HESI A2 ANATOMY FILES

HESI A2 ANATOMY & PHYSIOLOGY PRACTICE QUESTION AND ANSWERS 1. What is a clear, watery fluid found in the anterior and posterior chambers of the eye? A. Vitreous humor B. Ciliary body C. Lacrimal gland D. Aqueous humor Answer: D Rationale: Aqueous humor is a clear, watery fluid similar in composition to blood plasma and is commonly found in the anterior and posterior chambers. The posterior cavity, located dorsal to the lens, contains the (A) vitreous humor, a thick, clear, gelatinous fluid. The (B) ciliary body is the structure of the eye that releases the aqueous humor. The (C) lacrimal gland continually secretes tears which moisten, lubricate, and protect the surface of the eyes. 2. What is correct about the aqueous humor? A. It balances absorption and pressure in the anterior chamber B. It is secreted by the epithelium of the ciliary bodies C. Its inability to circulate freely can cause elevated intraocular pressure D. All of the above Answer: D Rationale: All three choices describe how the aqueous fluid forms and circulates in the eye. The aqueous humor’s inability to absorb could develop into an increased intraocular pressure which may lead to blindness when the pressure is transmitted to the vitreous humor. 3. All of the following are phagocytes EXCEPT: A. Neutrophil B. Lymphocytes C. Eosinophil D. Monocytes Answer: B Rationale: (A) Neutrophils are capable of phagocytosis, or destruction of bacteria. (B) Lymphocytes offer mediate immune responses, including antigen-antibody reactions. (C) Eosinophils are phagocytes that protect you from parasites. (D) Monocytes are phagocytes that defend against bacteria and viruses. 4. When a person is seen walking in heels, the ankle is described as being in what position? A. Plantar flexion B. Dorsiflexion C. Eversion D. Abduction Answer: A Rationale: (A) Plantar flexion is the movement which decreases the angle between the sole of the foot and the back of the leg, like ballerinas dancing. (B).Dorsiflexion decreases the angle between the dorsum of the foot and the leg (C) Eversion is a turning outward or inside out, such as a turning of the foot outward at the ankle. (D) Abduction refers to a motion that pulls a body part away from the midline, like abducting your arms when you open them out like a bird. 5. Which of the following statements best illustrates a correct anatomical position? A. Standing erect without moving facing down and thumbs pointing towards the body B. Standing erect with palms facing forward and thumbs pointing away from the body C. Standing erect with palms facing forward and thumbs pointing towards the body D. Standing erect with palms facing down and thumbs pointing away from the body Answer: B Rationale: A correct anatomical position is exactly as described in answer choice B. This position is used as a reference to describe sites, motions, body planes and regions. 6. A frontal section divides the body into: A. Right and left parts B. Anterior and posterior parts C. Midsagittal and median section D. Superior and inferior parts Answer: B Rationale: Frontal or coronal plane divide the body into front and back (also called dorsal and ventral or posterior and anterior) sections. (A) describes the sagittal or lateral plane, a left to right cut. (C) explains that the plane may be in the centre of the body and split it into two halves (midsagittal). (D) refers to transverse planes, also known as the axial or horizontal planes, dividing the body into top and bottom parts. The top and bottom sections also called the superior and inferior sections. 7. Which of the following is seen mostly inside the epiphyses of each long bone? A. Yellow marrow B. Cartilage C. Spongy bone D. Compact bone Answer: C Rationale: A typical long bone has epiphyses which are at the ends of the bone, and consist of internal spongy bone covered by an outer layer of (D) compact bone. (A) Yellow marrow, which is mainly made up of fat cells, are found inside a hollow medullary cavity of the tubular bone shaft and not the epiphyses. (B) Cartilage is found between bones. 8. Which of the following is true about the trochanter? A. It is attached to the lower part of the radius B. It is attached to the lower part of ulna C. It is attached to the upper part of the tibia D. it is attached to the upper part of the femur Answer: D Rationale: Trochanter is a very large, blunt, upper part of the femur which connects to the hip. (A) describes a connection a bone in the lower arm. (B) also describes connection the arm and (C) describes a connection to the lower leg, below the knee. 9. Which of the following statements are true about bone markings? A. Bone markings are projections, depressions and openings found in the surface of the bones. B. They serve as sites of muscle, ligament and tendon attachment C. The openings serve as passages of blood vessels and nerves D. All of the above Answer: D Rationale: Bone markings are projections, depressions, and openings found on the surface of bones that function as sites of muscle, ligament, and tendon attachment, as joint surfaces, and as openings for the passage of blood vessels and nerves. 10. In order to achieve normal bone growth and development, the following factors are essential EXCEPT: A. High fat diet B. Growth hormone C. Sex hormones D. Vitamins A, C, and D Answer: A Rationale: Having a high fat diet has nothing to do with bone growth and development. (B) Growth hormones stimulates division of cartilage cells in the epiphyseal disks, thereby lack or excess of these hormones could result to dwarfism or gigantism. (C) Sex hormones promote formation of bone tissue. (D) Vitamin A is necessary for osteoblast and osteoclast activity during normal development, Vitamin C is required for collagen synthesis, and Vitamin D is necessary for proper absorption of calcium in the small intestine. In the absence of this vitamin, calcium is poorly absorbed, and the inorganic salt portion of bone matrix lacks calcium, which then softens and deforms bones. 11. A person who suffered a traumatic injury in the inguinal area is most likely to die due to a hemorrhage because of a severed: A. Femoral artery B. Popliteal artery C. Carotid artery D. Brachial artery Answer: A Rationale: The inguinal area is around the groin area: near the lower abdomen and thigh. The femoral artery is a large artery in the thigh and the main blood supply to the lower limb. (B) The popliteal artery is located in the knee and the back of the leg. The carotid artery (C) is located in the neck. Brachial artery (D) is a major blood vessel of the upper arm. 12. Which of the following is correct about the epicardium? A. It is the pacemaker of the heart B. It lines the heart chambers C. It is the visceral epicardium D. It is also known as the parietal pericardium Answer: C Rationale: The inner part of the pericardium that closely envelops the heart is, as stated, the epicardium; it is also called the visceral pericardium. The pacemaker of the heart is the sinoatrial node (A). The endocardium is the innermost layer of tissue that lines the chambers of the heart (B). The parietal pericardium is the outer layer of the pericardium which is a conical sac of fibrous tissue that surrounds the heart and the roots of the great blood vessels (D). 