answer 28. Which Office 365 deployment model is best for small organizations that want to provide a self-service approach to installation? a. Deploying directly from the Office 365 portal b. Deploying from a network share c. Deploying using Group Policy d. Deploying using Microsoft System Center Configuration Manager 29. An organization currently uses the Office 365 Small Business Premium offering. The organization currently has 22 employees, though there have been a few new hires and terminations since the Office 365 contract was signed. The organization is currently out of Office 365 licenses. What should be done? a. Move up to the Office 365 Midsize Business offering. b. Delete the Office 365 accounts for the terminated employees. c. Move up to the Office 365 Enterprise E3 offering. d. Delete all Office 365 accounts and then create all new accounts for your current employees. Scenario 1-1: Troubleshooting Sideloaded Apps Developers at your company created a Windows app that needs to be sideloaded on a Windows 10 client computer that is part of your Active Directory domain. They ask you to prepare a computer so the sideloaded app can be installed and tested. After setting up the computer, you attempt to sideload the app but cannot complete the process. After reviewing your notes, you are not sure if you have addressed all of the prerequisites for sideloading the app. What could you have missed? Scenario 1-2: Deploying Software to a Windows Phone You need to deploy a software application to a Windows phone. Describe the best way to install this application. Lesson 2, Supporting Authentication and Authorization Multiple Choice 1. Digital certificates, smart cards, picture passwords, and biometrics are used to perform which of the following actions? a. Integrity b. Confidentiality c. Authorization d. Authentication 2. Which of the following items is not supported as a method of authentication in Windows 10? a. Picture passwords b. Biometrics c. Digital certificates d. One-time passwords 3. Generally speaking, which of the following password conditions is not considered to be part of a strong password for a corporation? a. Is 12 characters long b. Does not use part of the organization’s name c. Does not use words found in a dictionary d. Is also used for online accounts 4. A picture password is made up of which of the following components? (Choose all that apply.) a. A picture b. A PIN c. A password d. A gesture 5. How does the TPM chip work? a. It encrypts private keys stored in the file system. b. It stores private keys, moving them out of the file system. c. It brokers connections to a network-installed hardware security module for private key storage. d. It brokers connections between the smart card reader and the smart card. 6. Where are user accounts stored for computers that are in a workgroup? a. Accounts Manager Datastore b. Security Accounts Manager c. Directory Information Tree d. Local Security Authority 7. Which of the following is used to find computers, users, and other resources throughout an Active Directory forest? a. Key Distribution Center b. Global Catalog c. Kerberos d. Iterative query 8. Workgroup computers use which authentication protocol when granting resource access? a. Kerberos v5 b. SSL c. NTLM v2 d. LSASS 9. How does Windows implement TLS and SSL? a. By using digital certificates b. By using Server Name Indication (SNI) extensions c. By using TCP/IP as its networking suite d. Through the SChannel security support provider 10. Which protocol is responsible for the establishment of the encryption/decryption keys and algorithm in a TLS connection? a. Internet Key Exchange protocol b. TLS Record protocol c. IP Security protocol d. TLS Handshake protocol 11. Which authentication protocol is used when authenticating to a server that belongs to a different Active Directory forest? a. Kerberos v5 b. SSL c. NTLM v2 d. CHAP v2 12. Which of the following is not an allowed gesture for a picture password? a. Circles b. Straight lines c. Taps d. Arcs 13. When configuring two-factor authentication using digital certificates in Windows 10 on hardware with TPM chips, which of the following methods is the most cost effective and secure? a. Using digital certificates stored in the file system b. Using USB-attached smart card readers and smart cards c. Using virtual smart cards d. Using digital certificates with BitLocker Drive Encryption 14. Which of the following basic security components is used to support virtual smart cards? a. SSL certificates b. Trusted Platform Module c. Kerberos d. NTFS 15. How should Password Settings Objects (PSOs) be assigned to users? a. Assign PSOs directly to individual users. b. Assign PSOs to a new group and add the users to the new group. c. Assign PSOs to a global security group and add users to the group. d. Assign PSOs to various Active Directory groups as needed. 16. When visiting websites, users are automatically logged on. However, if other people use the same profile, a user might not want to automatically log on. How can a user delete the credentials used in the automatic logon? a. Use Credential Manager. b. Use Credential Caching. c. Delete the access token. d. Clear the IE cache. 17. Which of the following steps begins the process of modifying the default homegroup sharing configuration? a. Open the Computer Management console and select the HomeGroup node. b. Select one of the shared libraries in File Explorer and click Share in the toolbar. c. Open the HomeGroup app from Control Panel. d. Open the local Group Policy Editor console using . 18. Which of the following is used to register a nondomain smartphone or tablet in Active Directory, which will install a certificate on a device so that it can secure single sign-on mechanism? a. Workplace Join b. HomeGroup c. Credential Caching d. Credential Manager 19. Which server role is needed for Workplace Join? a. AD RMS b. RD GW c. AD FS d. PSO 20. Which term refers to a method used to provide proof that a security principal is the source of data, an action, or a communication? a. Authorization b. Integrity c. Nonrepudiation d. Confidentiality 21. Which term refers to preventing people from reading information they are not authorized to read? a. Authorization b. Integrity c. Nonrepudiation d. Confidentiality 22. Which term refers to the process of determining what an authenticated security principal can do? a. Authorization b. Integrity c. Nonrepudiation d. Confidentiality 23. Which term refers to the ability to guarantee that the information has not been arbitrarily changed? a. Authorization b. Integrity c. Nonrepudiation d. Confidentiality 24. Which of the following are examples of password policies? (Choose all that apply.) a. History b. Length c. Complexity d. Age 25. Why primarily are account lockout policies put into place? a. Privacy b. Security c. Policy d. Regulations 26. Which of the following is the default minimum password length in characters? a. 5 b. 7 c. 8 d. 10 27. Why is a setting of 0 for maximum password age not a good idea? (Choose all that apply.) a. It means that passwords never expire, which is a major security problem. b. It means that the passwords expire every day. c. It means that password aging has been disabled. d. It means that the use of passwords has been disabled. 