HESI MED SURG EXAM A&B

HESI MED SURG EXAM A&B What instruction should the nurse include in the discharge teaching plan of a client who had a cataract extraction today? a. sexual activities may be resumed upon return home b. light housekeeping is permitted but avoid heavy lifting c. use a metal eye shield on operative eye during the day d. administer eye ointment before applying eye drops - b. light housekeeping is permitted but avoid heavy lifting A male adult comes to the urgent care clinic 5 days after being diagnosed with influenza. He is short of breath, febrile, and coughing green colored sputum. Which intervention should the nurse implement first? a. Obtain a sputum sample for culture b. Check his oxygen saturation level c. Administer an oral antipyretic d. Auscultate bilateral lung sound - a. obtain a sputum sample for culture An elder male client tells the nurse that he is loosing sleep because he has to get up several times at night to go to the bathroom that he has trouble starting his urinary stream and that he does not feel like his bladder is ever completely empty. Which intervention should the nurse implement? a. collect a urine specimen for culture analysis b. obtain a fingerstick blood glucose level c. palpate the bladder above the symphysis pubis d. review the client fluid intake - c. palpate the bladder above the symphysis pubis An adult client is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) and a urinary tract infection (UTI) Prescriptions for intravenous antibiotics and insulin infusion are initiated. Which serum laboratory value warrants the most immediate intervention by the nurse? a. blood ph of 7.30 b. glucose of 350 mg /dl c. white blood cell count of 15000mm d. potassium of 2.5 meq/l - d. potassium of 2.5 meq/l A client with sickle cell anemia develops a fever during the last hour of administration of a unit of packed red blood cell. When notifying the healthcare provider what information should the nurse provide first using the SBAR communication process? a. explain specific reason for urgent notification b. preface the report by stating the clients name and admitting diagnosis c. communicate the pre-transfusion temperatures d. optain prn prescription for acetaminophen for fever 101f - a. explain specific reason for urgent notification An adult male client is admitted for pneumocystis carinil pneumonia (PCP) secondary to aids. While hospitalized he receives IV pentamidine isethionate therapy. In preparing this client for discharge what important aspect regarding his medication therapy should the nurse explain? a. AZT therapy must be stopped when IV aerosol pentamine is being used. b. IV pentamine will be given until oral pentamine can be tolerated c. It will be necessary to continue prophylactic doses of IV or aerosol pentamine every month d. IV pentamine may offer protection to others aids related conditions such as kaposis sarcoma - c. it will be necessary to continue prophylactic doses of IV or aerosol pentamine every month A client subjective data includes dysuria, urgency, and urinary frequency. What action should the nurse implement next? a. collect a clean catch specimen b. palpate the suprapubic region c. instruct to wipe from front to back d. inquire about recent sexual activity - a. collect a clean catch specimen A client tells the nurse that her biopsy results indicate that the cancer cells are well differentiated How should the nurse respond? a. offer the client reassurance that this information indicates that the clients cancer cells are benign b. explain that these tissue cells often respond more effectively to radiation than to chemotherapy c. ask the client if the healthcare provider has given her any information about the classification of her cancer d. help the client make plans to begin immediate treatment since her cancer is likely to spread quickly - c. ask the client if the healthcare provider has given her any information about the classification of her cancer A client with a chronic kidney disease is treated on hemodialysis. During the 1 treatment clients blood pressure drops from 150/90 to 80/30 Which action should the nurse take first? a. monitor bp q45 minutes b. lower the head of the chair and elevate feet c. stop dialysis treatment d. administer 5% albumin IV - c. stop dialysis treatment A client with deep vain thrombosis (DVT) is receiving a continues infusion of heparin sodium 25,000 unit in 5% dextrose injection 250ml. The prescription indicates the dosage should be increase 900 units/hr. The nurse should program the infusion pump to deliver how many ml/hr? - 9 mL/hour The nurse is obtaining the admission history for a client with suspected peptic ulcer disease (PUD). Which subjective data reported by the client supports this diagnosis? a. upper mid abdominal gnawing and burning pain b. severe abdominal cramps and diarrhea after eating spicy foods c. marked loss of weight and appetite over the last few months d. use of chewable and liquid antacids for indigestion - a. upper mid abdominal gnawing and burning pain The nurse is providing preoperative education for a jewish client