PHARM NUR 205/ Practice Exam II (Questions And Answers)2022/23

Practice Certification Exam II This practice exam has been designed to simulate the certification exam in both the number and style of questions as well as the content. You should be able to complete this exam within two hours. 1. The device used to compound three-in-one total parenteral nutrition solutions is the: a. PhaSeal b. Automix c. Pyxis d. MedCarousel 2. A solid dosage form containing active and inactive ingredients and prepared either by compression or molding methods is a: a. Capsule b. Tablet c. Emulsion d. Paste 3. Atenolol is to Tenormin as Ramipril is to _____________. a. Accupril b. Lyrica c. Aciphex d. Altace 4. A method used to identify an employee’s individual strengths and weaknesses and provide the employer with information relative to the employee’s capacity for retention and promotion is the: a. personnel checklist b. process validation c. employee performance appraisal d. employee handbook 5. The ______________ is used to record what the pharmacy owes its suppliers and other creditors. a. accounts payable ledger b. accounts receivable ledger c. purchases journal d. cash receipts journal 6. Mixing calcium gluconate and sodium phosphate together in the same syringe will cause: a. Precipitation b. Incompatibility c. Intolerance d. Injunction 7. A preparation of finely divided undissolved drugs dispersed in a liquid vehicle is a. an elixir b. a solution c. a syrup d. a suspension 8. A ______________ is a system in which the item is deducted from inventory as it is sold or dispensed. a. Turnover b. Pyxis c. Baker cell d. POS system 9. Which of the following OTC drugs is contraindicated for a patient taking warfarin? a. Diphenhydramine b. Loratidine c. Psyllium d. Aspirin 10. Effective communication in pharmacy practice can be hindered by: a. visual impairment b. auditory loss c. speech impairment d. all of the above 11. Which of the following laws requires pharmacists to counsel Medicaid patients? a. Controlled Substances Act b. Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1990 c. Medicare Part D d. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act 12. A substance or a mixture of substances added to a tablet to facilitate its breakup or disintegration after administration is a: a. Terminator b. Disintegrator c. Binder d. Diluent 13. A solid dosage form in which the drug substance is enclosed in either a hard or soft soluble container or a shell of a suitable form of gelatin is a: a. Capsule b. Pill c. Tablet d. Suppository 14. What is the generic name for Effexor? a. Verdanafil b. Venlafaxine c. Verapamil d. Valacyclovir 15. The only drug approved to treat high blood pressure during pregnancy is a. Lidocaine b. Clonidine c. Metoprolol d. Methyldopa 16. The only antihypertensive drug available as a transdermal delivery system is a. Nicotine b. Clonidine c. Nitroglycerin d. Lidocaine 17. From the following information, calculate the amount in grams of cetyl ester wax needed to make 1 lb of cold cream: cetyl ester wax 12.5 parts white wax 12.0 parts mineral oil 56.0 parts sodium borate 0.5 parts water 19.0 parts a. 56.75 g b. 12.5 g c. 60g d. 0.125 g 18. The drug of choice for emergency IV therapy for arrhythmias is a. Lidocaine b. sodium bicarbonate c. dopamine d. adrenalin 19. The most important drug in managing atrial flutter and fibrillation is a. Digitalis b. Amlodipine c. Doxazosin d. Quinine 20. The antagonist to warfarin is a. Heparin b. Phytonadione c. Methyldopa d. penicillin VK 21. The ____________ provides guidelines for the recall of devices that could cause serious adverse effects. a. Safe Medical Devices Act b. Kefauver-Harris Amendment c. Durham-Humphrey Amendment d. Medical Device Amendment 22. Schedule II drugs are ordered using: a. DEA Form 224a b. DEA Form 222 c. DEA Form 363a d. DEA Form 510a 23. An imbalance between oxygen supply and oxygen demand in cardiac muscle may produce a condition known as: a. congestive heart failure b. heartburn c. myocardial infarction d. angina pectoris 24. From the following information, calculate in kilograms the quantity of miconazole needed to prepare 12 kg of powder zinc oxide 1 part calamine 2 parts miconazole 1.5 parts bismuth subgalate 3 parts talc powder 8 parts