28. Account policies contain various subsets. Which of the following are legitimate subsets of account policies? (Choose all that apply.) a. Password Policy b. Account Lockout Policy c. Kerberos Policy d. User Name Policy 29. Which of the following is introduced with Windows 10 that provides biometric authentication that uses a user’s face, iris, or fingerprint to unlock devices? a. Microsoft Passport b. Credential Manager c. Windows Hello d. Kerberos 30. Which of the following is used with Windows 10 that provides a two-factor authentication that consists of an enrolled device and a Windows Hello or PIN? a. Microsoft Passport b. Kerberos c. Credential Manager d. Secure Sockets Layer Short Answer 31. A _________ is a collection of data that binds an identity to a key pair. Answer: digital certificate Difficulty: Easy Section Ref: Digital Certificates Explanation: A digital certificate is a collection of data that binds an identity to a key pair. A digital certificate contains a name that indicates who or what owns the certificate, a public key, the name of the certificate authority (CA) that issued it, and the digital signature of the CA that issued it. 32. A _________ is the computer that creates and manages the distribution and revocation of certificates. Answer: certificate authority Difficulty: Easy Section Ref: Supporting Digital Certificates Explanation: A certificate authority is the computer that creates and manages the distribution and revocation of certificates. 33. Describe how Microsoft provides native support for the use of biometrics as an authentication factor. Answer: Windows Biometric Framework Difficulty: Hard Section Ref: Supporting Windows Hello and Microsoft Passport Explanation: Microsoft introduced native support for biometric technologies through its Windows Biometric Framework (WBF). WBF enables users to manage device settings for biometric devices through Control Panel, provides support for managing device drivers, and manages Group Policy settings that can be used to enable, disable, or limit use of biometric data for a local computer or domain. 34. Describe what users must have before they can be granted a session ticket that allows access to a network resource. Answer: A valid ticket-granting ticket Difficulty: Hard Section Ref: Understanding Kerberos and NTLM Authentication Explanation: Once the Kerberos KDC has authenticated a user, the user will be issued a ticket-granting ticket (TGT). The TGT contains information about the user, including group membership, which can be used by the KDC to later issue session tickets allowing access to network resources. 35. Describe which new enhancement to TLS in Windows 10 provides enhanced support when a client connects to a server that is virtually hosting multiple domains. Answer: Server Name Indication (SNI) extensions Difficulty: Hard 36. Describe how confidentiality is provided. Answer: By using encryption of data Difficulty: Medium Best Answer 37. Discretionary Access Control Lists (DACLs) contain one or more of which of the following items? a. Session tickets b. Access control entries c. Ticket-granting tickets d. Security identifiers 38. Which aspect of passwords is a key component of their strength? a. Easy to remember b. Higher number of characters c. Dictionary basis d. Keyboard complexity 39. Which of the following passwords is considered complex? a. M!croS0ft b. candybar01 c. bobj d. fred@local Scenario 2-1: Securing Mobile Computers You are an administrator for Contoso Corporation. You want to enhance the security of mobile computers by using multi-factor authentication without increasing costs. What solution would you suggest? What feature would you need in order to implement your solution? You should use virtual smart cards that will emulate traditional smart cards because most mobile devices will have a TPM chip, you can deploy a digital certificate with an enterprise Certificate authority. Then create the Virtual smart cards with the command Scenario 2-2: Allowing Personal Smartphones on the Corporate Network You are an administrator for your company’s Active Directory domain. Your manager has decided to allow users to use their own smartphones and tablets to access email and work documents. So what do you need to configure for users to use their own personal devices? Configure workplace join. Lesson 3, Migrating and Configuring User Data 1. Which folder does Windows use to store temporary files? a. C:Temp b. C:WindowsTemp c. C:WindowsSystem32Temp d. C:WindowsTemporary 2. Where can the offline files in Windows 10 be found? a. C:WindowsCSC b. C:WindowsOffline c. C:ProgramData d. C:WindowsSysWOW64 3. In which folder are the user profiles found? a. C:WindowsCSC b. C:WindowsUsers c. C:WindowsProfiles d. C:Users 4. Which of the following is a series of folders that are associated with specific user accounts that contain personal documents, user-specific registry settings, and Internet favorites? a. User hive b. User tree c. User container d. User profile 5. Which of the following does a user state include? (Choose all that apply.) a. Application data b. User data c. Program data d. User registry 6. Which folder is included in the separate user profiles? (Choose all that apply.) a. Figures b. System32 c. Favorites d. AppData e. Downloads 7. Which folder is included in the separate user profiles? (Choose all that apply.) a. Documents b. Desktop c. Favorites d. Music e. Downloads f. Movies 8. Which type of user profile is stored in the C:Users folder and is automatically created when a user logs on to the computer for the first time? a. Local user profile b. Hybrid user profile c. Mandatory user profile d. Roaming user profile 9. Which roaming profile version is found in Windows 10? a. V1 b. V2 c. V3 d. V4 e. V5 f. V10 10. Which extension does the mandatory user profile NTUser file have? a. .dat b. .man c. .lck d. .pst 11. Which of the following is the standard location for the Documents folder for the user JSmith? a. C:UsersJSmithDocuments b. C:UsersJSmithDocs c. C:JSmithDocs d. C:WindowsProfilesDocuments 12. The User State Migration Tool uses three XML files to perform targeted migrations. Which of the following files is not used by the User State Migration Tool? a. MigA b. MigS c. MigD d. MigU 13. Which of the following is the name of the User State Migration Tool that is used to restore files and settings on the target computer? a. LoadS b. SaveS c. ScanS d. UsmtU 14. Which of the following is used to migrate user data between two systems running Windows 7, 8/8.1, or 10? a. Profile Migrator b. Migrate Plus c. Roaming profiles d. User State Migration Tool 15. Which USMT component is used to copy the user files and settings into a centralized storage area? a. LoadState b. ScanState c. UsmtUtils d. CopyState 16. Which USMT component is used to copy the user files and settings from a centralized storage area to a user’s new system? a. LoadState b. ScanState c. UsmtUtils d. CopyState Short Answer 