schedule to receive a xenograft graft to promote burn healing. Which information should the nurse provide this client? a. the xenograft is taken from nonhuman sources b. grafting increases the risk for bacterial infection c. as the burn heals the graft permanently attaches d. grafts are later removed by debriding procedure - a. the xenograft is taken from nonhuman sources A client who took a camping vacation two weeks ago in a country with a tropical climate comes to the clinic describing vague symptoms and diarrhea for the past week. Which finding is most important for the nurse to report? a. jaundice sclera b. intestinal cramping c. weakness and fatigue d. weight loss - a. jaundice sclera During a home visit the nurse assesses the skin of a client with eczema who reports that an exacerbation of symptoms has occurred during the last week. Which information is most useful in determining the possible cause of the symptoms? a. an old friend with eczema came for visit b. recently received an influenza immunization c. corticosteroid cream was applied to eczema d. a grandson and his new dog recently visited - d. a grandson and his new dog recently visited When explaining dietary guidelines to a client with acute glomerulonephritis (AGN) which instruction should the nurse include in the dietary teaching? a. select a protein rich food daily b. restrict sodium intake c. eat high potassium foods d. Avoid foods high in carbohydrate - b. restrict sodium intake A male client who is 24hr post operative for an exploratory laparoctomy complains that he is starving because he has had no real food since before surgery. Prior to advancing his diet which intervention should the nurse implememt? a. discontinue intravenous therapy b. Assess for abdominal distension and tenderness c. Obtain a prescription for a diet change d. Auscultate bowel sound in all four quadrants - d. auscultate bowel sounds in all four quadrants A client diagnosed with stable angina secondary to ischemic heart disease has a prescription for sublingual (SL) nitroglycerin (NTG). The nurse should tell the client to follow which instructions if chest pain is not relieved after taking 3 NTG tablets 5 min apart? a. drive to the nearest emergency department b. take another NTG SL tablet and lie down until angina subsides c. call primary healthcare provider d. call 911 if pain is unrelieved and chew a tablet of aspirin 325mg - d. call 911 if pain is unrelieved and chew a tablet of aspirin 325 mg After taking orlistat (Xenical) for one week a female client tells the home health nurse that she is experiencing increasingly frequent oily stools and flatus. What action should the nurse take? a. obtain stool specimen to evaluate for occult blood and fat content b. instruct the client to increase her intake of saturated fats over the next week c. ask the client to describe her dietary intake history for the last several days d. advice the client to stop taking the drug and contact the healthcare provider - c. ask the client to describe her dietary intake history for the last several days Two days after an abscess of the chin was drained the client returns to the clinic with fever chills and a maculopapular rash with pruritis. The client has taken an oral antibiotic and cleansed the wound today with provide iodine (Betadine) solution. Which intervention should the nurse implement first? a. determine if the client has a history of diabetes b. assess airway patency and oxygen saturation c. review recent medication history and allergies d. obtain samples for complete blood count and cultures - b. assess airway patency and oxygen saturation A client experiences an ABO incompatibility reaction after multiple blood transfusions. Which finding should the nurse report immediately to the health care provider? a. low back pain and hypotension b. rhinitis and nasal stuffiness c. delayed painful rash with urticarial d. arthritic joint changes and chronic pain - a. low back pain and hypotension A young adult male who has had type 2 diabetes mellitus (DM) is admitted to the intensive care unit with hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome (HHNS). A sliding scale protocol for an isotonic IV solution with regular insulin is prescribed based on the results of a continuous blood glucose monitoring device that is attached to the client's central venous catheter. When the client's respirations become labored and his lungs sound indicate crackles what action should the nurse take? a. collect a specimen for a white blood cell count and cultures b. determine the clients glycosylated hemoglobin (A1C) c. administer insulin IV push until the clients fluid volume is adjusted d. decrease infusion rate to address fluid overload - d. decrease infusion rate to address fluid overload When preparing to apply a fentanyl (Duragesic) transdermal patch the nurse notes that the previously applied patch is intact on the client's upper back and the client denies pain. What action should the nurse take? a. Remove the patch and consult with the healthcare provider about the client pain resolution b. Place the patch on the clients shoulder