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NSG 6005 PHARMACOLOGY FINAL QUIZLET | South University | Best for 2022 Exam Revision | PDF |

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First-line therapy for hyperlipidemia is: A. Statins B. Niacin C. Lifestyle changes D. Bile acid-binding resins C. Lifestyle changes First-line therapy for treating topical fungal infections such as tinea corporis (ringworm) or tinea pedis (athlete's foot) would be: A. OTC topical azole (clotrimazole, miconazole) B. Oral terbinafine C. Oral griseofulvin microsize D. Nystatin cream or ointment A. OTC topical azole (clotrimazole, miconazole) Furosemide is added to a treatment regimen for heart failure, which includes digoxin. Monitoring for this combination includes: A. Hemoglobin B. Serum potassium C. Blood urea nitrogen D. Serum glucose B. Serum potassium Genetic polymorphisms account for differences in metabolism, including: A. Poor metabolizers (PMs) that lack a working enzyme B. Intermediate metabolizers (IMs) that have one working, wild-type allele and one mutant allele C. Extensive metabolizers (EMs), with two normally functioning alleles D. All of the above D. All of the above Genetic testing for VCORC1 mutation to assess potential warfarin resistance is required prior to prescribing warfarin. A. True B. False B. False Goals of treatment when treating hypothyroidism with thyroid replacement include: A. Normal TSH and free T4 levels B. Resolution of fatigue C. Weight loss to baseline D. All of the above D. All of the above Heart failure is a chronic condition that can be adequately managed in primary care. However, consultation with or referral to a cardiologist is appropriate when: A. Symptoms markedly worsen or the patient becomes hypotensive and has syncope. B. There is evidence of progressive renal insufficiency or failure. C. The patient remains symptomatic on optimal doses of an ACE inhibitor, a beta blocker, and a diuretic. D. All the above options are correct. D. All the above options are correct. Hypoglycemia can result from the action of either insulin or an oral hypoglycemic. Signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia include: A. "Fruity" breath odor and rapid respiration B. Diarrhea, abdominal pain, weight loss, and hypertension C. Dizziness, confusion, diaphoresis, and tachycardia D. Easy bruising, palpitations, cardiac dysrhythmias, and coma C. Dizziness, confusion, diaphoresis, and tachycardia If a patient with H. pylori positive PUD fails first-line therapy, the second-line treatment is: A. A PPI BID plus metronidazole plus tetracycline plus bismuth subsalicylate for fourteen days B. Testing H. pylori for resistance to common treatment regimens C. A PPI plus clarithromycin plus amoxicillin for fourteen days D. A PPI and levofloxacin for fourteen days A. A PPI BID plus metronidazole plus tetracycline plus bismuth subsalicylate for fourteen days In addition to methimazole, a symptomatic patient with hyperthyroidism may need a prescription for: A. A calcium channel blocker B. A beta blocker C. Liothyronine D. An alpha blocker B. A beta blocker Inadequate vitamin D intake can contribute to the development of osteoporosis by: A. Increasing calcitonin production B. Increasing calcium absorption from the intestine C. Altering calcium metabolism D. Stimulating bone formation B. Increasing calcium absorption from the intestine Incorporating IT into a patient encounter takes skill and tact. During the encounter, the provider can make the patient more comfortable with the IT the provider is using by: A. Turning the screen around so the patient can see material being recorded B. Not placing the computer screen between the provider and the patient C. Both A and B D. Neither A nor B C. Both A and B Infants with reflux are initially treated with: A. Histamine 2 receptor antagonist (ranitidine) B. A PPI (omeprazole) C. Antireflux maneuvers (elevate the head of the bed) D. Prokinetic (metoclopramide) C. Antireflux maneuvers (elevate the head of the bed) In five- to eleven-year-old children, mild-persistent asthma is diagnosed when asthma symptoms occur: A. At nighttime one to two times a month B. At nighttime three to four times a month C. Less than twice a week D. Daily B. At nighttime three to four times a month Jack, eight years old, has attention deficit disorder (ADD) and is prescribed methylphenidate (Ritalin). He and his parents should be educated about the side effects of methylphenidate, which are: A. Slurred speech and insomnia B. Bradycardia and confusion C. Dizziness and orthostatic hypotension D. Insomnia and decreased appetite D. Insomnia and decreased appetite Janie presents to clinic with hard ear wax in both ear canals. Instructions regarding home removal of hard cerumen includes: A. Moistening a cotton swab (Q-tip) and swabbing the ear canals twice daily B. Instilling tap water in both ears while bathing C. Squirting hydrogen peroxide into ears with each bath D. Instilling carbamide peroxide (Debrox) twice daily until the ear canals are clear D. Instilling carbamide peroxide (Debrox) twice daily until the ear canals are clear Jim presents with complaints of "heart burn" that is minimally relieved with Tums (calcium carbonate) and is diagnosed with GERD. An appropriate first step therapy would be: A. Omeprazole (Prilosec) twice a day B. Ranitidine (Zantac) twice a day C. Famotidine (Pepcid) once a day D. Metoclopramide (Reglan) four times a day B. Ranitidine (Zantac) twice a day Jim presents with fungal infection of two of his toenails (onychomycosis). Treatment for fungal infections of the nail includes: A. Miconazole cream B. Ketoconazole cream C. Oral griseofulvin D. Mupirocin cream C. Oral griseofulvin

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NSG 6005

PHARMACOLOGY FINAL QUIZLET
An ACE inhibitor and what other class of drug may reduce proteinuria in patients with diabetes better
than either drug alone?