17. A collection of data and settings that pertain to each user is the _________. User State 18. List the type of profile that is stored in a shared server folder and is accessed from any computer the user logs on to within the corporation. Roaming User Profile 19. Name the roaming user profile version Windows 7 uses? V2 20. USMT has multiple command-line tools. List two tools that are used to migrate user data from one system to another system. S and loadS Best Answer 21. Which type of profile has settings that cannot be changed by a user? a. Locked user profile b. Mandatory user profile c. Roaming user profile d. Local user profile Scenario 3-1: Standardizing Sales Computers Your corporation has 20 computers that are used for demonstrations with clients. They are not part of the Active Directory domain, but the profile uses a roaming profile. You want to customize the look and feel of these machines. However, if a user changes the look and feel, you want to reset those settings back to the original settings during the next logon. What should you do? You can use mandatory user profile, which is just a read-only roaming user profile. To do so you just need to rename the N file to N. Scenario 3-2: Migrating User State Information Morris is responsible for planning the upgrading of Windows 7 to Windows 8.1 workstations to Windows 10. The deployment must be completed over a weekend. He will be performing a PC-Refresh scenario, installing the new operating system on the same computers and the same volume as the old one. The workstations have a lot of data to migrate to the new operating system because the users store their email and their document files there on local drives. Morris’ biggest problem is allotting the disk space needed for the migration stores. The deployment server cannot handle several gigabytes of user state data from each of 100 workstations, and the workstations have just one hard drive each, with a single volume that is nearly full. What storage solution can Morris use to support the deployment of large numbers of computers simultaneously? Create a hardlink migration store on the workstation, that will require a small amount of space. Lesson 4, Configuring Hyper-V 1. To utilize the Client Hyper-V feature in Windows 10, which of the following requirements must be met? (Choose all that apply.) a. Must be joined to a domain running at the Windows Server 2012 domain functional level b. Must have a 64-bit processor that incorporates second level address translation (SLAT) technology c. Must have a minimum of 4 GB of memory d. Must be using two or more SAS disk drives on separate storage buses 2. In Windows 10, which Hyper-V feature can be used to return to a known good previous state in the VM? a. Snapshot b. Rollback c. System Recovery d. Authoritative Restoration e. Checkpoint 3. Which of the following is the only type of virtual switch that allows communication between VMs and the physical computer they run on? a. External b. Internal c. Private d. Mixed 4. Which of the following types of virtual switch allows only communication between VMs on a computer? a. External b. Internal c. Private d. Mixed 5. Computer virtualization in Windows 10 is based on a module called the _________. a. Virtual architecture b. Hyper-v c. Hypervisor d. Virtual machine 6. What is the primary graphical tool for creating and managing virtual machines? a. Server Manager b. Hyper-V Manager c. Add Roles and Features Wizard d. PowerShell 7. In some cases, certain Hyper-V guest operating system features do not function properly using the OS’s own device drivers. What Hyper-V software package can help remedy compatibility issues? a. Resource metering b. Smart paging c. Guest integration services d. Hyper-V Server 8. The amount of memory that should be allocated to the VM when it starts is called _________. a. Startup RAM b. Minimum RAM c. Memory weight d. Memory buffer 9. Which tool can be used to modify a virtual hard disk? a. Use Edit Virtual Hard Disk Wizard in Hyper-V Manager. b. Select the Edit VHD dialog box in Hyper-V File Server. c. Use Edit Virtual Hard Disk Wizard in Add Users and Computers. d. Select Checkpoint from the Actions pane in Hyper-V Manager. 10. When choosing between disk types in the New Virtual Hard Disk Wizard, which type permits an image size up to 2 TB? a. VHDX b. VHS c. VHD d. DIVX 11. Which type of disk is simply part of the space on a physical disk and appears to the VM as a physical hard disk drive? a. Virtual hard disk b. Checkpoint c. Differencing disk d. Pass-through disk 12. Which of the following is the captured image of the state, data, and hardware configuration of a VM at a particular moment in time? a. Virtual hard disk b. Checkpoint c. Differencing disk d. Pass-through disk e. Snapshot 13. Which type of disk enables a user to preserve an existing virtual disk image file in its original state, while mounting it in an OS and even modifying its contents? a. Virtual hard disk b. Checkpoint c. Differencing disk d. Pass-through disk 14. In Hyper-V terminology, a virtual switch configured to provide connections external to the Hyper-V environment is called which of the following? a. External virtual network b. External network switch c. External switch d. Networked virtual switch 15. In Windows 10, the Hyper-V feature can be enabled in which of the following ways? a. Use Server Manager. b. Open the Turn Windows features on or off dialog box from Control Panel. c. Install the Hyper-V.exe program. d. Download the Hyper-V ISO and install Hyper-V from the mounted ISO file. 16. In Windows 10 Hyper-V, which type of switch allows communication with other VMs on the same computer, but does not allow communication with other computers? a. External b. Internal c. Private d. Shared Short Answer 17. In Hyper-V, a(n) _________ is a captured image of the state, data, and hardware configuration of a VM at a particular moment in time. Checkpoint 18 List how many types of virtual switches can be created by Hyper-V. Three Best Answer 19. What is the primary purpose of the software package offered by Hyper-V called guest integration services? a. Guest integration services improves communications between the VM and other VMs. b. Guest integration services resolves compatibility issues of certain guest operating systems running on the host. c. Guest integration services improves data exchange between the VM and the processors on video adapters. d. Guest integration services improves time synchronization between the host and the VM. 20. In Windows 10, a user is running a Hyper-V Windows 7 virtual machine. Unfortunately, the C drive is running out of disk space, and the user needs to expand the virtual machine disks. The user adds a second hard drive. Which option should be used to move the VM? a. Move the virtual machine’s data to a single location. b. Move the virtual machine’s data by selecting where to move the items. c. Move only the virtual machine. d. Expand the VM to a secondary location. Scenario 4-1: Modifying Virtual Disks You need to modify an existing VHD file. How do you proceed? Scenario 4-2: Isolating Server Applications You