and leave both patches in place for 12 hours c. Administer an oral analgesic and evaluate its effectiveness before applying a new patch d. Apply a new patch in a different location after removing the original patch - d. apply a new patch in a different location after removing the original patch A client who had a myocardial infarction is admitted to the coronary critical care unit (CCU) with a nitroglycerin drip infusing. The clients last blood pressure measurements was 78/36. What action should the nurse implement? a. obtain blood pressure q5 minutes using duranap machine b. change the dilution of the nitroglycerin infusion c. reduce the rate of the nitroglycerin infusion d. begin dopamine infusion at 5mcg/kg per minute - c. reduce the rate of the nitroglycerin infusion An adolescent is admitted to the hospital because of a suicide attempt with an overdose of acetaminophen (Tylenol). Which blood values are most important for the nurse to monitor during the first 72 hours following ingestion of this overdose? a. BUN creatinine specific gravity b. White blood count, hemoglobin hematocrit c. PH,PCO2, HC03 d. LDH OR LD, SGOT OR ALT, SGPT OR AST - d. LDH or LD, SGOT or ALT, SGPT or AST acetaminophen is processed by the liver An elderly post-operative female client is receiving morphine sulfate via a PCA pump. Which assessment finding should prompt a nurse to administer the prescribed PRN medication naloxone? a. her respiratory rate is 7 breath/minute b. she indicates that she feels as if she cannot get enough air to breath c. she has intercostal retractions and bilateral wheezing is auscultated d. her pulse oximeter is 89% on room air - a. her respiratory rate is 7 breaths/minute Which assessment finding indicates to the nurse that the muscarinic agent bethanechol (Urecholine) is effective for a client diagnosed with urinary retention? a. urinary output equal to intake b. no terminal urinary dribbling c. denies stress incontinence d. absence of xerostomia - a. urinary output equal to intake Following involvement in a motor vehicle collision, a middle aged adult client is admitted to the hospital with multiple facial fractures. The client's blood alcohol level is high on admission. Which PRN prescription should be administer if the clients begins to exhibit signs and symptoms of delirium tremens (DT s)? a. Lorazepam (Ativan) 2mg IM b. Chlorpromazine (thorazine) 50 mg IM c. Prochlorperazine (Compazine) 5 mg IM d. Hydromorphone (Dilaudid) 2 mg IM - a. lorazepam (Ativan) 2mg IM Which instructions should the nurse include in the teaching plan of a client who is taking the diuretic spironolactone (Aldactone)? a. call the healthcare provider if you develop gynecomastia b. Take the medication in the morning c. Avoid caffeine and smoking d. Increase your consumption of bananas and oranges - b. take the medication in the morning (You would want to decrease your consumption of potassium) A glucagon emergency kit is prescribed for a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus. When should the nurse instruct the client to take the glucagon? a. after meals to increase endogenous insulin secretion b. after insulin administration to prevent hypoglycemia c. when recognized signs of severe hypoglycemia occur d. when unable to eat during sick days - c. when recognized signs of severe hypoglycemia occur A client with hyperthyroidism is being treated with radioactive iodine (I-131). Which explanation should be included in preparing this client for this treatment? a. describe radioactive iodine as a tasteless, colorless medication administered by the healthcare provider b. explain the need for using lead shields for 2 to 3 weeks after the treatment c. describe the signs of goiter because this is a common side effects of radioactive iodine d. explain that relief of the signs/ symptoms of hyperthyroidism will occur immediately - a. describe radioactive iodine as a tasteless, colorless medication administered by the healthcare provider A female client is being treated for tuberculosis with rifampin (rifadin) which statement indicates that further teaching is needed? - I will take my usual contraceptive for birth control A client is discharged with a prescription for warfarin (Coumadin). What discharge instructions should the nurse emphasize to the client? a. take a multi vitamin supplement daily b. use an astringent for superficial bleeding c. avoid going barefoot especially outside d. include large amounts of spinach in the diet - c. avoid going barefoot, especially outside In caring for a client with diabetes insipidus who is receiving an antidiuretic hormone intranasal which serum lab test is most important for the nurse to monitor? a. osmolality b. calcium c. platelets d. glucose - a. osmolality After administering dihydroergotamine (Migranal) 1 mg subcutaneously to a client with a severe migraine headache the nurse should explain that relief can be expected within what time frame? a. 2 hours b. 5 minutes c. 1 hour d. 15 minutes - d. 15 minutes A client with hypertension who has been taking labetalol for two weeks, reports a five pound (2.2 kg) weight gain. Which