13. The nursing student was instructed to palpate the carotid artery. Where is the carotid artery located? A. Halfway between the shoulder and hand; in the middle of the inner arm B. Upper neck between the sternomastoid and trachea C. The inner thigh, at the mid-inguinal point D. In front of the tragus of the ear and up along the temple Answer: B Rationale: The correct location of the carotid artery during palpation is at the upper neck between the sternocleidomastoid and trachea. (A) describes the brachial artery. (C) describes the femoral artery. (D) describes the temporal artery. 14. What artery supplies blood to the structures of the neck and face? A. Axillary artery B. Brachial artery C. Carotid artery D. Femoral artery Answer: C Rationale: The external carotid artery supplies the areas of the head and neck external to the cranium. (A) supplies blood to the axilla (armpit) and the upper limb. (B) supplies blood to the elbow joint, the forearm, and the hand. (D) The femoral artery supplies blood to the lower limb and is located in the thigh region. 15. Which of the following is correct about the cerumen? A. It provides protection to the ear from bacteria, fungus, insects and water. B. Impacted cerumen can lead to dizziness and motion sickness. C. It is produced by the vibrations in the ear drum. D. It is found in the inner ear drum. Answer: A Rationale: Cerumen, or earwax, can provide protection from bacteria, fungus, insects and water. (B) Impacted cerumen can lead to hearing loss and not dizziness or motion sickness. (C) Cerumen earwax is produced by glands and not vibrations. (D) Cerumen is made by the body in the outer ear canal, in front of the eardrum, not inside. 16. Chemoreceptor stimulation is associated with regulation of: A. Breathing B. Pain control C. Temperature D. Blood pressure Answer: A Rationale: Breathing is regulated by the concentration of carbon dioxide and oxygen in the blood which is what chemoreceptors detect. (B) The limbic system regulates pain. (C) The hypothalamus regulates body temperature. (D) Baroreceptors regulate blood pressure. 17. The three chambers, or scalae, that make up the interior of the cochlea are: A. Upper Vestibular Canal, Lower Tympanic Canal, and Cochlear Duct B. Perilymph, Endolymph and Cochlear Duct C. Upper Vestibular Canal, Lower Tympanic Canal, and Organ of Corti D. Lower Tympanic Canal, Cochlear Duct and Organ of Corti Answer: A Rationale: The two large chambers include the upper vestibular canal and lower tympanic canal, and are separated by a smaller chamber called the cochlear duct. (B) Perilymph and Endolymph are both fluids and not chambers/cavities. (C) and (D) are incorrect because the organ of corti is not a chamber but an organ that transfers sound. 18. The other name for eardrum is: A. Cochlea B. Organ of Corti C. Tympanic membrane D. Outer ear Answer: C Rationale: The eardrum is also called tympanic membrane. (A) is the auditory portion of the inner ear; Organ of Corti (B) is the sensitive element in the inner ear and can be thought as the body’s microphone. The outer ear (Choice D) consists of the pinna, or auricle, and the ear canal. 19. Fertilization usually occurs in the: A. Uterus B. Fallopian tubes C. Ovaries D. Zygote Answer: B Rationale: The fallopian tubes is the site of human fertilization. (A) The uterus is the location postfertilization not the actual site of fertilization. (C) Ovaries produce ova or eggs. (D) A zygote is a diploid cell; an already fertilized ovum. 20. The life span of a normal RBC is approximately: A. 120 days B. 13 to 20 days C. 8 to 9 days D. 30 days Answer: B Rationale: The lifespan of a normal RBC is approximately 120 days. As it ages, the cell becomes rigid and fragile and finally succumbs to phagocytosis in the spleen or liver and is broken down into globin and heme. 21. The red blood cell, _________, carries oxygen to and from the tissues and contains the pigment hemoglobin. A. Leukocyte B. Monocyte C. Granulocyte D. Erythrocyte Answer: D Rationale: The erythrocyte transports oxygen to the tissues. (A) leukocytes are white blood cells that protect against infections. (B) monocytes protect against parasites (C) granulocytes are white blood cells characterized by granules in their cytoplasm. 22. The ovaries produce and release the following hormone(s): A. Luteinizing hormone B. Estrogen and progesterone C. Melatonin D. Calcitonin Answer: B Rationale: The ovaries produces estrogen and progesterone. (A)The pituitary gland produces luteinizing hormone (LH). (C) The pineal gland produces melatonin. (D) Thyroid gland calcitonin. 23. The hormone that is secreted by the pituitary gland: A. Cortisol B. Oxytocin C. Adrenaline D. Insulin Answer: B Rationale: The hormones released by the posterior pituitary lobe is oxytocin. (A) is produced by the adrenal cortex (C) is produced by the adrenal medulla and (D) is produced by the pancreas. 24. The mitral valve lies between the: A. Right atrium and the right ventricle B. Left atrium and left ventricle C. Just below the tricuspid valve` D. Opposite to the pulmonic valve Answer: B Rationale: The mitral valve, also known as the bicuspid valve or left atrioventricular valve, is a dual-flap valve in the heart that lies between the left atrium and the left ventricle. 25. The following are functions of skeletal muscles in the body, except: A. Structure B. Movement C. Heat D. Posture Answer: A Rationale: Skeletal Muscles move body parts or the body as a whole. They’re responsible for both voluntary and reflex movements. Skeletal muscles also maintain posture and generate body heat. 26. Which muscle type is considered voluntary? A. Smooth B. Cardiac C. Epimysium D. Skeletal Answer: D Rationale: Voluntary muscles are muscles that can be moved at will. The musculoskeletal system consists mostly of skeletal muscle. 