have two network accounting applications, neither of which is processor hungry. Both of these applications must be kept totally isolated from each other and from all other applications. Both applications will access a centralized database server. What server configuration solution do you recommend? Lesson 5, Supporting Mobility Options 1. To create a Windows To Go workspace on a USB drive, which minimum size USB drive is required? a. 16 GB b. 32 GB c. 64 GB d. 128 GB Difficulty: Easy Section Ref: Creating and Deploying a Windows To Go Workspace Drive Explanation: To create a Windows To Go workspace, you need a USB drive 32 GB or larger in size. You need to use a Windows 10 Enterprise edition computer to create a Windows To Go workspace USB. 2. Which of the following installation sources are acceptable for the creation of a Windows To Go workspace? (Choose all that apply.) a. A Windows 10 Enterprise ISO file b. A Windows 10 installation disc on optical media c. A Windows 10 .wim file d. A Windows 10 answer file Difficulty: Easy Section Ref: Creating and Deploying a Windows To Go Workspace Drive Explanation: To create a Windows To Go workspace, you need a Windows 10 Enterprise ISO, a Windows 10 Enterprise installation media, or a corporate Windows image (.wim) created from Windows 10 Enterprise media. 3. Which of the following hardware items is not compatible with Windows To Go workspaces? a. A USB hub b. USB 2.0 ports c. USB 3.0 ports d. 32-bit legacy BIOS (non-UEFI) Difficulty: Medium Section Ref: Booting into a Windows To Go Workspace Explanation: USB hubs are not supported; you must connect the drive directly to the host computer. 4. After successfully logging on to a Windows To Go workspace, which of the following conditions should a user expect to encounter? (Choose all that apply.) a. Printers on the host computer are not available. b. Internal disks on the host computer are not available. c. The Windows Store is not available. d. The Hibernate feature is not available. Difficulty: Easy Section Ref: Booting into a Windows To Go Workspace Explanation: Once you log on, you will notice the internal disks on the host system are offline to protect against accidental exposure of data. If you insert the USB drive into a system that is already running, you will also notice that it will not be listed in File Explorer. The Hibernate feature is disabled to prevent data corruption during roaming and the Windows Store is disabled by default. The Windows Store application is disabled because applications licensed through the store are linked to your hardware. 5. Which of the following can the utility be used to accomplish that can be accomplished in no other way? a. Export and import power management plans. b. Modify power management settings for an entire network. c. Modify power management settings for multiple computers. d. Add new options to the Power Options control panel. Difficulty: Medium Section Ref: Configuring P Explanation: One of the most valuable capabilities of is the ability to export entire power management plans to a file, and then import them on another computer. 6. Which two steps must be executed with to export power plans from a computer? a. Enter –list and make a note of the listed GUIDs. b. Enter –list and make a note of the listed names. c. Enter -export GUID. d. Enter -export NAME. Difficulty: Easy Section Ref: Configuring P Explanation: You need to first list the power plans, note the GUID, and then export the desired plan(s) by GUID. 7. Which power plan is not shown by default in the Power Options control panel? a. Power Saver b. Balanced c. High Performance d. All power plans are shown by default in the Power Options control panel. Difficulty: Medium Section Ref: Working with Power Plans Explanation: The Power Options control panel does not display the High Performance plan by default. You must click the Show additional plans down arrow for it to appear. 8. Which power plan on a portable Windows 10 system puts the computer to sleep after 15 minutes? a. Power Saver (AC) b. Balanced (AC) c. Balanced (Battery) d. High Performance (AC) Difficulty: Medium Section Ref: Working with Power Plans Explanation: The Power Saver (AC) power plan puts the computer to sleep after 15 minutes. 9. Which power plan on a portable Windows 10 system dims the display after 5 minutes? a. Power Saver (AC) b. Balanced (AC) c. Balanced (Battery) d. High Performance (AC) Difficulty: Medium Section Ref: Working with Power Plans Explanation: The Balanced (Battery) power plan dims the display after 5 minutes. 10. Which power plan on a portable Windows 10 system dims the display after 10 minutes? a. Power Saver (AC) b. Balanced (AC) c. Balanced (Battery) d. High Performance (AC) Difficulty: Medium Section Ref: Working with Power Plans Explanation: The High Performance (AC) power plan dims the display after 10 minutes. 11. Which power plan on a portable Windows 10 system sets the Maximum processor state value to 70%? a. Power Saver (AC) b. Balanced (AC) c. Balanced (Battery) d. High Performance (AC) Difficulty: Medium Section Ref: Working with Power Plans Explanation: The Balanced (Battery) power plan sets the Maximum processor state value to 70%. 12. Which Windows 10 power-saving mode uses a little bit of power to maintain memory to quickly restore back to the previous state without rebooting the computer? a. Sleep mode b. Hibernate mode c. Hybrid mode d. Dynamic mode Difficulty: Easy Section Ref: Configuring Power Settings Explanation: Sleep mode is a low-power mode for computers that uses a minimum amount of power so that the system can be quickly restored back to the previous state without rebooting the computer. 13. Which of the following is known as Stand By mode, Suspend mode, or Suspend to RAM? a. Sleep mode b. Hibernate mode c. Hybrid mode d. Dynamic mode Difficulty: Medium Section Ref: Configuring Power Settings Explanation: For older versions of Windows and other operating systems, sleep mode can be referred to as Stand By mode, Suspend mode, or Suspend to RAM. 14. Which Windows 10 power-saving mode saves all computer operational data to the hard drive before turning the computer completely off? a. Sleep mode b. Hibernate mode c. Hybrid mode d. Dynamic mode Difficulty: Medium Section Ref: Configuring Power Settings Explanation: Hibernate mode saves all computer operational data on the hard disk to a hibernation file (H) before turning the computer completely off. When the computer is turned back on, the computer is restored to its previous state with all programs and files open and unsaved data intact. 