follow up assessment is most important for the nurse to obtain? a. capillary refill b. body temperature c. muscle strength d. breath sounds - d. breath sounds A male client is receiving pilocarpine hydrochloride (Isopto Carpine) ophthalmic drops for glaucoma. He calls the clinic and ask the nurse why he has difficulty seeing at night. What explanation should the nurse provide? a. The eye drops slow pupil response to accommodate for darkness b. The drops increase the fluid in the eyes and cloud the visual field ( possible answer) c. The drug can cause lens to become more opaque d. The medication causes pupils to dilate which reduces night vision - a. the eye drops slow pupil response to accommodate for darkness A client who is taking and oral dose of tetracycline complains of gastrointestinal upset. What snack should the nurse instruct the client to take with the tetracycline? a. toasted wheat bread and jelly b. cheese and crackers c. cold cereal with skim milk d. fruit flavored yogurt - ed wheat bread and jelly The therapeutic effect of insulin in treating type 1 diabetes mellitus is based on which physiologic action? a. Facilitates transport of glucose into the cell b. Increases intracellular receptor site sensitivity c. Stimulates function of beta cells in the pancreas d. Delays carbohydrates digestion and absorption - a. facilitates transport of glucose into the cell The health care provider prescribe a medication for an older adult client who is complaining of insomnia. And instructs the client to return in 2 weeks. The nurse should question which prescription? a. Eszoplicone (Lunesta)10 mg orally at bed time b. Zolpidem 10 mg orally at bed time c. Temazepan orally at bed time d. Ramelteon orally at bedtime - a. eszoplicone (Lunesta) 10mg PO at bedtime A male client reports to the nurse that he is experiencing GI distress from high dose of a corticosteroid and is planning to stop taking the medication. In response to the client's statement what nursing action is most important for the nurse to take? a. Encourage the client to take medication with food to decrease GI distress b. Advice the client that the medication should be stopped gradually rather than abruptly. c. Review the clients dosing schedule to ensure he is taking the prescribed amount d. Assess the client for other indication of adverse effects of corticosteroid - b. advise the client that the medication should be stopped gradually rather than abruptly Fifteen minutes after receiving sulfa athenozole. A male client report a burning sensation over his abdomen chest and groin. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement? a. Auscultate lung sounds for wheezing b. Review the clients list if drugs allergies c. Add sulfamethinozole to clients allergies d. Check neurological vital signs - b. review the clients list of drug allergies Antibiotic resistant organism are a major infection control problems. To help minimize the emergence of resistant bacteria what instruction should the nurse provide to the clients? a. stop taking prescribed antibiotics when symptoms decrease b. avoid using antibiotics when suffering from colds or the flu c. ask the healthcare provider to prescribe the newest antibiotic when needed d. request a prescription for first time vancomysin for a sore throat - b. avoid using antibiotics when suffering from colds or the flu A client with symptoms of influenza that started the previous day ask the clinic nurse about taking oseltamivir (Tamiflu) to treat the infection. Which response should the nurse provide? a. Advise the client once symptoms occur is too late to receive an influenza vaccination b. Refer the client to the healthcare provider at the clinic to obtain a medication prescription c. Explain to the client that antibiotics are not useful in treating viral infections such as influenza d. Instruct the client that over the counter medications are sufficient to manage influenza symptoms - b. refer the client to the healthcare provider at the clinic to obtain a medication prescription Twenty minutes after the nurse starts a secondary IV infusion of cafepime (maxipime) 2 grams using an infusion pump to deliver the dose in one hour, the client reports feeling nauseated. What action should the nurse implement? a. stop medication infusion and notify the healthcare provider of the adverse effect b. increase the rate of the infusion to complete the dose of the medication more rapidly c. continue the infusion and administer a prn antiemetic prescription d. reassure the client that the nausea is not related to the iv infusion - c. continue the infusion and administer a PRN antiemetic prescription The nurse administer donepezil hydrochloride (Aricept) to a client with Alzheimer's disease as an intervention for which client problem? a. fluid volume excess b. disturbed thought processes c. chronic pain d. altered breathing patterns - b. disturbed thought processes To prevent deep vein thrombosis following knee replacement surgery, an adult male client is receiving enoxaparin (Lovenox) subcutaneously daily. Which laboratory finding requires immediate action by the nurse? a. blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 20mg/dl or 7.1 mmol/L (SI) b. Hematocrit 45% c. Serum creatinine 1.0 mg/dl or 88.4 mol/L (SI) d. Platelet count of 100,000/mm3 or 100x10??