27. Which of the following is not true about the occipital lobe? A. It is responsible for processing visual information B. It is responsible for hearing and memory C. Lesions to this area can cause visual hallucinations D. It is located in the rearmost portion of the skull Answer: B Rationale: Temporal lobe is responsible for hearing and memory. The rest of the choices are true about the occipital lobe. 28. The olfactory nerve contains sensory fibers relating to: A. Smell B. Vision C. Hearing D. Digestion Answer: A Rationale: The olfactory nerve processes our sense of smell. (B) The optic nerve directs vision activity. (C) The vestibulocochlear nerve directs auditory/hearing function (D) The vagus nerve deals with digestion and the GI tract. 29. A pea-sized structure located at the base of the brain, just below the hypothalamus is called the: A. Adrenal gland B. Pineal gland C. Pituitary gland D. Thyroid gland Answer: C Rationale: The pituitary gland is a pea-sized structure located at the base of the brain, just below the hypothalamus. (A) is located at the top of each kidney. (B), also known as the "pineal body," is located in the center of the brain, which is a fluid-filled space in the brain. (D) is located towards the front (ventral) of the neck. 30. The spinal cord is made up of the following order of vertebrae: A. Thoracic, Cervical, Lumbar, Sacrum B. Sacral, Lumbar, Cervical, Thoracic C. Cervical, Lumbar, Thoracic, Sacrum D. Cervical, Thoracic, Lumbar, Sacrum Answer: D Rationale: The spinal cord starts with the cervical vertebrae, then the thoracic vertebrae, then the (lower back) lumbar vertebrae, and finally ends with the sacrum. 31. Which is the most important risk factor for ankle sprains? A. A history of previous ankle sprain B. The frequency of driving C. Athlete's foot D. A short Achilles tendon Answer: A Rationale: Once you've sprained your ankle, or had another type of ankle injury, you're more likely to sprain it again. 32. The tibia is _____ to the phalanges. A. Dorsal B. Proximal C. Distal D. Ventral Answer: B Rationale: The tibia is proximal (closest to the center of the body) in comparison to the phalanges. (A) means behind. (C) is not correct because the phalanges are distal (farthest away from the center of the body) (D) means in front of and the tibia bone is not in front of the phalanges. 33. During vigorous activity such as exercise, the body temperature increases. Which of the following actions takes place in the body to keep it at homeostasis? A. Blood flow decreases B. Sweating increases C. Shivering increases D. Shivering decreases Answer: B Rationale: Sweating/perspiration is an attempt of the body to release heat in order cool the body and return to homeostasis. 34. The part of the brain that is involved in primary auditory perception and holds the primary auditory cortex is the: A. Frontal lobe B. Occipital lobe C. Temporal lobe D. Parietal lobe. Answer: C Rationale: The temporal lobe is involved in primary auditory perception, such as hearing, and holds the primary auditory cortex. (A) The frontal lobe carries out higher mental processes such as thinking, decision making, and planning. (B) Occipital lobe is involved in processing visual formation. (D) parietal lobes can be divided into two functional regions. One involves sensation and perception and the other is concerned with integrating sensory input. 35. The large vessel that carries deoxygenated blood from the lower and middle body into the right atrium of the heart is the: A. Superior vena cava B. Pulmonary arteries C. Pulmonary veins D. Inferior vena cava Answer: D Rationale: Inferior vena cava is a large vein that carries deoxygenated blood from the lower and middle body into the right atrium of the heart. (A) also carries deoxygenated blood but it is coming from the upper body. (B) moves the blood outside the heart and is one of the last steps of the flow (C) carries fully fresh oxygenated blood to the heart. 36. The vessel that carry oxygenated blood back to the heart and left atrium are: A. Superior vena cava B. Pulmonary arteries C. Pulmonary veins D. Capillaries Answer: C Rationale: Oxygenated blood returns by way of venules and veins to the pulmonary veins, which carry it back to the heart’s left atrium. (A) carries deoxygenated blood. (B) takes blood from the right ventricle to the outside the heart (D) are tiny, think branch-like vessels and transfers blood to tissues. 37. According to the abdominopelvic regions, to the right side of the umbilical area is the: A. Right iliac region B. Right lumbar region C. Right hypochondriac region D. Epigastric area Answer: B Rationale: Right lumbar lies beside the umbilical area. Right iliac region (A) is located at the right side of the hypogastric region. Right hypochondriac region (C) lies beside the epigastric region. (D) is in the stomach region, above the abdomen. 38. The following are examples of a negative feedback loop EXCEPT: A. Childbirth B. Sweating C. Body temperature drops D. Body temperature rises Answer: A Rationale: Positive feedback loops enhances or amplifies symptoms, in a way, they become worse in order to reach equilibrium again. In a negative feedback loop, the body tries to buffer, stop, or resist change in order to balance it out back to homeostasis (if your body is hot, the negative feedback loop would try to cool your body and vice versa). 39. The optic cranial nerve: A. Affects taste B. Affects sight C. Affects hearing D. Affects facial expression Answer: B Rationale: (A) The facial nerve affects taste. (C) The vestibulocochlear nerve transmits sound and hearing. (D) The trigeminal and facial nerves perform facial expressions. 40. Which of the two divisions would be found in the dorsal cavity? A. Thoracic and Cranial B. Cranial and Spinal C. Spinal and Abdominal D. Cranial and Abdominal Answer: B Rationale: Dorsal (posterior/behind) body cavities are well protected by bones and consist of the cranial and spinal cavities. (A) (C) (D) include regions like the abdominal and thoracic areas which are to the front (ventral) section of the body. 41. Which of the following leukocytes phagocytize microorganisms and foreign substances? A. Neutrophils B. Erythrocytes C. RBC D. Osteocytes Answer: A Rationale: Neutrophils are white blood cells also known as leukocytes that fight infections/foreign harmful substances) (B) and (C) are red blood cells (RBC) (D) and bone cells. 42. The belly button is _____ to the spinal cord and the A. Posterior B. Dorsal C. Ventral D. Superior Answer: C Rationale: The belly button is in front of (ventral/anterior) to the spinal cord. (A) and (B) mean behind, towards the back of the body (D) means above or on top of. 43. After fertilization, the placenta produces this hormone which is what pregnancy tests detect: A. HCG B. Estrogen C. Progesterone D. Luteinizing hormone Answer: A Rationale: Human chorionic gonadotropin is a hormone produced by the placenta after fertilization/implantation. (B) Estrogen is responsible for developing and regulating the female reproductive system. (C) Progesterone causes menstrual periods. (D) Luteinizing hormone relates to ovary/egg function. 