15. Which of the following is referred to as suspend to disk? a. Sleep mode b. Hibernate mode c. Hybrid mode d. Dynamic mode Difficulty: Medium Section Ref: Configuring Power Settings Explanation: Hibernate mode saves all computer operational data on the hard disk to a hibernation file (H) before turning the computer completely off. In other words, hibernate mode is a suspend to disk. 16. Which Windows 10 low-power mode writes information to the hibernation file, and then enters a sleep state that allows for a fast wake time? a. Sleep mode b. Hibernate mode c. Hybrid mode d. Dynamic mode Difficulty: Medium Section Ref: Configuring Power Settings Explanation: Hybrid mode is a combination of sleep mode and hibernate mode. Hybrid mode writes information to the hibernation file when the computer enters a sleep state, which allows for a fast wake time. If the system loses power completely and suddenly, you can restore operations from the hibernation file. 17. Where in Control Panel can users find quick access to settings most commonly adjusted by mobile computer users? a. Hardware and Sound b. Windows Mobility Center c. Mobile Computer Settings d. Device Manager Difficulty: Medium Section Ref: Using Windows Mobility Center Explanation: Windows Mobility Center provides users with quick access to the configuration settings most commonly adjusted by mobile computer users. Windows Mobility Center is a shell application. It performs no special functions of its own; it simply provides a central point of access for many of the configuration settings that mobile computer users need frequently. These settings are located in various Control Panel applets, but placing them in a single window enables users to make adjustments quickly and easily. This is particularly beneficial to business users who give presentations with their portable computers. 18. By default, eight tiles appear in the Windows Mobility Center. Which of the following items does not appear by default here? a. Sync Center b. External Display c. Brightness d. User Accounts Difficulty: Medium Section Ref: Using Windows Mobility Center Explanation: The eight tiles that can appear in the Windows Mobility Center are as follows: • Brightness • Volume • Battery Status • Screen Orientation • External Display • Sync Center • Presentation Settings Short Answer 19. Describe what happens to the computer’s internal storage subsystem when booting from a Windows To Go device. Answer: It is disabled. Difficulty: Medium Section Ref: Booting into a Windows To Go Workspace Explanation: Once Windows 10 is loaded from the Windows To Go drive/device, the storage subsystem on the host computer is disabled, so that no remnants of the Windows To Go environment are left on that computer. Users can, therefore, load Windows To Go on any computer, without worrying about leaving any confidential information behind, and enterprise administrators can permit temporary visitors to use their own computers. 20. _________ is the command-line program for the Windows 10 power management system. Answer: P Difficulty: Medium Section Ref: Configuring P Explanation: P is the command-line program for the Windows 10 power management system. As the most comprehensive power management interface, can configure settings that are not available from Control Panel or in Group Policy. Best Answer 21. Suppose a user has a laptop that she uses when moving from building to building within a corporation. She needs to save battery power so that it can last a long time, but she wants her applications and data open where she left off last time. Which Windows 10 power-saving mode should she use? a. Sleep mode b. Hibernate mode c. Hybrid mode d. Dynamic mode Difficulty: Medium Section Ref: Configuring Power Settings Explanation: Hybrid mode is a combination of sleep mode and hibernate mode. Hybrid mode writes information to the hibernation file when the computer enters a sleep state, which allows for a fast wake time. If the system loses power completely and suddenly, you can restore operations from the hibernation file. Scenario 5-1: Saving Power You are an administrator for the Contoso Corporation. Your manager says that there is a need to save money when possible and he notices that at night, many computers are still on. He started to realize how much power all of these computers consume when they are not in use. Therefore, he wants you to come up with a solution to automatically put the computers to sleep when they are not being used. What do you propose? You need to enable GPO with GPP, adding a power scheme preference item including turn off the monitor when not in use. Link that GPO to the specific client Scenario 5-2: Booting to a Corporate Windows Image You have multiple people who work from their own home offices. Your manager decides that these users can use their own personal computers as long as they boot from a corporate disk image. What would you recommend that would not delete or change the users’ personal systems? Use windows to go workspace through an external usb drive. Lesson 6, Supporting and Managing Devices with Microsoft Intune 1. Which version of System Center Configuration Manager can be integrated with Microsoft Intune in a unified configuration? (Choose all that apply.) a. System Center 2016 Configuration Manager b. System Center 2012 Configuration Manager Service Pack 1 c. System Center 2007 Configuration Manager d. System Center 2010 Configuration Manager Service Pack 1 Difficulty: Easy Section Ref: Configuring the Microsoft Intune Connector Site System Role Explanation: Microsoft Intune can be operated in cloud-only mode or in a new unified configuration option that integrates the cloud-based environment with Microsoft System Center 2012 Configuration Manager with Service Pack 1 and newer. 2. Which of the following operating systems support the installation of the Microsoft Intune client software? (Choose all that apply.) a. Windows 7 Enterprise b. iOS 5 c. Windows XP Professional d. Windows RT e. Windows 10 Difficulty: Easy Section Ref: Enrolling Devices Explanation: You can install the Microsoft Intune client on computers running Windows XP Professional (SP3), Windows Vista (Enterprise, Ultimate, or Business Edition), Windows 7 (Enterprise, Ultimate, or Professional), Windows 8/8.1 (Professional and Enterprise), and Windows 10 (Professional and Enterprise). You can deploy the Microsoft Intune client on both physical computers and virtual machines. 3. Which conditions must users meet to self-enroll their computers in Microsoft Intune? (Choose all that apply.) a. They must be a local administrator on the computer. b. They must connect to the Microsoft Intune portal using Internet Explorer. c. They must use a Microsoft Online ID. d. They must be members of the Computer Operators domain security group. Difficulty: Medium Section Ref: Enrolling Devices Explanation: If you want to allow your users to self-enroll their computers, they would need to be an administrator on the local computer, connect to the Microsoft Intune portal using an Internet Explorer browser, and use a Microsoft Online ID. 4. Which Microsoft Intune administrative role has full control and rights regarding the Administrative console? a. Microsoft Intune Console Administrator b. Microsoft Intune Tenant Administrator c. Microsoft Intune Client Administrator d. Microsoft Intune Service Administrator Difficulty: Medium Section Ref: Understanding Microsoft Intune Administrator Roles Explanation: The Microsoft Intune Tenant Administrator role has full control and rights regarding the Administrator console. Tenant Administrators can add or delete service administrator accounts and assign other Tenant Administrators. 