/ L (SI) - d The nurse is assessing a 48-year-old client with a history of smoking during a routine clinic visit. The client, who exercises regularly, reports having pain in the calf during exercise that disappears at rest. Which of the following findings requires further evaluation? 1. Heart rate 57 bpm. 2. SpO2 of 94% on room air. 3. Blood pressure 134/82. 4. Ankle-brachial index of 0.65. - 4 An Ankle-Brachial Index of 0.65 suggests moderate arterial vascular disease in a client who is experiencing intermittent claudication. A Doppler ultrasound is indicated for further evaluation. The bradycardic heart rate is acceptable in an athletic client with a normal blood pressure. The SpO2 is acceptable; the client has a smoking history. An overweight client taking warfarin (Coumadin) has dry skin due to decreased arterial blood flow. What should the nurse instruct the client to do? Select all that apply. 1. Apply lanolin or petroleum jelly to intact skin. 2. Follow a reduced-calorie, reduced-fat diet. 3. Inspect the involved areas daily for new ulcerations. 4. Instruct the client to limit activities of daily living (ADLs). 5.Use an electric razor to shave - 1,2,3,5 Maintaining skin integrity is important in preventing chronic ulcers and infections. The client should be taught to inspect the skin on a daily basis. The client should reduce weight to promote circulation; a diet lower in calories and fat is appropriate. Because the client is receiving Coumadin, the client is at risk for bleeding from cuts. To decrease the risk of cuts, the nurse should suggest that the client use an electric razor. The client with decreased arterial blood flow should be encouraged to participate in ADLs. In fact, the client should be encouraged to consult an exercise physiologist for an exercise program that enhances the aerobic capacity of the body. A client with peripheral vascular disease has undergone a right femoral-popliteal bypass graft. The blood pressure has decreased from 124/80 to 94/62. What should the nurse assess first? 1. IV fluid solution. 2. Pedal pulses. 3. Nasal cannula flow rate. 4. Capillary refill - 2 With each set of vital signs, the nurse should assess the dorsalis pedis and posterior tibial pulses. The nurse needs to ensure adequate perfusion to the lower extremity with the drop in blood pressure. IV fluids, nasal cannula setting, and capillary refill are important to assess; however, priority is to determine the cause of drop in blood pressure and that adequate perfusion through the new graft is maintained. The nurse is caring for a client with peripheral artery disease who has recently been prescribed clopidogrel (Plavix). The nurse understands that more teaching is necessary when the client states which of the following: 1. "I should not be surprised if I bruise easier or if my gums bleed a little when brushing my teeth." 2. "It doesn't really matter if I take this medicine with or without food, whatever works best for my stomach." 3. "I should stop taking Plavix if it makes me feel weak and dizzy." 4. "The doctor prescribed this medicine to make my platelets less likely to stick together and help prevent clots from forming." - 3 Weakness, dizziness, and headache are common adverse effects of Plavix and the client should report these to the physician if they are problematic; in order to decrease risk of clot formation, Plavix must be taken regularly and should not be stopped or taken intermittently. The main adverse effect of Plavix is bleeding, which often occurs as increased bruising or bleeding when brushing teeth. Plavix is well absorbed, and while food may help decrease potential gastrointestinal upset, Plavix may be taken with or without food. Plavix is an antiplatelet agent used to prevent clot formation in clients who have experienced or are at risk for myocardial infarction, ischemic stroke, peripheral artery disease, or acute coronary syndrome. A client is receiving Cilostazol (Pletal) for peripheral arterial disease causing intermittent claudication. The nurse determines this medication is effective when the client reports which of the following? 1. "I am having fewer aches and pains." 2. "I do not have headaches anymore." 