a. 15.5 kg b. 0.097 kg c. 1.16 kg d. 1.5 kg 25. Patients on thiazide diuretics are frequently told to take supplements of or eat foods that are high in which element? a. Calcium b. Sodium c. Chlorine d. Potassium 26. Which of the following auxiliary labels is needed on a prescription for tetracycline? a. take with food or milk b. may cause drowsiness c. do not drink alcohol d. may cause photosensitivity 27. When tablet by mouth 3 times daily.” T1T3 is an example of a(n): entering a prescription into the computer, the technician uses T1T3 for the directions “Take 1 a. pharmaceutical abbreviation b. national drug code c. bar code d. sig code 28. If state and federal guidelines are different on how long a pharmacy should retain its records, the pharmacy should: a. always follow the federal guidelines b. always follow the state guidelines c. follow the guideline that requires the records to be kept for the shortest period of time d. follow the guideline that requires the records to be kept for the longest period of time 29. A pharmacy technician dilutes a 1-g vial of cefazolin with 9.6 ml of sterile water. The resulting solution has a concentration of 100 mg/ml. How much solution should be drawn up for a 500-mg dose? a. 4.8 ml b. 3ml c. 10ml d. 5ml 30. How much sucralfate 1 gm/10 ml is required for a dose of 600 mg? a. 0.06 ml b. 0.6 ml c. 6ml d. 60ml 31. In pharmacies, how can controlled substances be stored? a. Controlled substances can be stored in an unlocked cabinet. b. Controlled substances can be stored in a securely locked, substantially constructed cabinet. c. Controlled substances (Schedule III through V) can be stored on the pharmacy shelves among noncontrolled substances in a manner designed to deter theft. d. either b or c 32. ____________ is a drug agent extracted from cattle lung. a. Proventil HFA b. Survanta c. Bonine d. Serevent 33. Patients taking ____________ should always be warned NOT to consume alcohol. a. Metronidazole b. Tetracycline c. Albuterol d. Prednisone 34. The ____________ was a direct result of the thalidomide disaster and made manufacturers more accountable for their products. a. Comprehensive Drug Abuse Prevention and Control Act b. Medical Device Amendment c. Durham-Humphrey Amendment d. Kefauver-Harris Amendment 35. Patients should be advised not to drink milk or eat dairy products while taking: a. calcium carbonate b. tetracycline c. penicillin d. calciferol 36. Patients should be advised to drink plenty of water and to avoid the sun while taking: a. TMP-SMZ b. Cephalexin c. Propranolol d. Warfarin 37. ____________ are a class of pharmaceutical agents that kill or inhibit the growth of infection- causing microorganisms. a. Anesthetics b. Antilipidemics c. Antibiotics d. Antihistamines 38. When a drug recall is issued, which of the following information is listed on the recall along with the drug name and strength? a. NDC b. c. d. 39. When a. b. c. d. lot number expiration date distribution date liquid medications are repackaged into oral syringes, the syringe must: not be amber in color be sterile not be able to accept a needle be made of glass 40. The agency that oversees the Controlled Substances Act is the: a. State Board of Pharmacy b. American Society of Health System Pharmacists c. Food and Drug Administration d. Drug Enforcement Agency 41. If a medication is taken “p.c.,” it will be taken: a. before meals b. around the clock c. after meals d. with meals 42. All of the following are true statements except: a. All controlled substances must be inventoried on the day the pharmacy first dispenses controlled substances. b. The inventory of Schedule II medications requires an exact count or measure, while other schedules may be estimated. c. Prescriptions are the primary records for the acquisition of controlled substances by a pharmacy. d. The beginning inventory plus all acquisitions minus dispensing by prescriptions or to other practitioners should equal the current inventory count. 