PHARM NUR 205 /PTCB Practice Exam I Questions/Answers (latest Update)2022/23

Practice Certification Exam I This practice exam has been designed to simulate the certification exam in both the number and style of questions as well as the content. You should be able to complete this exam within two hours. 1. Calculate the flow rate in drops per minute if a physician orders D5W/NS 1400 ml over 12 hr using an administration set that delivers 40 gtt/ml a. 87 gtt/ml b. 68 gtt/ml c. 117 gtt/ml d. 78 gtt/ml 2. The drug enalapril would be categorized into which of the following classification groups? a. beta-blocker b. ACE inhibitor c. NSAID d. Antiemetic 3. The retail price of a prescription is based on average wholesale price (AWP) plus a dispensing fee. Using the following fee table, calculate the retail price of a prescription for 30 tablets if a bottle of 100 tablets has an AWP of $76.78. a. $13.72 b. $23.03 c. $30.78 d. $32.91 4. Of the following prescription drugs, which cannot be prescribed with refills? a. Nifedipine b. Lorazepam c. Methylphenidate d. hydrocodone/acetaminophen 5. A technician answers the phone and the patient calling states that, after taking a medication she received from the pharmacy a few hours earlier, she is not feeling well and would like to know the side effects of the medication. The technician should: a. tell the patient the side effects of the medication, since they are commonly known to all pharmacy personnel b. put the patient on hold and notify the pharmacist of the situation c. ask the patient to hold while he looks up the side effects in a reference book d. tell the patient to lie down and maybe the side effects will wear off soon 6. Diphenhydramine is the generic name for which of these drugs? a. Benadryl b. Dramamine c. Bentyl d. Soma Tablets Dispensed Fee Detail ≤ 10 $5.00 11-20 $6.40 21-30 $7.75 31-40 $9.00 41-50 $10.00 50+ $10.50 7. A local dermatologist has special-ordered 60 g of 1.5% hydrocortisone cream for a patient. The pharmacy has in stock a 2.5% hydrocortisone cream and a 1% hydrocortisone cream. How much of each will the technician need to prepare this compound correctly? a. 40 g of 2.5% and 20 g of 1% b. 40 g of 1% and 20 g of 2.5% c. 30 g of each strength d. 45 g of 1% and 15 g of 2.5% 8. Who must initiate an order for an investigational drug for patient use? a. a pharmacy director b. a pharmacist c. a technician d. a physician 9. How many 500-mg metronidazole tablets will be needed to compound 150 ml of 3% metronidazole suspension? a. 7 b. 9 c. 10 d. 18 10. A medication given to reduce a fever is called: a. an analgesic b. an antitussive c. an anthelmintic d. an antipyretic 11. Medications that are prepackaged into unit-dose or unit-of-use containers must have the following information included on the package labeling: a. patient’s name, dispensing date, name of medication, and directions for use b. medication name and strength, lot number, and expiration date c. medication name and strength, lot number, and directions for use d. directions for use, medication name and strength, and expiration date 12. A patient brings the following prescription into your pharmacy: Amoxil 400 mg po tid for 10 days. Your pharmacy has in stock an Amoxil oral suspension 250 mg/5 ml. What is the exact volume of medication you will need to correctly and completely fill the prescription for the patient? a. 150 ml b. 168 ml c. 240 ml d. 200 ml 13. When mixing cytotoxic agents for intravenous use, what type of syringe is required? a. glass b. Luer-Loc c. slip-tip d. reusable 14. To what class of controlled substances does Lortab belong? a. II b. III c. IV d. V 15. Inventory turnover rate refers to: a. how often employees quit and new employees are hired to replace them b. how long it takes the pharmacy to process a new prescription c. how many times a year shelves are inspected for expired medications d. how often medications are used and reordered 16. The portion of the retail price of a prescription that the patient must pay is known as the: a. deductible -payment c. average wholesale price d. none of the above 17. How many capsules will it take to completely fill the following prescription: cephalexin 500 mg, i po tid × 14 days? a. 14 capsules b. 21 capsules c. 28 capsules d. 42 capsules 18. Prescription medications are often referred to as ____________ drugs because of the federal law that requires the packaging