3. "I am able to walk further without leg pain." 4. "My toes are turning grayish black in color." - 3 Cilostazol is indicated for management of intermittent claudication. Symptoms usually improve within 2 to 4 weeks of therapy. Intermittent claudication prevents clients from walking for long periods of time. Cilostazol inhibits platelet aggregation induced by various stimuli and improving blood flow to the muscles and allowing the client to walk long distances without pain. Peripheral arterial disease causes pain mainly of the leg muscles. "Aches and pains" does not specify exactly where the pain is occurring. Headaches may occur as a side effect of this drug, and the client should report this information to the health care provider. Peripheral arterial disease causes decreased blood supply to the peripheral tissues and may cause gangrene of the toes; the drug is effective when the toes are warm to the touch and the color of the toes is similar to the color of the body. The client admitted with peripheral vascular disease (PVD) asks the nurse why her legs hurt when she walks. The nurse bases a response on the knowledge that the main characteristic of PVD is: 1. Decreased blood flow. 2. Increased blood flow. 3. Slow blood flow. 4. Thrombus formation. - 1 Decreased blood flow is a common characteristic of all PVD. When the demand for oxygen to the working muscles becomes greater than the supply, pain is the outcome. Slow blood flow throughout the circulatory system may suggest pump failure. Thrombus formation can result from stasis or damage to the intima of the vessels. The nurse is planning care for a client who is diagnosed with peripheral vascular disease (PVD) and has a history of heart failure. The nurse should develop a plan of care that is based on the fact that the client may have a low tolerance for exercise related to: 1. Decreased blood flow. 2. Increased blood flow. 3. Decreased pain. 4. Increased blood viscosity. - 1 A client with PVD and heart failure will experience decreased blood flow. In this situation, low exercise tolerance (oxygen demand becomes greater than the oxygen supply) may be related to less blood being ejected from the left ventricle into the systemic circulation. Decreased blood supply to the tissues results in pain. Increased blood viscosity may be a component, but it is of much less importance than the disease processes. When assessing the lower extremities of a client with peripheral vascular disease (PVD), the nurse notes bilateral ankle edema. The edema is related to: 1. Competent venous valves. 2. Decreased blood volume. 3. Increase in muscular activity. 4. Increased venous pressure. - 4 In PVD, decreased blood flow can result in increased venous pressure. The increase in venous pressure results in an increase in capillary hydrostatic pressure, which causes a net filtration of fluid out of the capillaries into the interstitial space, resulting in edema. Valves often become incompetent with PVD. Blood volume is not decreased in this condition. Decreased muscular action would contribute to the formation of edema in the lower extremities. The nurse is obtaining the pulse of a client who has had a femoral-popliteal bypass surgery 6 hours ago. (See below) Which assessment provides the most accurate information about the client's postoperative status? 1. radial pulse 2. femoral pulse 3. apical pulse 4. dorsalis pedis pulse - 4 The presence of a strong dorsalis pedis pulse indicates that there is circulation to the extremity distal to the surgery indicating that the graft between the femoral and popliteal artery is allowing blood to circulate effectively. Answer 1 shows the nurse obtaining the radial pulse; answer 2 shows the femoral pulse, which is proximal to the surgery site and will not indicate circulation distal to the surgery site. Answer 3 shows the nurse obtaining an apical pulse. The nurse is teaching a client about risk factors associated with atherosclerosis and how to reduce the risk. Which of the following is a risk factor that the client is not able to modify? 1. Diabetes. 2. Age. 3. Exercise level. 4. Dietary preferences - 2 Age is a nonmodifiable risk factor for atherosclerosis. The nurse instructs the client to manage modifiable risk factors such as comorbid diseases (eg, diabetes), activity level, and diet. Controlling serum blood glucose levels, engaging in regular aerobic activity, and choosing a diet low in saturated fats can reduce the risk of developing atherosclerosis. The nurse is assessing the lower extremities of the client with peripheral vascular disease (PVD). During the assessment, the nurse should expect to find which of the following clinical manifestations of PVD? Select all that apply. 1. Hairy legs. 2. Mottled skin. 3. Pink skin. 4. Coolness. 5. Moist skin. - 2,4 Reduction of blood flow to a specific area results in decreased oxygen and nutrients. As a result, the skin may appear mottled. The skin will also be cool to the touch. Loss of hair and dry skin are other signs that the nurse may observe in a client with PVD of the lower extremities. The nurse is unable to palpate the client's left pedal pulses. Which of the following actions should the nurse take next? 1. Auscultate the pulses with a stethoscope. 2. Call the physician. 3. Use a Doppler ultrasound device. 4. Inspect the lower left extremity - 3 When pedal pulses are not palpable, the nurse should obtain a Doppler ultrasound device. Auscultation is not likely to be helpful if the pulse isn't palpable. Inspection of the lower extremity can be done simultaneously when palpating, but the nurse should first try to locate a pulse by Doppler. Calling the physician may be necessary if there is a change in the client's condition. Which of the following lipid abnormalities is a risk factor for the development of atherosclerosis and peripheral vascular disease? 