44. The anatomical region of the armpit is called: A. Antecubital B. Acromial C. Abdominal D. Axillary Answer: D Rationale: Axillary region is the area of the upper chest surrounding the axilla, or armpit, lateral to the pectoral region. Antecubital region (A) relates to the region of the arm in front of the elbow. Acromial region (B) encompasses the shoulder. Abdominal region (C) is defined as any of the subdivisions of the abdominal region. 45. The anatomical region where the carotid arteries and jugular veins are located: A. Axillary B. Cervical C. Acromial D. Coxal Answer: B Rationale: The cervical region, or neck, contains the cervical vertebrae that connects the skull to critical structures such as the carotid arteries and jugular veins. (A) relates to armpit (C) is the shoulder region and (D) is in relation to the trunk and hip area. 46. The nursing student is correct to say that the frenulum is part of the: A. Eyes and ears B. Esophagus C. Trachea D. Lips and gums Answer: D Rationale: The frenulum is a small fold or ridge of tissue that supports or checks the motion of the part to which it is attached, in particular a fold of skin beneath the tongue, or between the lip and the gum. 47. Which of these descriptions of the heart's location is correct? A. The heart lies obliquely in the mediastinum. B. Its base is directed anteriorly and slightly superiorly. C. Two-thirds of the heart's mass lies to the right of the midline of the sternum. D. All of these Answer: A Rationale: Enclosed within the mediastinum, the medial cavity of the thorax, the heart extends obliquely from the second rib to the fifth intercostal space. It rests on the superior surface of the diaphragm, lies posterior to the sternum and anterior to the vertebral column. 48. What happens if the sinoatrial node fails? A. The heart will stop. B. The ventricles will contract, but the atria will stop. C. Another part of the heart, possibly the AV node, will become the pacemaker. D. The heart will beat faster. Answer: C Rationale: If the sinoatrial node fails, in a normal heart, the atrioventricular node should take over the pacemaker function. But the speed and rate of the atrioventricular node is lower than that of the sinoatrial node. Hence, the heart rate will be lower. 49. What is the process by which molecules are moving from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration to become evenly distributed? A. Active transport process B. Diffusion C. Passive transport process D. Filtration Answer: B Rationale: Diffusion is the process by which molecules are moving from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration to become evenly distributed. In active transport processes (A), the cell provides the metabolic energy ATP that drives the transport process. Passive transport processes (C) substances are transported across the membrane without energy input from the cell. Filtration (D) is the process by which water and solutes are forced through a membrane or capillary wall by fluid or hydrostatic pressure. 50. A professional athlete is complaining of pain in her coxal area. Where is her coxal bone located? A. Behind the hip area B. In front of the thigh area C. At the point of her shoulder D. Posterior to the knee area Answer: A Rationale: The coccyx, also known as the tailbone, is fused to the sacrum (hip) bone(B) is the femoral/thigh region. Point of shoulder (C) is the acromial region and does not contain the coccyx bone. Posterior knee area (D) is called the popliteal region and hosts the knee cap. 1. Characteristic of viral herpes: Skin eruption 2. when a boxer gets hit and has a deviated Septum: vomer (in nose) 3. Which of the following is a structure found in the upper respiratory? Pharynx 4. A person who has damage to their ulnar nerve will have decreased sensation in? Arm 5. Which bone does not articulate with any other bone? Hyoid 6. . Which of the following statements best describe endocrine glands? They secrete chemicals into the blood. 7. Diet is important because bones are storage places for? Calcium and phosphorous 8. Which organ is part of both the male reproductive system and the urinary system? Urethra 9. Ligaments provide what with connection? Bone to bone 10. What structure conducts urine from the kidney to the urinary bladder? Ureter 11. Anaerobic respiration can lead to a burning sensation caused by which molecule? Lactic acid 12. As part of the negative feedback system, which type of cell is stimulated to resorb bone matrix in response to a decrease in calcium in the blood? Osteoclasts 13. Sweat on the skin's surface cools the body through which process? Evaporation 14. When assessing a female client who describes herself as a vegetarian in the nurse notes that she has an unusual skin color. The nurse should ask the client if she has eaten large amount of: carrot and squash. 15. Which hand position describes an anatomical position of a person who is standing erect with feet forward? Palms of the hand facing anterior 16. Which structure is a ball and socket joint? Shoulder 17. Which anatomical structure houses the malleus, incus, and stapes? Skull ear 18. What are like cells grouped together called? A tissue 19. . The pulse point located behind the knee is palpated over which artery? Popliteal 20. Ceruminous glands secrete Ear wax 21. What type of synovial joint is the elbow? Hinge 22. What occurs when the sympathetic nervous system is stimulated? Increased Cardiac output 23. Where does digestion begin in the digestive system? Oral cavity 24. Which structure regulates the transport of substances in and out of a cell? The cell membrane 25. The mediastinum is located within which cavity? Thoracic 26. . What is the effect of serotonin, a neurotransmitter? Involved with mood, anxiety and sleep 27. What is the response of cells in the collecting tubules in the nephrons when antidiuretic hormone ADH is secreted? Water is reabsorbed from the urinary filtrate 28. What is the function of the thrombocytes (platelets)? Play role in blood clotting 29. Which muscle of the quadriceps femoris group lies on the slide surface of the lower extremity? Vastus lateralis 30. Which structure is located on the sternum? Xiphoid process 31. The occipital region is located in which part of the body? Head 32. Which structure carries oxygen to the cells? Hemoglobin 33. Which gland is commonly known as the "Master