to display the following message: “Rx Only.” a. controlled b. legend c. prescription d. none of the above 19. Stock rotation is the task of making sure that: a. the shortest expiration date is in the back b. the longest expiration date is in the front c. the shortest expiration date is in the front d. a and b 20. Which of the following is classified as a beta-blocker? a. propranolol b. enalapril c. verapamil d. allopurinol 21. A patient in the hospital needs KCl 8 mEq IV stat. The pharmacy stocks KCl 2 mEq/ml in a 10-mL multidose vial. What is the correct volume to be drawn up? a. 2.5 mL b. 4 mL c. 0.4 mL d. 0.04 mL 22. What document is used by the pharmacy to pay the wholesaler for a drug order? a. packing slip b. invoice c. purchase order d. DEA Form 222c 23. The pharmacy receives a prescription for 4 oz of 5% ointment. The pharmacy stocks the ointment in strengths of 2% and 10%. To prepare the prescription, how much of each stock ointment is needed? a. 50 g of 2% and 70 g of 10% b. 12 g of 2% and 108 g of 10% c. 75 g of 2% and 45 g of 10% d. 45 g of 2% and 75 g of 10% 24. What is the correct temperature for storing an item in the refrigerator? a. 2 to 8°C b. less than 36°F c. 15 to 30°C d. 59 to 86°F 25. In an inpatient setting, the pharmacy must receive a direct copy of a physician’s order before filling an initial dose. Which of the following is not considered a direct copy? a. fax b. photocopy c. computer-generated transfer d. phone call acknowledging the verbal order 26. 300 mL of a Cipro 5% suspension contains how many grams of active ingredient? a. 1.5 g b. 15 g c. 3 g d. 30 g 27. The term used to refer to protection of a patient’s identity and health information is a. motility b. confidentiality c. mortality d. compatibility 28. According to federal law, what is the maximum number of refills permitted for a Schedule III controlled substance? a. six refills within one year b. three refills within 90 days c. five refills within six months d. no refills are allowed 29. In the NDC number , what does section “3110” identify? a. manufacturer b. drug product c. package size d. number of tablets in the bottle 30. The trade name for glipizide is a. Diabinese b. Micronase c. Glucophage d. Glucotrol 31. What is the total volume of D5W needed for a 24-hr period if the infusion runs at a rate of 125 ml/hr? a. 3000 mL b. 1000 mL c. 2400 mL d. 1250 mL 32. The recommended dose for gentamicin injection is 5 mg/kg/day in three divided doses. If a patient weighs 164 lb, how many milligrams should that patient receive for each dose? a. 25 mg b. 75 mg c. 124 mg d. 373 mg 33. Which of the following drugs is classed as an H2 antagonist? a. clonidine b. ranitidine c. loratadine d. clemastine 34. KCl supplements are most often used in combination with: a. labetalol b. lisinopril c. naproxen d. furosemide 35. If a patient calls in for refills on Prinivil and Diabeta, which of the following combinations of medications need to be filled for the patient? a. lisinopril and glipizide b. enalapril and glyburide c. enalapril and glipizide d. lisinopril and glyburide 36. How much neomycin powder must be added to fluocinolone cream to dispense an order for 60 g of fluocinolone cream with 0.5% neomycin? a. 120 mg b. 240 mg c. 300 mg d. 600 mg 37. Which of the sig codes given refers to the following directions: Take two tablets by mouth every 4 to 6 hr as needed? a. 2 tabs q4–6h prn b. 2 tabs po q4–6h prn c. 2 tabs po q4–6h d. a or c 38. The pharmacy receives an order for 10% ointment, but it stocks only 5% and 15%. In what ratio would the two stock ointments need to be mixed in order to compound the prescription order correctly? a. 1:1 b. 1:2 c. 2:1 d. 1:3 39. Which of the following drugs is most likely to cause photosensitivity? a. nifedipine b. naproxen c. tetracycline d. glyburide 40. After reconstitution, how many 250-mg doses of Claforan can be withdrawn from a 2-g vial? a. 2 doses b. 4 doses c. 6 doses d. 8 doses 41. A medication that should be protected from exposure to light is a. promethazine b. tetracycline c. erythromycin d. nitroglycerin 42. The blower on the laminar airflow workbench should remain on at all times. If it is turned off for any reason, it should remain on for at least ____________ before being used to prepare IV admixtures and other products. a. 15 minutes b. 1 hour -. 30 minutes d. 45 minutes 43. Which of the following needle sizes has the largest bore? a. 23 gauge -. 