1. Low concentration of triglycerides. 2. High levels of high-density lipid (HDL) cholesterol. 3. High levels of low-density lipid (LDL) cholesterol. 4. Low levels of LDL cholesterol. - 3 An increased LDL cholesterol concentration has been documented as a risk factor for the development of atherosclerosis. LDL cholesterol is not broken down in the liver but is deposited into the intima of the blood vessels. Low triglyceride levels are desirable. High HDL and low LDL levels are beneficial and are known to be protective for the cardiovascular system. When assessing an individual with peripheral vascular disease, which clinical manifestation would indicate complete arterial obstruction in the lower left leg? 1. Aching pain in the left calf. 2. Burning pain in the left calf. 3. Numbness and tingling in the left leg. 4. Coldness of the left foot and ankle - 4 Coldness in the left foot and ankle is consistent with complete arterial obstruction. Other expected findings would include paralysis and pallor. Aching pain, a burning sensation, or numbness and tingling are earlier signs of tissue hypoxia and ischemia and are commonly associated with incomplete obstruction. A client with peripheral vascular disease returns to the surgical care unit after having femoral-popliteal bypass grafting. Indicate in which order the nurse should conduct assessment of this client. 1. Postoperative pain. 2. Peripheral pulses. 3. Urine output. 4. Incision site. - (2,4,3,1) Because assessment of the presence and quality of the pedal pulses in the affected extremity is essential after surgery to make sure that the bypass graft is functioning, this step should be done first. The nurse should next ensure that the dressing is intact, and then that the client has adequate urine output. Lastly, the nurse should determine the client's level of pain. A client with heart failure has bilateral +4 edema of the right ankle that extends up to midcalf. The client is sitting in a chair with the legs in a dependent position. Which of the following goals is the priority? 1. Decrease venous congestion. 2. Maintain normal respirations. 3. Maintain body temperature. 4. Prevent injury to lower extremities. - 1 Decreasing venous congestion in the extremities is a desired outcome for clients with heart failure. The nurse should elevate the client's legs above the level of the heart to achieve this goal. The client is not demonstrating difficulty breathing or being cold. The nurse should prevent injury to the swollen extremity; however, this is not the priority. The nurse is assessing an older Caucasian male who has a history of peripheral vascular disease. The nurse observes that the man's left great toe is black. The discoloration is probably a result of: 1. Atrophy. 2. Contraction. 3. Gangrene. 4. Rubor. - 3 The term gangrene refers to blackened, decomposing tissue that is devoid of circulation. Chronic ischemia and death of the tissue can lead to gangrene in the affected extremity. Injury, edema, and decreased circulation lead to infection, gangrene, and tissue death. Atrophy is the shrinking of tissue, and contraction is joint stiffening secondary to disuse. The term rubor denotes a reddish color of the skin A client has peripheral vascular disease (PVD) of the lower extremities. The client tells the nurse, "I've really tried to manage my condition well." Which of the following routines should the nurse evaluate as having been appropriate for this client? 1. Resting with the legs elevated above the level of the heart. 2. Walking slowly but steadily for 30 minutes twice a day. 3. Minimizing activity. 4. Wearing antiembolism stockings at all times when out of bed - 2 Slow, steady walking is a recommended activity for clients with peripheral vascular disease because it stimulates the development of collateral circulation. The client with PVD should not remain inactive. Elevating the legs above the heart or wearing antiembolism stockings is a strategy for alleviating venous congestion and may worsen peripheral arterial disease A client is scheduled for an arteriogram. The nurse should explain to the client that the arteriogram will confirm the diagnosis of occlusive arterial disease by: 1. Showing the location of the obstruction and the collateral circulation. 2. Scanning the affected extremity and identifying the areas of volume changes. 3. Using ultrasound to estimate the velocity changes in the blood vessels. 4. Determining how long the client can walk. - 1 An arteriogram involves injecting a radiopaque contrast agent directly into the vascular system to visualize the vessels. It usually involves computed tomographic scanning. The velocity of the blood flow can be estimated by duplex ultrasound. The client's ankle-brachial index is determined, and then the client is requested to walk. The normal response is little or no drop in ankle systolic pressure after exercise. A client is scheduled to have an arteriogram. During the arteriogram, the client reports having nausea, tingling, and dyspnea. The nurse's immediate action should be to: 1. Administer epinephrine. 2. Inform the physician. 