Gland"? Pituitary Gland 34. Aspirin occurs when there is a tear in which structures? Ligament 35. What epidermal derivative is involved in temperature homeostasis? Eccrine gland 36. Which are the parts of bone? Osteoblast,epiphyseal, diaphysis 37. Aqueous humor is watery fluid in which part of the body? Eye 38. The Malleus, Incus, and Stapes are located in which part of the body? Ear 39. Dorsiflexion plantar flexion are types of joint movement that are associated with which part of the body? Foot 40. Within which vessel does blood return from the lungs? Pulmonary vein 41. Which part of the brain is involved in auditory functioning? Temporal lobe 42. What internal structure of the ear is concerned with hearing? Cochlea 43. Fertilization of an ovum occurs in which anatomical structure? Fallopian tubes 44. Where is the tibialis anterior muscle located? Lower leg 45. An overproduction of cerumen (earwax) can accumulate in which area? External ear canals 46. The mitral valve is located between which two structures? Left ventricle & Left atrium 47. . The olfactory nerves are associated in which sense? Smell 48. Vessel carries blood from the body to the heart? Vena cava 49. . Hormone(s) is/are produced by the ovaries? Estrogen & progesterone 50. Plane divides the body into right and left sides? Sagittal 51. Two principal divisions that makeup nervous system? Peripheral (PNS) & Central (CNS) 52. The orthopedic surgeon informs you that you have broken the distal region of the humerus. What area is he describing? Epiphysis 53. . Part of the brain attaches to the spinal cord? Medulla oblongata 54. Which term is used to describe movement of the arms and legs away from the midline of the bo 55. Structure provides a pulse reading in the neck? C Artery 56. Which hormone is produced by the posterior pituitary gland? Oxytocin 57. What is the primary function of the hemoglobin (blood)? Carry oxygen 58. What stimulates the chemoreceptors to function? rise in CO2; Fall in o2 59. Which condition causes a client to say "I can't see far away"? Nearsightedness 60. Anaerobic respiration can lead to burning sensation caused by which molecule? lactic acid 61. Golgi apparatus functions as? process protein secretion. synthesize carbs and glycoproteins 62. What organ produces insulin? pancreas 63. What effects do serotonin has or neurotransmitters? appetite, sleep, mood 64. Fertilization occurs in the? oviduct 65. When drawing blood from antecubital region which blood vessel is used to obtain blood? median cubital 66. What hormone induces growth of pubic and axillary hair at puberty? Testosterone and estrogen 67. Increase in the rate of depth of breath results in what blood PH changes? alkalosis 68. . What lobe of the brain is responsible for auditory functioning? Temporal 69. What is the function of the hypothalamus? regulates function of body, balance, thermoreg 70. How many carbs per gram do carbohydrates contain? 4 71. When water molecules move across cell membranes from high to low concentration this process is called? osmosis 72. What is the result of carbon dioxide in the body? body become more acidic 73. What part of the body is the lower back? lumbar 74. High levels of which ion would most likely result in a cardiac arrest? Potassium 75. What blood vessel perfuses the kidney? Renal vein 76. What gland is located on the anterior surface of the trachea? Thyroid Gland 77. In white blood cells what contributes to phagocytosis? macrophages, neutrophils 78. What part of the brain is attached to the spinal cord? medulla oblongata 79. What structure of the eye picks out color? retina 80. What is the outermost protective layer of the skin? Epidermis 82. The organ of corti is located in? Ear 83. Where in the body are nutrients absorbed? Small intestine 84. What cell structure regulates the transportation of substances in and out the cell? Plasma membrane 85. The rough endoplasmic reticulum functions in the human cell too? Synthesize protein 86. What is the response of cells in the collecting tubules in the nephrons when antidiuretic hormone ADH is secreted? water is reabsorbed from urinary filtrate 87. Tissue repair is enhanced by a diet high in? Protein 88. What is the definition of chyme? bolus that turns into soupy substance. The result of action by the stomach. 89. What are hormones? chemical messengers 90. What female reproductive organ produces oocytes, estrogen, progesterone? ovaries 91. What structure is located in the upper airways? nose, pharynx 92. What cellular process helps to move debris and mucous through the lining of tubules? Cilia 93. Which is a hollow organ? gallbladder 94. Which muscle is included in the quadriceps femoris group? Rectus femoris, Vastus lateralis, vastus medialis, vastus intermedius 95. Which structure is responsible for normal respiratory function? medulla oblongata 96. The Mitral valve is located between which two structures? left atrium left ventricle 97. Which hormone is produced by the posterior pituitary gland? ADH and OT 98. Client has large pituitary tumors. What part of the body does this affect? head hurt, sickness, low blood pressure 99. Which structure produces Blymphocytes? red bone marrow 100. What occurs when the sympathetic nervous system stimulation is increased? Blood pressure rises, goosebumps 101. The buttocks are which surface of the body? dorsal 102. . The esophagus is located in which body cavity? thoracic 103. The tympanic membrane is located between which structures? external auditory canal and middle ear 104. How many days is the average menstrual cycle? 28 days 105. Which structure produces T-lymphocytes? thymus 106. A person who has damaged the ulnar nerve will have decreased sensation in which area? arm -inability to adduct arms and fingers 107. Calcaneus is located in? foot 108. Urinary system in the human body primary task is to? expel waste 109. Which of the following produce progesterone to prepare the uterus for pregnancy? Corpus luteum 110. What are fingerprints made of? Friction Ridges 111. ABCD of cancer? Melanoma Asymmetry (one half of the mole doesn't match the other), Border irregularity, Color that is not uniform, Diameter greater than 6 mm 112. What location would the urinary bladder & internal reproductive organ be found? pelvic region 113. Which one increases angle at the joint? extensor 114. Which hormone is released by posterior lobe? oxytocin 115. What is the order of organization of living things? organelle, cells, tissues, organs, organ systems, organisms, populations, communities, ecosystem, and biosphere. 