5. Which of the following can be used with Microsoft Intune to quickly organize and manage computers and users? a. Domain Global Security Groups b. Microsoft Intune Groups c. Domain Universal Distribution Groups d. Microsoft Intune Collections Difficulty: Easy Section Ref: Managing User and Computer Groups Explanation: To make the process of deploying Microsoft Intune policies, software packages, and software updates more efficient, consider using Microsoft Intune Groups. 6. Which of the following groups is not a default group created when Microsoft Intune is initially set up? a. Ungrouped Users b. Ungrouped Devices c. Lost Devices d. All Mobile Devices Difficulty: Easy Section Ref: Managing User and Computer Groups Explanation: There is no “Lost Devices” group. 7. Microsoft Intune has three different methods of creating groups. Which of the following is not one of those methods? a. Direct b. Criteria c. Mixed d. Query-based Difficulty: Easy Section Ref: Managing User and Computer Groups Explanation: When setting up a group in Microsoft Intune, you have the option to manually (direct) or dynamically (criteria) add users or devices to a group. You can also take a mixed approach and use both methods when creating a group. 8. After performing an installation of the Microsoft Intune client on a computer, which of the following is the typical expected maximum amount of time it should take for the new computer to complete the inventory and status updates processes? a. 5 minutes b. 60 minutes c. 15 minutes d. 30 minutes Difficulty: Easy Section Ref: Enrolling Devices Explanation: The computer should appear in the Microsoft Intune Administrator console in a few minutes, but it can take up to 30 minutes to complete the inventory and status updates process. 9. Several configurable items are in the company Microsoft Intune portal. Which of the following items can be configured? (Choose all that apply.) a. Company name b. Company logo c. Support website URL d. Theme colors Difficulty: Medium Section Ref: Configuring the Company Portal Explanation: When customizing the portal, information that can be customized includes: • Company name • IT department contact name • IT department phone number • IT department email address • Additional Information (such as hours of operation) • Support website URL • Theme color 10. You have around 100 machines running Windows 10 that is being managed by Microsoft Intune. You want to run a report that shows the software that is on the machines. Which formats are available to provide the report in? (Choose all that apply.) a. Export to CSV b. Export to PDF c. Export to HTML d. Export to ACCDB Difficulty: Easy Section Ref: Reviewing Software Assets Explanation: You can view the information, print it out, or export it to a CSV or HTML file for further analysis. 11. Which of the following policy templates are used in Microsoft Intune policies? (Choose two answers.) a. Windows Firewall Settings b. SkyDrive/OneDrive Policies c. Office365 Policies d. Microsoft Intune Center Settings Difficulty: Medium Section Ref: Supporting Microsoft Intune Policies Explanation: When you create a Microsoft Intune policy, you can choose from the policy templates that are displayed in the list of templates in the left pane: • Mobile Device Security Policy • Windows Firewall Settings • Microsoft Intune Agent Settings • Microsoft Intune Center Settings 12. A user wants to configure Windows Firewall on Windows tablets that are part of her domain and that are managed through Microsoft Intune. Which of the following is the best way to manage these settings? a. Use Group Policy. b. Use a Microsoft Intune policy. c. Use both Group Policy and a Microsoft Intune policy. d. Use Group Policy or a Microsoft Intune policy, but not both. Difficulty: Medium Section Ref: Supporting Microsoft Intune Policies Explanation: Because Group Policy can be used to set many of the same settings, when you deploy Microsoft Intune client software and establish Microsoft Intune policies, you need to ensure that the clients do not receive GPOs with similar and/or conflicting settings. 13. A user wants to enroll devices in Microsoft Intune. Which of the following is the first step he should perform? a. Enroll devices. b. Set up Mobile Device Management Authority for Microsoft Intune. c. Set up direct management for mobile devices. d. Provision users for device enrollment. Difficulty: Medium Section Ref: Enrolling Devices Explanation: To enroll devices, you need to perform the following steps: 1. Set the Mobile Device Management Authority for Microsoft Intune. 2. Set up direct management for mobile devices. 3. Provision users for device enrollment. 4. Enroll devices. 14. To enroll an Apple iPhone in Microsoft Intune, which of the following must be requested from Apple? a. An Apple Push Notification Service certificate b. An Apple company portal app from Apple Play c. An Apple Download certificate d. An Apple Identification certificate Difficulty: Medium Section Ref: Enrolling Devices Explanation: To enroll iOS devices, you need to obtain an Apple Push Notification Service certificate, which enables Microsoft Intune to securely communicate with the Apple Push Notification Service. To obtain an Apple Push Notification, you must download the Certificate Signing Request from Microsoft Intune and then request an Apple Push Notification Service certificate from the Apple website. 15. An administrator has a mobile computer that she is managing with Microsoft Intune. The employee who was using the computer was terminated and the administrator needs to ensure that all data is removed from the laptop. What should be done? a. Retire the computer with Microsoft Intune. b. Wipe the computer with Microsoft Intune. c. Send a virus to the computer. d. Reset the PIN for the laptop Difficulty: Medium Section Ref: Viewing and Managing All Managed Devices Explanation: Because mobile devices can carry sensitive information, and have a higher chance of being lost or stolen as compared with desktop computers, Microsoft Intune allows you to selective wipe, full wipe, remote lock, and passcode reset mobile devices. The retire option only removes the company data; the wipe will reset the device. So the retire is best because you need only to remove the company data. Short Answer 16. Name the Microsoft cloud-based client management solution for managing computers, tablets, and phones. Answer: Microsoft Intune Difficulty: Easy Section Ref: Supporting and Managing Devices with Microsoft Intune Explanation: Microsoft Intune is an integrated, cloud-based client management solution for managing computers, tablets, and phones. A full wipe restores the device to its factory defaults for Windows Phone, iOS, and Android devices. A select wipe removes only company data. 17. List how many alert types there are in Microsoft Intune. Answer: Over 180 Difficulty: Easy Section Ref: Configuring Microsoft Intune Monitoring and Alerts Explanation: There are over 180 alert types available in Microsoft Intune. Based on your organization’s needs, you can enable the alert types you think are important and disable those that are not appropriate for your network environment. 