43. A ____________ drug is active against both gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria. a. neg-gram b. bacteriostatic c. broad-spectrum d. narrow-spectrum 44. A patient weighs 165 lb. How many kilograms does the patient weigh? a. 165,000 kg b. 75kg c. 363 kg d. 330 kg 45. Which of the following vitamins is a fat-soluble vitamin? a. Thiamine b. Pyridoxine c. Cyanocobalamine d. Phytonadione 46. If an insurance company only pays for a 14 day supply and the prescription is for “i-ii po q4-6h,” what is the maximum number of tablets that can be dispensed? a. 56 b. 84 c. 168 d. 224 47. Which of the following dosage forms will best mask the bad taste of a drug? a. Suspension b. sublingual tablet c. chewable tablet d. gel-cap 48. The pharmacy receives an order for lidocaine 2 g in 250 ml of D5W to be infused at 1.5 mg/min. What is the flow rate in ml/hr? a. 11 ml/hr b. 22 ml/hr c. 33 ml/hr d. 44 ml/hr 49. Another term used to describe insulin-dependent diabetes is a. non–insulin-dependent diabetes b. Type I diabetes c. Type II diabetes d. diabetes insipidus 50. Oral contraceptives interact with: a. Antibiotics b. Anticonvulsants c. Antifungals d. all of the above 51. The pharmacy stocks potassium chloride in 20-mEq vials. The concentration of each vial is 2 mEq/ml. How many milliliters are needed for a 30-mEq dose? a. 2ml b. 15ml c. 20ml d. 30ml 52. The maximum allowable cost that an insurer will pay per tablet or dispensing unit for a given product is the: a. co-payment b. deductible c. U&C d. MAC 53. Estrogen is contraindicated with: a. Migraines b. Smokers c. thrombosis history d. all of the above 54. A substance with a high potential for abuse that has no currently accepted medical use in the United States and for which there is a lack of accepted safety for use would be classified as: a. C-I b. C-II c. C-III d. C-IV 55. What is the percentage strength of a solution if 1 gallon contains 150 grams of active ingredient? a. 0.396% b. 1% c. 1.5% d. 3.96% 56. The Anabolic Steroids Act of 1990 placed anabolic steroids into which controlled-substance category? a. C-II b. C-III c. C-IV d. C-V 57. The ____________ requires that most prescription drugs be dispensed in a childproof container. a. Poison Prevention Act b. Safe Medical Devices Act c. Prescription Drug Marketing Act d. Medical Device Amendment 58. ____________ should be taken with 8 oz of water before the first food of the day, and the patient must avoid lying down for at least 30 minutes after taking it. a. Miacalcin b. Didronel c. Fosamax d. Hydrocortisone 59. Digoxin a. an antihypertensive b. a calcium channel blocker c. an ACE inhibitor d. a cardiac glycoside 60. If a patient is allergic to opiods, he should avoid taking: a. Acetaminophen b. Morphine c. Aspirin d. Penicillin 61. Which of the following is used to induce labor contractions? a. Epinephrine b. Serotonin c. Dopamine d. Oxytocin 62. A medication that is used to manage high blood pressure is an: a. Antitussive b. Antihypertensive c. Antipyretic d. Antibiotic 63. The ____________ prohibits the sale of drug samples and reimportation of prescriptions and establishes fair pricing guidelines. a. Orphan Drug Act b. Prescription Drug Marketing Act c. Durham-Humphrey Amendment d. Kefauver-Harris Amendment 64. A decrease in susceptibility to a drug’s effects from continued use is known as: a. Addiction b. Synergism c. Sensitivity d. Tolerance 65. Which of the following DEA numbers is valid? is classified as: a. Dr. Russ b. Dr. Black c. Dr. Jones d. Dr. Smith AR AB56897 AJ CS 66. Which of the following is the agent of choice for accidental poisonings, when induction of vomiting is required? a. activated charcoal b. demulcents c. syrup of ipecac d. diphenhydramine elixir 67. Which of the following would provide the technician with the most up-to-date and complete information on how to place an inventory order? a. MSDS b. OSHA guidelines c. Pyxis User Manual d. Policy & Procedures Manual 68. The rate at which inventory is used is called: a. sales journal b. sales volume c. turnover d. net profit 69. Low blood glucose is known as: a. Glucosuria b. Hypoglycemia c. Polyuria d. Hyperglycemia 70. Certain controlled substances do not bear the federal caution legend and may be sold without a prescription. These products have small quantities of controlled substances included in them and may be sold if certain requirements are met and the proper records are kept. The restrictions on the sale include the following except: a. The sale must be made by the pharmacist or a certified pharmacy