A. Beta blockers
B. Diuretics
C. Nondihydropyridine calcium channel blockers
D. Angiotensin II receptor blockers
C. Nondihydropyridine calcium channel blockers

Adam has type I diabetes and plays tennis for his university. He exhibits knowledge deficit about his
insulin and his diagnosis. He should be taught that:

A. He should increase his increase his carbohydrate intake during times of exercise intake during times of
exercise.
B. Each brand of insulin is equal in bioavailability, so buy the least expensive.
C. Alcohol produces hypoglycemia and can help control his diabetes when taken in small amounts.
D. If he does not want to learn to give himself injections, he may substitute an oral hypoglycemic to control
his diabetes.
A. He should increase his increase his carbohydrate intake during times of exercise intake during times of
exercise.

Age is a factor in different responses to pain. Which of the following age-related statements about pain is
not true?

A. Preterm and newborn infants do not yet have functional pain pathways.
B. Painful experiences and prolonged exposure to analgesic drugs during pregnancy may permanently alter
neuronal organization in the child.
C. Increases in pain threshold in older adults may be related to peripheral neuropathies and changes in
skin thickness.
D. Decreases in pain tolerance are evident in older adults.
A. Preterm and newborn infants do not yet have functional pain pathways.

Alterations in drug metabolism among Asians may lead to:

A. Slower metabolism of antidepressants, requiring lower doses
B. Faster metabolism of neuroleptics, requiring higher doses
C. Altered metabolism of omeprazole, requiring higher doses
D. Slower metabolism of alcohol, requiring higher doses
A. Slower metabolism of antidepressants, requiring lower doses

Amiodarone has been prescribed in a patient with a supraventricular dysrhythmia. Patient teaching
should include all of the following except:

A. Notify your healthcare provider immediately if you have visual change.
B. Monitor your own blood pressure and pulse daily.
C. Take a hot shower or bath if you feel dizzy.
D. Use a sunscreen on exposed body surfaces.
C. Take a hot shower or bath if you feel
dizzy.

,Anticholinergic agents, such as benztropine (Cogentin), may be given with a phenothiazine to:

A. Reduce the chance of tardive dyskinesia.
B. Potentiate the effects of the drug.
C. Reduce the tolerance that tends to occur.
D. Increase CNS depression.
A. Reduce the chance of tardive dyskinesia.

An appropriate drug for the treatment of depression with anxiety would be:

A. Alprazolam (Xanax)
B. Escitalopram (Lexapro)
C. Buspirone (Buspar)
D. Amitriptyline (Elavil)
B. Escitalopram (Lexapro)

Cara is taking levetiracetam (Keppra) to treat seizures. Routine education for levetiracetam includes
reminding her:

A. To not abruptly discontinue levetiracetam due to the risk of withdrawal seizures
B. To wear a sunscreen due to photosensitivity from levetiracetam
C. To get an annual eye exam while on levetiracetam
D. To report weight loss if it occurs
A. To not abruptly discontinue levetiracetam due to the risk of withdrawal seizure

Cecilia presents with depression associated with complaints of fatigue, sleeping all the time, and lack of
motivation. An appropriate initial antidepressant for her would be:

A. Fluoxetine (Prozac)
B. Paroxetine (Paxil)
C. Amitriptyline (Elavil)
D. Duloxetine (Cymbalta)
D. Duloxetine (Cymbalta)

Chemical dependency assessment is integral to the initial assessment of chronic pain. Which of the
following raises a "red flag" about potential chemical dependency?

A. Use of more than one drug to treat the pain
B. Multiple times when prescriptions are lost with requests to refill
C. Preferences for treatments that include alternative medicines
D. Presence of a family member who has abused drugs
B. Multiple times when prescriptions are lost with requests to refill

Common mistakes practitioners make in treating anxiety disorders include:

A. Switching medications after an eight-week trial to a twelve-week trial
B. Maximizing dosing of antianxiety medications
C. Encouraging exercise and relaxation therapy before starting medication
D. Thinking a partial response to medication is
acceptable D. Thinking a partial response to medication
is acceptable

, David presents to clinic with symptoms of allergic conjunctivitis. He is prescribed cromolyn sodium
(Opticrom) eyedrops. The education regarding using cromolyn eyedrops includes which one of the
following tips?

A. He should not wear his soft contacts while using the cromolyn eyedrops.
B. Cromolyn drops are instilled once a day to prevent allergy symptoms.
C. Long-term use of the eyedrop may cause glaucoma.
D. He may experience bradycardia as an adverse effect.
A. He should not wear his soft contacts while using the cromolyn eyedrops.

The DEA:

A. Registers manufacturers and prescribes controlled substances
B. Regulates NP prescribing at the state level
C. Sanctions providers who prescribe drugs off-label
D. Provides prescribers with a number they can use for insurance
billing A. Registers manufacturers and prescribes controlled substances

Diagnostic criteria for diabetes include:

A. Fasting blood glucose greater than 140 mg/dl on two occasions
B. Postprandial blood glucose greater than 140 mg/dl
C. Fasting blood glucose 100 to 125 mg/dl on two occasions
D. Symptoms of diabetes plus a casual blood glucose greater than 200
mg/dl D. Symptoms of diabetes plus a casual blood glucose greater than 200
mg/dl

Disease states in addition to hypertension in which beta blockade is a compelling indication for the use of
beta blockers include:

A. Heart failure
B. Angina
C. MI
D. Dyslipidemia
C. MI

The drug of choice for type II diabetics is metformin. Metformin:

A. Decreases glycogenolysis by the liver
B. Increases the release of insulin from beta cells
C. Increases intestinal uptake of glucose
D. Prevents weight gain associated with
hyperglycemia A. Decreases glycogenolysis by the
liver

The drug recommended as primary prevention of osteoporosis in men over seventy years is:

A. Alendronate (Fosamax)
B. Ibandronate (Boniva)
C. Calcium carbonate
D. Raloxifene (Evista)
A. Alendronate (Fosamax)

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