18. Name the technology that is used to make the connection to mobile devices when using Microsoft Intune to manage mobile devices. Answer: ActiveSync Difficulty: Easy Section Ref: Supporting and Managing Devices with Microsoft Intune Explanation: You can manage your mobile devices and computers through a web-based console anywhere at any time through Exchange ActiveSync and System Center 2012 Configuration Manager. 19. Describe what happens in the background after the Microsoft Intune client is initially installed. Answer: Updates and additional configuration Difficulty: Hard Section Ref: Enrolling Devices Explanation: After the installation has completed, the protection and update agents continue to perform additional setup and configuration steps. This includes downloading the required malware definitions and any other agent updates. 20. List the Microsoft Intune administrative role that cannot modify data in the console but instead can only view the data it contains and run reports. Answer: Microsoft Intune Service Administrator Difficulty: Hard Section Ref: Understanding Microsoft Intune Administrator Roles Explanation: The Microsoft Intune Service Administrator role has full access to the Microsoft Intune Administrator console and can perform all operations, including adding or deleting another Service Administrator account. Service Administrators cannot modify data in the console, but instead can only view the data it contains and run reports. 21. Identify the URL for the Microsoft Intune account portal. Answer: Difficulty: Hard Section Ref: Understanding Microsoft Intune Administrator Roles Explanation: The Microsoft Intune account portal is located at . 22. Describe whether Microsoft Intune Groups are recursive or not recursive regarding their members. Answer: Recursive Difficulty: Hard Section Ref: Managing User and Computer Groups Explanation: Group membership is recursive. This means that if you use a dynamic membership query and set the criteria that a user is a member of an AD DS security group named “Marketing” to be included in the group, you can pick up additional indirect users in the query. For example, if Mary is a member of the Marketing Interns security group and the Marketing Interns security group is a member of the Marketing security group, then she is included in your query and added to the Marketing group. 23. When defining direct membership, you have the option to _________ or _________ specific members from groups you specify. Answer: include, exclude Difficulty: Easy Section Ref: Managing User and Computer Groups Explanation: When defining direct membership, you have the option to include or exclude specific members from groups you specify. Best Answer 24. Which Microsoft Intune report would be best to obtain information about the software updates that succeeded or failed? a. Detected Software Reports b. Update Reports c. Computer Inventory Reports d. License Installation Reports Difficulty: Easy Section Ref: Managing Remote Computers with Microsoft Intune Explanation: Update Reports provide information about software updates that succeeded, failed, and are currently pending, or those that are needed on computers in your organization. 25 Which Microsoft Intune report would be best to obtain information about the software that is installed versus what is licensed? a. Detected Software Reports b. License Purchase Reports c. Computer Inventory Reports d. License Installation Reports Difficulty: Easy Section Ref: Managing Remote Computers with Microsoft Intune Explanation: License Installation Reports compare installed software with your current licensing agreement. 26. Which Microsoft Intune report would be best to get information about the software that is installed on specific computers? a. Detected Software Reports b. License Purchase Reports c. Computer Inventory Reports d. License Installation Reports Difficulty: Easy Section Ref: Managing Remote Computers with Microsoft Intune Explanation: Detected Software Reports provide information about software installed on computers in your organization. Scenario 6-1: Managing Computers You are an administrator for the Contoso Corporation and you manage about 150 client computers. Many of these computers are used outside the office. Describe the best way to install software as needed and perform inventory. You should subscribe the computers to Microsoft Intune, to manage mobile devices and computers over the internet. Scenario 6-2: Managing Your Mobile Devices You are an administrator for the Contoso Corporation and your manager has just issued a Bring Your Own Device policy where users can use their own personal devices to access corporate resources. Describe how to ensure that those mobile devices have a minimum security policy while allowing you to manage the devices as needed. REVIEW FOR TEST 2 Lesson 7, Deploying Software Updates by Using Microsoft Intune 1. Which of the following can be created so that Microsoft Intune will automatically approve the installation of all critical and security updates as soon as Microsoft releases them? a. Automatic Approval rules b. Approval scopes c. Update Installation rules d. Automatic Installation scopes Section Ref: Configuring Automatic Approval Settings Explanation: Creating Automatic Approval rules can help streamline the management of your computers. When you create a rule, Microsoft Intune automatically approves installation of all critical and security updates as soon as Microsoft releases them. This ensures your clients are updated as soon as possible. 2. By default, how frequently do Microsoft Intune agents check for updates? a. Every 8 hours b. Every 12 hours c. Every 11 hours d. Every 22 hours Section Ref: Configuring Automatic Approval Settings Explanation: By default, the Microsoft Intune agent checks in every 8 hours for updates. 3. Which two methods can be used to determine which updates need to be approved and deployed? a. Use the Intune console. b. Use the Intune alerts. c. Use the Intune status screen. d. Use Intune reports. Section Ref: Using Reports and In-Console Monitoring to Manage Updates Explanation: Because updates can cause problems with Windows or other applications, you might want to review and manage certain updates closely before approving and deploying them. You can use the Microsoft Intune console and reports to determine which updates need to be deployed. 4. In Microsoft Intune, which of the following happen when an update is declined? (Choose three answers.) a. The update is hidden in default views. b. Any associated reported data is lost. c. It changes the update priority to Ultra Low. d. All approvals for the update are removed. Section Ref: Using Reports and In-Console Monitoring to Manage Updates Explanation: When you decline an update: • All approvals for the update are removed. • The update is hidden in default views in the Updates console. • Any associated reported data is lost. 5. In Microsoft Intune, what is used to specify that an update will be installed automatically when a certain date is reached? a. Terminate date b. End date c. Required date d. Deadline Section Ref: Configuring Deadlines for Update Installations Explanation: When you configure updates, you can specify a deadline, which forces an update to be installed on a system during or after a specified time. When you configure an Automatic Update Approval rule, you can specify an installation deadline for the updates by selecting the Enforce an installation deadline for these updates check box, and then on the Installation deadline list, selecting the installation deadline. 