18 gauge c. 27 gauge d. 29 gauge 44. When metronidazole is dispensed for a patient, which auxiliary label should be affixed to the dispensing container? a. No alcohol b. No dairy products c. Take with food or milk d. May cause drowsiness 45. If 500 mL of a 15% solution is diluted to 1500 mL, how would you label the final strength of the solution? a. 20% b. 5% c. 0.05% d. 0.20% 46. A prescription reading “iii gtt a.s. tid prn pain” should have which set of directions printed on the dispensing label? a. Instill 3 drops in the left eye three times daily as needed for pain. b. Instill 3 drops in the left ear three times daily as needed for pain. c. Instill 3 drops in the right ear two times daily as needed for pain. d. Instill 3 drops in the right eye three times daily as needed for pain. 47. A patient with a penicillin allergy is most likely to exhibit a sensitivity to: a. tetracycline b. erythromycin c. cefaclor d. gentamicin 48. A Tylenol #3 tablet contains 30 mg of codeine. The amount of codeine is also equivalent to: a. 1/4 gr b. 1/2 gr c. 1 gr d. 2 gr 49. An IV infusion order is written for 1 L of D5W/0.45% NS to run over 12 hr. The set that will be used delivers 15 gtt/ml. What is the flow rate be in gtt/min? a. 7 b. 21 c. 25 d. 125 50. To ensure that it is working properly, the laminar airflow workbench should be inspected by qualified personnel at least: a. every six months b. every year c. every three years d. every five years 51. Zovirax and Epivir are both classed as ____________ agents. a. antimalarial b. tuberculosis c. antiviral d. antifungal 52. A physician writes an order for a patient to receive KCl 40 mEq/1 L NS @ 80 ml/hr. What amount of KCl will the patient receive per hour? a. 6.8 mEq b. 3.2 mEq c. 2.3 mEq d. 8.6 mEq 53. Na is the chemical symbol for which of the following elements? a. nitrogen b. potassium c. hydrochloride d. sodium 54. When withdrawing medication from an ampoule, what size filter needle will be sufficient to filter out any tiny glass fragments that might have fallen into the solution? a. 0.2 micron b. 0.5 micron c. 2 micron d. 5 micron 55. Which of the following conditions is the drug rifampin used to treat? a. influenza b. tuberculosis c. nail fungus d. urinary tract infection 56. When measuring liquid in a graduated cylinder, where is the volume of liquid read? a. top surface of the liquid b. top of the meniscus c. center of the meniscus d. bottom of the meniscus 57. How many grams of 2% silver nitrate ointment will deliver 1 g of the active ingredient? a. 25 g b. 4 g c. 50 g d. 20 g 58. The federal law enacted in 1970 that requires the use of child-resistant safety caps on all dispensing containers unless otherwise desired by the patient is known as the: a. Controlled Substances Act b. Poison Prevention Act c. Pure Food and Drug Act d. Harrison Narcotic Act 59. Into what size bottle will a prescription for 180 mL of cough syrup best fit? a. 2 oz b. 4 oz c. 6 oz d. 8 oz 60. If a patient should receive a medication at 15 mg/kg/day in three equally divided doses, what will be the approximate dose if the patient weighs 142 lb? a. 968 mg b. 323 mg c. 2904 mg d. 284 mg 61. If one of your pharmacy’s patients has had an adverse drug reaction, ____________ should be used to report it. a. the HCFA form b. the MedWatch form c. DEA Form 222c d. the Universal Claim Form 62. Of the following choices, which pair of drugs are H2 antagonists? a. Zantac and Prevacid b. Prinivil and Tagamet -. Pepcid and Zantac d. Vasotec and Motrin 63. A pharmacy wants to make a 30% profit on an item that costs $4.50. What would the retail selling price have to be in order to make such a profit? a. $6.23 b. $7.10 c. $5.85 d. $6.40 64. Which statement is true concerning the drug tetracycline? a. It should be given with food or milk for best absorption. b. It should not be given with milk products or antacids for best absorption. c. It should be given with milk because it is upsetting to the stomach. d. Exposure to sunlight will not affect a patient taking this medication. 