116. What bones are formed first during intramembranous ossification? flat bone of face and cranial 117. What is the most obvious skin cancer? basal cell carcinoma 118. Describe active transport. requires energy and work from cell 119. Describe passive transport? Provide examples. doesn't require energy ex. diffusion and osmosis 120. The passive movement of molecules or particles along a concentration gradient, or from regions of higher to regions of lower concentration. diffusion 121. Movement of water across a membrane osmosis 122. Fibrous joint immovable and held together by ligaments only ex. teeth in socket 123. Cartilaginous connection between articulating bones made up of cartilage 124. Synovial joints highly moveable hinge, pivot, saddle 125. Two types of asexual reproduction? binary fission and mitosis 126. What links the nasopharynx to the middle ear? eustachian tube 127. calciferol is controlled by? parathyroid 128. sebaceous gland secretes oil 129. endocytosis engulfs and brings in 130. exocytosis fuses within plasma membrane and releases content outside of cell 131. pituitary gland produces adrenocorticotropic hormone GH 132. adrenal gland secretes cortisol and aldosterone 133. Aerobic respiration takes place in the mitochondria and requires oxygen and glucose, and produces carbon dioxide, water, and energy. 134. Anaerobic respiration also produces energy and uses glucose, but it produces less energy and does not require oxygen. 135. What part of the respiratory system is I the upper respiratory? Bronchioles, alveolar ducts, and alveoli 136. aerobic respiration happens in presence of oxygen 137. soft spot on baby head 138. what do endocrine hormeones do g development and function 139. layers of epidermis (Inner to Outer)? stratum basale, stratum spinosum, stratum granulosum, stratum lucidum, and stratum corneum. 140. top of sternum manubrium 141. parts of sternum manubrium body xiphoid 142. what makes up most plasma water 143. polypeptide are chains of amino acids 144. Mitosis- the process of cell division that occurs in five stages before pinching two "daughter" cells in a process called cytokinesis 145. Meiosis: to make haploid gametes and the production of germs cells 146. Photosynthesis- precursor to the glucose molecule is produced in a process. Use sunlight to synthesize foods from carbon dioxide and water. Generates oxygen as a byproduct. 147. The ribs are attached to the sternum 148. a thin pouch in the heart auricle 149. What expands the thoracic cavity? inhalation 150. What separates the abdominal and thoracic cavity? Diaphragm 151. distal convoluted tubule controlled by? PTH 152. Why is the HCL chemical in the stomach not absorbed/ harm stomach? mucus lining protects it 153. What is the part of the heart with the largest layer? left ventricle 154. What makes the colors of the skin? melanin and melanocytes 155. Distal convoluted tubule works with hormone ADH 156. What is produced by the hypothalamus and released by the posterior pituitary? Oxytocin 157. Ligament connects what to what? bone to bone 158. Tendon connects what to what? bone to muscle 159. What are the bone forming cells? Osteocytes 160. What are the 4 steps of bone ossification? hematoma formation, callus formation, ossification, and bone remodeling 161. The gallbladder is part of which system? digestive system 162. Vastus lateralis does what? extends knee and stabilizes 163. Muscle contraction that moves food through the digestive tract is called what? peristalsis 164. Where are schwann cells? nervous system 165. How does the nervous system work with the muscular? tells muscles how to respond to environment 166. Somatic nervous system has what type of movements? voluntary 167. Autonomic nervous system has what type of movement? involuntary movements (sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems) 168. Which organ system is responsible for regulating muscle growth? endocrine 169. How does lymph work with circulatory lymph? draws excess fluid from the cells and deposits it into blood vessels 170. What is the function of parathyroid? manufacture the parathyroid hormone, which plays a role in regulating your body's levels of the minerals calcium and phosphorus 171. What is a normal heart rate? 60-100 bpm. Athletes can be closer to 40 bpm 172. How is pepsin used in the body? breakdown proteins 173. Esophagus is part of which system? Digestive 174. Which system produces antibodies lymphatic 175. Blood that has supplied nutrients and oxygen to heart muscle returns to? right atrium via coronary sinus 176. Diploid has how many chromosomes? 46 177. Haploid has how many chromosomes? 23 178. What are the functions of the skeletal system? 1. protection 2. movement 3. mineral storage 4. production of blood 179. Efferent away from CNS 180. Afferent toward CNS 181. A mature female reproductive cell, especially of a human or other animal, that can divide to give rise to an embryo usually only after fertilization by a male cell. Ovum 182. A mature haploid male or female germ cell that is able to unite with another of the opposite sex in sexual reproduction to form a zygote. Gamete 183. What carries blood away from the body in order to exchange nutrients, oxygen, and waste? Capillaries 184. What is the exchange of gases between the atmosphere and the blood through the alveoli called? External respiration 185. Most of the carbon dioxide in blood does what? It is converted to bicarbonate ions by carbonic anhydrase within red blood cells. 186. What are the two functions of the male and female sex organs? Production of gametes and production of hormones 187. Which tissue serves as the framework of the body by providing support and structure for organs? connective 188. What are the glands of the skin that produce a thin and watery secretion? eccrine glands 189. All actions of the nervous system depend on the transmission of nerve impulses over which of the following? neurons 190. monocytes becomes macrophages 191. lymphocytes important in immune system 192. neutrophils phagocytize microorganisms 193. In order for inhalation to occur, what must happen? contraction of the diaphragm, which enlarges the chest cavity and draws air 194. Functional units of the kidney? nephrons 195. Where does fertilization occur? fallopian tubes 196. What is important for wound healing? Cellular contact 197. What is the most abundant tissue? connective tissue HESI ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY QUIZ ANSWERS 1. The main way a recessive allele would be fully expressed even when only one copy is present would be ___________. -Sex-linked inheritance 2. Adrenocorticotropic hormones (ACTH) ___________. -Secretion is regulated by a hypothalamic regulatory hormone 3. If a person has lost a significant