technician. b. The purchaser must be at least 18 and must either be known to the pharmacist or have substantial identification. c. Not more than 8 oz or more than 48 dosage units of any substance containing opium in any 48-hr period may be furnished to the purchaser. Not more than 4 oz or 24 dosage units of any other controlled substance may be sold in any 48-hr period. d. Pharmacists must maintain a record of the sale in a bound book. 71. Sources of insulin include all of the following except: a. Cow b. Horse c. Pig d. Human 72. According to federal law, written prescriptions must contain all of the following information except the: a. patient’s phone number b. physician’s phone number c. drug name and strength d. date written 73. A possible cross-sensitivity to __________ is possible for a patient with a severe allergy to penicillin. a. Cephalosporins b. Sulfonamides c. Macrolides d. Antihypertensives 74. Convert the ratio strength of 1:5000 to a percent strength. a. 0.0002% b. 0.002% c. 0.02% d. 2% 75. The highlighted section of the National Drug Code indentifies the: a. Manufacturer b. the drug’s name, strength, and dosage form c. the package size d. bothaandc e. all of the above 76. Upon a. rotate the drug to the front of the stock b. destroy the drug c. follow the pharmacy P&P regarding expired drugs d. call the FDA for disposal of the drug 77. A _______-micron filter is commonly used to filter solutions withdrawn from ampoules. a. 0.2 b. 0.5 c. 2 d. 5 78. The ____________ is a document that contains the goals, policies, and procedures relevant to the employee and the job the employee is assuming. a. employee handbook b. corporate prospectus c. planogram d. administration handbook 79. The ____________ is used to record the balances that private patients, government agencies, insurance companies, managed-care contractors, and insurers owe the pharmacy. a. balance sheet b. accounts receivable ledger c. cash disbursements journal d. sales journal 80. Control of the amount, type, and quality of health care provided to patients within a benefit program is referred to as: a. b. c. d. 81. 1 pint a. b. c. d. = health insurance managed care benefit plans pharmaceutical care ________ml 30 473 946 3785 discovery of an expired drug, the pharmacy technician should: 82. The principle that states that patients have the right to full disclosure of all relevant aspects of care and must give explicit consent to treatment before treatment is initiated is a. Confidentiality b. Fidelity c. informed consent d. moral reasoning 83. The provision of drug therapy intended to achieve outcomes that improve the patient’s quality of life as it is related to the cure or prevention of a disease, elimination or reduction of a patient’s symptoms, or arresting or slowing of a disease process is a. pharmaceutical care b. managed care c. socialized medicine d. practice of pharmacy 84. The FDA recall of a product that will cause serious or fatal consequences is classified as: a. Class I b. Class II c. Class III d. Class IV 85. Devices: a. do not have any restrictions b. are defined as instruments, apparatuses, implements, machines, etc. c. may be restricted to sale only on the written or oral order of a practitioner licensed to administer such a device d. both b and c 86. ____________ is a company that buys from the manufacturer and sells to hospitals, pharmacies, and other pharmaceutical dispensers. a. The Food and Drug Administration b. A wholesaler c. A retailer d. A mass merchandiser 87. Drugs that are not intended to be sold by a pharmacy, but are intended to promote the sale of that particular drug, are known as: a. legend drugs b. sample drugs c. investigational drugs d. over-the-counter drugs 88. The ____________ created the legend class of drugs. a. Comprehensive Drug Abuse Prevention and Control Act b. Medical Device Amendment c. Durham-Humphrey Amendment d. Kefauver-Harris Amendment 89. Mixing ingredients in order to provide a prescription for a specific patient or a small group of patients is known as: a. Manufacturing b. Compressing c. Compounding d. Adjudication 90. A prescription is written for 1 lb of 3% salicylic acid in white petrolatum. How many milligrams of salicylic acid are needed? a. 13,620 mg b. 13.62 mg c. 1362 mg d. 48mg