6. An administrator has about a hundred computers being managed by Microsoft Intune. A critical update from the Widget Corporation needs to be deployed. What should be done? a. Deploy the updates with the other Microsoft updates. b. Use the Microsoft Intune Software Publisher to deploy the third-party update. c. Configure an automatic update in Microsoft Intune. d. Create a link from the Microsoft Intune console to the third-party update service. Section Ref: Deploying Third-Party Updates Explanation: To deploy a third-party update, Microsoft Intune provides an Add Updates task to the Updates console, which starts the Microsoft Intune Software Publisher. Microsoft Intune Software Publisher is a component within Microsoft Intune that allows you to select a software installer type that will either upload apps (programs for computers or apps for mobile devices) to be stored in Microsoft Intune cloud storage or link to an online store or web application. Short Answer 7. List the extensions that the System Center Updates Publisher used in Microsoft Intune supports? Answer: .msi, .msp, and .exe Difficulty: Hard Section Ref: Deploying Third-Party Updates Explanation: You can use Microsoft Intune to deploy updates from third-party vendors. You can download an update file (.msi, .msp, or .exe) from the vendor and use Microsoft Intune to install it just as it would install any other application. Microsoft Intune allows you to add updates to the Microsoft Intune Updates workspace, which allows you to manage third-party updates just as you would with Microsoft updates. Best Answer 8. Several hundred users are being managed by Microsoft Intune. What is the best way to deploy updates to a few test machines to make sure that the updates do not cause problems? a. Manually deploy the updates from Microsoft Intune. b. Configure Microsoft Intune automatic updates to deploy the updates. c. Run Windows updates manually. d. Configure Windows updates to run automatically. Section Ref: Deploying Software Updates by Using Microsoft Intune Explanation: In Microsoft Intune, updates are managed via the Updates workspace. When you are in the Updates workspace, you can view any pending updates, approve or decline updates, configure the automatic approval settings, and set the deadline for update installation in Automatic Update Approval rules. From the workspace, you can approve both Microsoft updates and non-Microsoft updates. Scenario 7-1: Updating Client Computers You administer a network in which several users work out of state and are not connected to the corporate network often. In addition, some of these users use personal computers. You need to ensure that these users keep their computers up to date. Describe how to keep these computers up to date with the newest Windows and Office updates. Lesson 8, Configuring IP Settings 1. How many bits in length is an IPv4 address? a. 16 bits b. 32 bits c. 64 bits d. 128 bits Section Ref: Exploring the IPv4 and IPv6 Protocols Explanation: IPv4 addresses are 32 bits in length. 2. Which of the following is the correct binary representation of the IP address 192.168.0.2? a. ... b. ... c. ... d. ... Section Ref: Exploring the IPv4 and IPv6 Protocols Explanation: ... correctly represents 192.168.0.2 in binary. 3. Which IPv4 IP class provides for 126 unique networks, each having up to 16,777,214 hosts? a. Class A b. Class B c. Class C d. Class D Section Ref: Exploring the IPv4 and IPv6 Protocols Explanation: Class A networks provide for 126 unique networks, each having up to 16,777,214 hosts. 4. The IP address of 10.240.0.0 with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.0 represents which of the following? a. A loopback address b. A network address c. A broadcast address d. A multicast address Section Ref: Exploring the IPv4 and IPv6 Protocols Explanation: An IP address with all 0s in the host ID describes the network. In this case, the host ID portion of the address is the last octet. 5. The Windows operating system supports three name-resolution systems. Which of the following is not a name-resolution system? a. Domain Name System b. Address Resolution Protocol c. Windows Internet Name Service d. Link Local Multicast Name Resolution Section Ref: Understanding Name Resolution Explanation: Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) is a resolution protocol, but for MAC addresses instead of host names. ARP is supported on all versions of Windows. 6. Which of the following would be considered a second-level domain? a. .com b. c. d. Section Ref: Understanding Name Resolution Explanation: Second-level domains include a top-level domain (.com, .org, etc.) and a unique name within that top-level domain (, , etc.). 7. Which of the following DNS resource record types depend on the existence of a host A record in order to provide their intended function? (Choose all that apply.) a. AAAA b. NS c. PTR d. MX Section Ref: Understanding Name Resolution Explanation: CNAME (alias), MX (mail exchanger), SRV (service), and NS (name server) resource records all point to host A records—these records can’t be created or implemented correctly without the underlying host A records that actually provide the name to IP resolution. 8. Regarding iterative and recursive DNS queries, which two of the following statements are correct? a. An iterative query is a call to a name server to reply with the requested data or tell it who else to talk to in order to find an answer to its request. b. A recursive query is a call to a name server to reply with the requested data or tell it who else to talk to in order to find an answer to its request. c. An iterative query places the entire responsibility for answering the query on the name server itself. d. A recursive query places the entire responsibility for answering the query on the name server itself. Section Ref: Understanding Name Resolution Explanation: When a computer uses a recursive query, it is putting the entire responsibility on the other computer to find the IP address. An iterative query is a call to a name server to reply with the requested data or tell it who else to talk to in order to find an answer to its request. 9. When would an LLMNR client use LLMNR instead of other forms of name resolution? a. Only when the primary DNS server is unreachable b. Only when an APIPA IP address is configured c. Only when the primary and secondary DNS servers are unreachable d. Only at boot to map the network for nearby IPv6 computers Section Ref: Understanding Name Resolution Explanation: An LLMNR client tries to reach its primary and secondary DNS servers and