amount of blood but still maintain a normal blood pressure it does not necessarily mean that the person is maintaining adequate perfusion. Which of the following best explains why this is so? -Blood vessels are constricting causing greater peripheral resistance 4. During exercise, which of the following would occur on an electrocardiogram (ECG) compared to an individual at rest? -The time from one R to the R of the next heartbeat would decrease 5. Which of the following could be involved in causing bronchiolar constriction during an asthma attack? -Release of histamine and inflammatory chemicals in the airway walls 6. Which of the following substances is a key component of the major buffer system in extracellular fluids? -NaHCO3 7. Which of these is NOT a component of saliva? -A cyanide derivative 8. If a person were to have a substantial blood loss you would expect to see all of the following physiological events to except one. Select the least likely response to substantial blood loss. -Decreased heart rate 9. Of the different sources of genetic variability, which one could be defined as permanent transmissible changes to DNA coding sequence often caused by outside environmental factors? -Mutation 10. The diploid number of chromosomes in a human in 46. Therefore, the number of chromosomes in a primary spermatocyte or primary oocyte is _______. -46 11. ______ is the situation when one hormone exaggerates the effects of another hormone at the target cell? -Synergism 12. What is the effect of hypovolemic shock on the blood vessels and the heart? -Blood vessels constrict to increase venous return & maintain pressure. Heart rate increases to compensate for loss of blood pressure and to maintain cardiac output. 13. Gastric pits, as opposed to gastric glands, are completely lined with ______. -Mucous cells 14. Part complete T cells are differentiated into two groups based on their glycoproteins: CD4 or CD8. Which of the following is true of CD4 T cells? -They become T helper cells 15. A class I MHC protein presents an antigen. What type of cell is likely presenting and to what type of cell would it be presented? -Any nucleated cell would present antigens to CD8 cell 16. The Bohr effect describes the tendency for hemoglobin to more readily unload oxygen under which conditions? -Decreased pH and increased PCO2 17. What is the testicular target for follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)? -Sustentocytes (Sertoli cells) 18. If the vagal nerves to the heart were cut, the result would be that ________. -The heart rate would increase by about 25 beats per minute 19. Teratogens may cause anatomical abnormalities in an embryo, but they do not cause anatomical abnormalities in a pregnant woman because ______. -Organogenesis does not occur in an adult 20. A total WBC count and a differential WBC count have been ordered for Mrs. Johnson. What information is obtained from the differential count that the total count does not provide? -The differential count determines the relative proportion of individual leukocyte types. The total WBC count indicates an increase or decrease in number of WBCs. 21. The most permeable capillaries, which contain fenestrations and large intercellular clefts, are __________. -Sinusoid capillaries 22. Recessive alleles are best defined as ________. -An allele only expressed when the allele is homozygous 23. Which step in homeostasis involves activation of formed elements in the blood? -Platelet plug formation 24. Heat murmurs caused by a stenotic mitral valve _______. -Are detected while blood flow into the left ventricle is reduced 25. Which type of inheritance involves genes not located on autosomal chromosomes? -Sex-linked inheritance 26. Membrane attack complex (MAC) kills by _____. -Disrupting the selective permeability of a bacteria’s plasma membrane 27. In what form do fats first enter the bloodstream? -In the form of chylomicrons 28. The atrioventricular (AV) valve are closed ______. -When the ventricles are in systole 29. Generally, the hormones secretin and cholecystokinin which are released by duodenal enteroendocrine cells will ____. -Increase the release of digestive enzymes and bile 30. At what point would we definitely NOT be able to measure the difference between systolic, diastolic, and mean arterial pressure? -Capillaries 31. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) _____. -Secretion is inhibited by alcohol 32. Adult onset diabetes, diabetes type 2, can best be described using which of the following concepts? -Constantly high blood sugar leads to high insulin release. High amounts of insulin lead to down-regulation of insulin receptors 33. A 25-year-old male was admitted to the medical/surgical unit with a blood glucose level of 600 mg/dl. On assessment, the nurse observed that his breathing was deep and rapid, and his breath smelled of acetone. His face was flushed, his skin was dry, and his pH was low. What is the diagnosis and what physiological response is occurring? -Diabetes mellitus. The nervous system responds by inhibiting rapid deep breathing to blow off carbon dioxide from the blood and increase pH. 34. The presence of protein in the urine indicated which of the following? -Damage to the filtration membrane 35. Which of the following structures collects the depolarization wave from the atria to pass it onto the ventricles? -AV node 36. What is the primary function of hormones? -Alter cell activity 37. Which type of food molecule provides components for cellular structures like plasma membranes, myelin sheaths, and steroid hormones? -lipids 38. Hypercalcemia could cause _____. -Prolonged T wave 39. Which of the following is not a functional characteristic of WBC’s? -Granulosis 40. Choose the incorrect statement regarding bile. -Bile contains enzymes for digestion 41. What would be the effect of a high salt diet on blood pressure? What is the physiological basis for your answer? -Increased blood pressure. This is due to increased sodium in the blood, increasing the plasma volume. 