NUR 101 NCLEX PRACTISE EXAM 3 ( 40 ITEMS)
NCLEX Practice Exam 3 (40 Items)
Question 1
A patient is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of primary hyperparathyroidism. A nurse checking
the patient’s lab results would expect which of the following changes in laboratory findings?
Elevated serum calcium.
Low serum parathyroid hormone (PTH).
Elevated serum vitamin D.
Low urine calcium.
Question 1 Explanation:
The parathyroid glands regulate the calcium level in the blood. In hyperparathyroidism, the serum
calcium level will be elevated. Option B: Parathyroid hormone levels may be high or normal but not low.
Option C: The body will lower the level of vitamin D in an attempt to lower calcium. Option D: Urine
calcium may be elevated, with calcium spilling over from elevated serum levels. This may cause renal
stones.
Question 2
A patient with Addison’s disease asks a nurse for nutrition and diet advice. Which of the following diet
modifications is NOT recommended?
A diet high in grains.
A diet with adequate caloric intake.
A high protein diet.
A restricted sodium diet.
Question 2 Explanation:
A patient with Addison’s disease requires normal dietary sodium to prevent excess fluid loss. Adequate
caloric intake is recommended with a diet high in protein and complex carbohydrates, including grains.
Question 3
,A patient with a history of diabetes mellitus is on the second post-operative day following
cholecystectomy. She has complained of nausea and isn’t able to eat solid foods. The nurse enters the
room to find the patient confused and shaky. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for the
patient’s symptoms?
Anesthesia reaction.
Hyperglycemia.
Hypoglycemia.
Diabetic ketoacidosis.
Question 3 Explanation:
A post-operative diabetic patient who is unable to eat is likely to be suffering from hypoglycemia.
Confusion and shakiness are common symptoms. Option A: An anesthesia reaction would not occur on
the second postoperative day. Options B and D: Hyperglycemia and ketoacidosis do not cause confusion
and shakiness.
Question 4
A nurse assigned to the emergency department evaluates a patient who underwent fiberoptic
colonoscopy 18 hours previously. The patient reports increasing abdominal pain, fever, and chills. Which
of the following conditions poses the most immediate concern?
Bowel perforation
Viral gastroenteritis
Colon cancer.
Diverticulitis
Question 4 Explanation:
Bowel perforation is the most serious complication of fiberoptic colonoscopy. Important signs include
progressive abdominal pain, fever, chills, and tachycardia, which indicate advancing peritonitis. Options B
and C: Viral gastroenteritis and colon cancer do not cause these symptoms. Option D: Diverticulitis may
cause pain, fever, and chills, but is far less serious than perforation and peritonitis.
Question 5
A patient is admitted to the same day surgery unit for liver biopsy. Which of the following laboratory tests
assesses coagulation? (Select all that apply)
, Partial thromboplastin time
Prothrombin time
Platelet count
Hemoglobin
Question 5 Explanation:
Prothrombin time, partial thromboplastin time, and platelet count are all included in coagulation studies.
Option D: The hemoglobin level, though important information prior to an invasive procedure like liver
biopsy, does not assess coagulation.
Question 6
A nurse is assessing a clinic patient with a diagnosis of hepatitis A. Which of the following is the most likely
route of transmission?
Sexual contact with an infected partner
Contaminated food
Blood transfusion
Illegal drug use
Question 6 Explanation:
Hepatitis A is the only type that is transmitted by the fecal-oral route through contaminated food. Options
A, C, and D: Hepatitis B, C, and D are transmitted through infected bodily fluids.
Question 7
A leukemia patient has a relative who wants to donate blood for transfusion. Which of the following
donor medical conditions would prevent this?
A history of hepatitis C five years previously.
Cholecystitis requiring cholecystectomy one year previously.
NCLEX Practice Exam 3 (40 Items)
Question 1
A patient is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of primary hyperparathyroidism. A nurse checking
the patient’s lab results would expect which of the following changes in laboratory findings?
Elevated serum calcium.
Low serum parathyroid hormone (PTH).
Elevated serum vitamin D.
Low urine calcium.
Question 1 Explanation:
The parathyroid glands regulate the calcium level in the blood. In hyperparathyroidism, the serum
calcium level will be elevated. Option B: Parathyroid hormone levels may be high or normal but not low.
Option C: The body will lower the level of vitamin D in an attempt to lower calcium. Option D: Urine
calcium may be elevated, with calcium spilling over from elevated serum levels. This may cause renal
stones.
Question 2
A patient with Addison’s disease asks a nurse for nutrition and diet advice. Which of the following diet
modifications is NOT recommended?
A diet high in grains.
A diet with adequate caloric intake.
A high protein diet.
A restricted sodium diet.
Question 2 Explanation:
A patient with Addison’s disease requires normal dietary sodium to prevent excess fluid loss. Adequate
caloric intake is recommended with a diet high in protein and complex carbohydrates, including grains.
Question 3
,A patient with a history of diabetes mellitus is on the second post-operative day following
cholecystectomy. She has complained of nausea and isn’t able to eat solid foods. The nurse enters the
room to find the patient confused and shaky. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for the
patient’s symptoms?
Anesthesia reaction.
Hyperglycemia.
Hypoglycemia.
Diabetic ketoacidosis.
Question 3 Explanation:
A post-operative diabetic patient who is unable to eat is likely to be suffering from hypoglycemia.
Confusion and shakiness are common symptoms. Option A: An anesthesia reaction would not occur on
the second postoperative day. Options B and D: Hyperglycemia and ketoacidosis do not cause confusion
and shakiness.
Question 4
A nurse assigned to the emergency department evaluates a patient who underwent fiberoptic
colonoscopy 18 hours previously. The patient reports increasing abdominal pain, fever, and chills. Which
of the following conditions poses the most immediate concern?
Bowel perforation
Viral gastroenteritis
Colon cancer.
Diverticulitis
Question 4 Explanation:
Bowel perforation is the most serious complication of fiberoptic colonoscopy. Important signs include
progressive abdominal pain, fever, chills, and tachycardia, which indicate advancing peritonitis. Options B
and C: Viral gastroenteritis and colon cancer do not cause these symptoms. Option D: Diverticulitis may
cause pain, fever, and chills, but is far less serious than perforation and peritonitis.
Question 5
A patient is admitted to the same day surgery unit for liver biopsy. Which of the following laboratory tests
assesses coagulation? (Select all that apply)
, Partial thromboplastin time
Prothrombin time
Platelet count
Hemoglobin
Question 5 Explanation:
Prothrombin time, partial thromboplastin time, and platelet count are all included in coagulation studies.
Option D: The hemoglobin level, though important information prior to an invasive procedure like liver
biopsy, does not assess coagulation.
Question 6
A nurse is assessing a clinic patient with a diagnosis of hepatitis A. Which of the following is the most likely
route of transmission?
Sexual contact with an infected partner
Contaminated food
Blood transfusion
Illegal drug use
Question 6 Explanation:
Hepatitis A is the only type that is transmitted by the fecal-oral route through contaminated food. Options
A, C, and D: Hepatitis B, C, and D are transmitted through infected bodily fluids.
Question 7
A leukemia patient has a relative who wants to donate blood for transfusion. Which of the following
donor medical conditions would prevent this?
A history of hepatitis C five years previously.
Cholecystitis requiring cholecystectomy one year previously.