65. Under what schedule of controlled substances does the drug temazepam fall? a. II b. III c. IV d. V 66. When storing an item at a controlled room temperature, the temperature of the room should be a. 2 to 8°C b. 36 to 46°F c. higher than 30°C d. 15 to 30°C 67. A list of medications that a physician may prescribe from within a given institutional setting is called: a. an MSDS b. a formulary c. a closed panel of drugs d. an open system 68. Which of the following is considered PHI under HIPAA regulations? a. patient address b. patient date of birth c. patient name d. all the above 69. If a vial slips from your hand while you are preparing an IV admixture and breaks on the floor or other surface, a spill kit must be used to clean the area if the vial contained which of the following medications? a. ceftriaxone b. potassium chloride c. amphotericin b d. vinblastine 70. During cleaning of the laminar airflow workbench while preparing to making IV admixtures, which of the following statements is true? a. The work surface should be cleaned first using a continuous side-to-side motion. b. 70% isopropyl alcohol should be sprayed onto the HEPA filter to ensure its cleanliness. c. The sides should be cleaned from top to bottom, working outward from the filter. d. The sides should be cleaned from top to bottom, working toward the filter. 71. What volume of 5% aluminum acetate solution will be needed if 120 mL of 0.05% solution is extemporaneously compounded for a prescription? a. 12 mL b. 1.2 mL c. 8.3 mL d. 0.83 mL 72. Ampicillin powder for injection should be reconstituted with and diluted in ____________ for best stability. a. D5W b. 0.9% sodium chloride c. Lactated Ringers d. 0.45% sodium chloride 73. How many 1-L bags will be needed if D5W is to run at 60 ml/hr for 20 hr? a. one bag b. two bags c. three bags d. four or more bags 74. What document is used by the wholesaler to pull the pharmacy’s order from its shelves? a. packing slip b. invoice c. purchase order d. DEA Form 222c 75. A pharmacy has 20 mL of a 1:200 solution in stock. If the pharmacist has asked the technician to dilute the solution to 500 mL, what will be the strength of the final product? a. 2% b. 2.5% c. 25% d. 0.02% 76. When an antibiotic injection is given in a small volume of solution that is connected to the main line of IV fluids the patient receives, it is commonly known as an: a. IV bag b. IV injection c. IV piggyback d. IV push 77. Although state laws differ on record retention, federal law requires that prescription records be kept for _____ year(s). a. 1 b. 5 c. 6 d. 7 78. The largest gelatin capsule used for extemporaneous compounding is a. 000 b. 0 c. 10 d. 5 79. All manipulations in the laminar airflow workbench should take place at least ____________ from within the front edge of the hood. a. 4 in. b. 6 in. c. 8 in. d. 10 in. 80. Which of the following drugs is classified as a calcium channel blocker? a. amlodipine b. atenolol c. enalapril d. nitroglycerin 81. When using a manual inventory system, items that need to be ordered are written down by all pharmacy personnel. This writing of a list of items that need to be ordered is referred to as: a. a purchase order b. an invoice c. a want book d. an MAR 82. Which of the following DEA numbers would not be valid for Dr. Ann Cosgrove? a. AC b. AC c. AC d. BC 83. Of all drug recall classes, a ____________ recall would not likely cause harm to the patient, because it is the least severe. a. Class I b. Class II c. Class III d. Class IV 84. The form used for ordering Schedule II narcotics is known as: a. DEA Form 240 b. DEA Form 222 c. DEA Form 121 d. DEA Form 200 85. Which of the following drugs requires special pharmacy handling and ordering? a. controlled substances b. chemotherapy drugs c. investigational drugs d. all the above 86. The Orange Book is most often used to find ____________. a. generic equivalents b. direct prices c. therapeutic equivalents d. manufacturers’ standards 87. Nursing station inspections are primarily the responsibility of the: a. nurse b. pharmacist c. pharmacy director d. pharmacy technician 88. Which of the following pairs of medications could cause a major drug–drug interaction if taken together by a patient? a. hydrocodone and naproxen b. warfarin and aspirin c. penicillin and trimethoprim d. glyburide and metformin 89. A patient takes NPH insulin according to the following dosage regimen: 35 units sq every morning and 15 units every evening. How many vials of insulin U-100 will the patient need for a 30-day supply? a. one vial b. two vials c. three vials d. four or more vials 90. Which of the following medications should always be dispensed in a glass container? a. aminophylline b. dopamine c. potassium d. nitroglycerin