42. Insufficient parathyroid hormone production in the body could result in ______. -Muscle twitching 43. You are reviewing a post-discharge plan of a newly diagnosed patient with Type I diabetes mellitus. Why is the presence of ketones in his urine a significant finding? -Urinary ketones indicate that the body is using fat rather than carbohydrates as an energy source 44. Which of the following is NOT a benefit through the nose? -The production of smooth, laminar airflow as air passes by the nasal conchae 45. How many skin colors would there be if it was inherited in a simple recessive pattern rather than in a polygenetic fashion? -Two 46. Drinking alcohol during pregnancy is _____. -Associated with microencephaly and intellectual disorders of the fetus 47. Which of the following would you expect to have the least effect on hematocrit percentage? -Prolonged or excessive fever 48. Which of the following is NOT true about beta oxidation? -It involves the anabolism of fats 49. Your patient has several cracked ribs from a car accident, which of these would you expect from his or her blood gases? -Elevated PCO2 and Increased pH 50. Osmotic pressure is created by the presence in a fluid of small diffusible molecules that easily move through the capillary membrane. -False 51. Allergens differ from antigens because _____. -Allergens produce an abnormally large immune response to what is an otherwise harmless particle 52. The regulation of sodium _____. -Is linked to blood pressure 53. Derivatives to the mesoderm includes ____. -Vertebrae and ribs 54. Why are gap junctions a vital part of the intercellular connection of cardiac muscles? -Gap junctions allow action potentials to spread to connected cells 55. Which of the following hormones acting on the collecting ducts is most responsible for retaining sodium ions in the blood? -Aldosterone 56. Adding a chemical that reduces Na+ transport near the sinoatrial (SA) node would have what effect on the heart's intrinsic conducting system? -The SA node would depolarize less quickly, reducing the heart rate 57. Freckles are a completely dominant trait. Both Jason’s parents have freckles. Jason does not have freckles. What type of inheritance describes this situation? -Complete dominance 58. Blood is a type of connective tissue. What primary germ layer is responsible for producing both blood and phagocytic brain glial cells? -Mesoderm 59. Calculate the actual intrapleural pressure if atmospheric pressure is 765 millimeters of mercury, assuming that the subject is at rest (not inhaling or exhaling). -761 millimeters of mercury 60. Which blood vessels supply deoxygenated systemic blood to the alveoli? -Pulmonary arteries 61. The corpus luteum prevents loss of the implanted embryo through menstruation by secreting ______. -Estrogens and progesterone 62. Increased temperature results in decreased O2 unloading from hemoglobin -False 63. If the length of the absolute refractory period in cardiac muscle cells was the same as it is for skeletal muscle cells, ________. -Tetanic contractions might occur, which would stop the heart’s pumping action 64. An illness causes Doug to experience severe diarrhea and an accompanying loss of bicarbonate-rich secretions. How can this metabolic acidosis be compensated? -Increased respiratory rate and depth 65. A blow to the head may cause diabetes insipidus by ______. -Interfering with the normal transmission of AH to the posterior pituitary via the axons of hypothalamic neurons 66. What would happen if the capsular hydrostatic pressure were increased above normal? -Net filtration would decrease 67. Which of the following is true of testosterone? -Testosterone is produces by interstitial endocrine cells 68. AB blood type is the universal blood recipient because of that type’s lack of agglutinogens. -False 69. At the conclusion of glycolysis, most of glucose’s chemical energy is found in the _____. -Pyruvic acid molecules 70. Oxytocin _____. -Release is an example of a positive feedback control mechanism 71. Which of the following epithelial layers arise(s) from the endoderm? -Alveolar cells of the lungs 72. Where does most exogenous antigen presentation take place? -In lymphoid tissues and organs 73. Which of the following plasma components is most likely to rise in concentration during an acute infection? -Gamma globulins 74. All of the following statements referring to the uterine cycle are true EXCEPT _____. -FSH and LH directly promote development of the uterine endometrium 75. Which hormone is NOT produced by placenta? -Oxytocin 76. A vaccine is effective because _____. -The secondary response of the adaptive immunity is faster and more efficient than the primary response 77. Select the best explanation for why protease enzymes are secreted in inactive forms. -The cells producing inactive enzymes are themselves protected from the enzymes until they are safely within the lumen of the GI tract. 78. Which of the following is characteristic of veins but not arteries? -Larger internal diameter 79. Which of these genetic conditions is displayed by this figure if it represents the inheritance of albinism from two heterozygous parents, and only the homozygous recessive offspring expresses the trait? -Complete dominance 80. Bisphenol-A (BPA) is an endocrine disruptor that can leach out of certain plastics. It disrupts the normal function of the endocrine system my mimicking estrogen. Which of the following explains how persistent small amounts of BPA in the body can have effects? -Up-regulation 81. Catabolism of food molecules involves _____. -Hydrolysis reactions 82. Which hormone maintains the viability of the corpus luteum -Human chorionic gonadotropin 83. Which of the following is produces in the stomach and contributed directly to the absorption of vitamin B12? -Intrinsic factor 84. Which of the following can act on receptors inside the target cell that directly activate specific genes? -Testosterone 85. Calcitonin is the main regulator of blood calcium levels? -False 86. Which of the following incorrectly describes mechanisms of CO2 transport? -Attached to the heme part of hemoglobin 87. Which of the following does not occur in both the male and female sexual response? -A refractory period follows orgasm 88. Milk ejection (the letdown reflex) is stimulated by which of the following? -Oxytocin 89. Which of the following is NOT a chemical barrier that helps prevent infections? -The pH of the blood 90. Blood enters the left and right coronary arteries directly from which vessel or chamber? -Aorta 91. Which embryonic structure produces human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) -The syncytiotrophoblast 92. Which of the following would be a component of the body’s first line of defense? -Mucus membranes 93. If a person is severely dehydrated, you would expect to see all of the following except ____. -Lower immunity 94. A recent measles outbreak in your community has sparked interest in antibody testing to determine which patients are immune, which are at risk for infection, and which patients actually have measles. Which patient status and lab values are incorrectly matched? -IDK the answer to this one 95. The mammary glands are classified as being part of which of the following systems? -Integumentary system