3. Administer oxygen. 4. Inform the client that the procedure is almost over. - 2 .Clients may have an immediate or a delayed reaction to the radiopaque dye. The physician should be notified immediately because the symptoms suggest an allergic reaction. Treatment may involve administering oxygen and epinephrine. Explaining that the procedure is over does not address the current symptoms Which of the following is an expected outcome when a client is receiving an IV administration of furosemide? 1. Increased blood pressure. 2. Increased urine output. 3. Decreased pain. 4. Decreased premature ventricular contractions. - 2 Furosemide is a loop diuretic that acts to increase urine output. Furosemide does not increase blood pressure, decrease pain, or decrease arrhythmias. A client has had a pulmonary artery catheter inserted. In performing hemodynamic monitoring with the catheter, the nurse will wedge the catheter to gain information about which of the following? 1. Cardiac output. 2. Right atrial blood flow. 3. Left end-diastolic pressure. 4. Cardiac index - 3 When wedged, the catheter is "pointing" indirectly at the left end-diastolic pressure. The pulmonary artery wedge pressure is measured when the tip of the catheter is slowing inflated and allowed to wedge into a branch of the pulmonary artery. Once the balloon is wedged, the catheter reads the pressure in front of the balloon. During diastole, the mitral valve is open, reflecting left ventricular end diastolic pressure. Cardiac output is the amount of blood ejected by the heart in 1 minute and is determined through thermodilution and not wedge pressure. Cardiac index is calculated by dividing the client's cardiac output by the client's body surface area, and is considered a more accurate reflection of the individual client's cardiac output. Right atrial blood pressure is not measured with the pulmonary artery catheter. After a myocardial infarction, the hospitalized client is taught to move the legs while resting in bed. The expected outcome of this exercise is to: 1. Prepare the client for ambulation. 2. Promote urinary and intestinal elimination. 3. Prevent thrombophlebitis and blood clot formation. 4. Decrease the likelihood of pressure ulcer formation. - 3 Encouraging the client to move the legs while in bed is a preventive strategy taught to all clients who are hospitalized and on bed rest to promote venous return. The muscular action aids in venous return and prevents venous stasis in the lower extremities. These exercises are not intended to prepare the client for ambulation. These exercises are not associated with promoting urinary and intestinal elimination. These exercises are not performed to decrease the risk of pressure ulcer formation Which of the following is the most appropriate diet for a client during the acute phase of myocardial infarction? 1. Liquids as desired. 2. Small, easily digested meals. 3. Three regular meals per day. 4. Nothing by mouth - 2 Recommended dietary principles in the acute phase of MI include avoiding large meals because small, easily digested foods are better tolerated. Fluids are given according to the client's needs, and sodium restrictions may be prescribed, especially for clients with manifestations of heart failure. Cholesterol restrictions may be prescribed as well. Clients are not prescribed diets of liquids only or restricted to nothing by mouth unless their condition is very unstable. The nurse is caring for a client who recently experienced a myocardial infarction and has been started on clopidogrel (Plavix). The nurse should develop a teaching plan that includes which of the following points? Select all that apply. 1. The client should report unexpected bleeding or bleeding that lasts a long time. 2. The client should take Plavix with food. 3. The client may bruise more easily and may experience bleeding gums. 4. Plavix works by preventing platelets from sticking together and forming a clot. 5. The client should drink a glass of water after taking Plavix. - 1,3,4 Plavix is generally well absorbed and may be taken with or without food; it should be taken at the same time every day and, while food may help prevent potential GI upset, food has no effect on absorption of the drug. Bleeding is the most common adverse effect of Plavix; the client must understand the importance of reporting any unexpected, prolonged, or excessive bleeding including blood in urine or stool. Increased bruising and bleeding gums are possible side effects of Plavix; the client should be aware of this possibility. Plavix is an antiplatelet agent used to prevent clot formation in clients that have experienced or are at risk for myocardial infarction, ischemic stroke, peripheral artery disease, or acute coronary syndrome. It is not necessary to drink a glass of water after taking Plavix. Which client is at greatest risk for coronary artery disease? 1. A 32-year-old female with mitral valve prolapse who quit smoking 10 years ago. 2. A 43-year-old male with a family history of CAD and cholesterol level of 158 (8.8 mmol/L). 3. A 56-year-old male with an HDL of 60 (3.3 mmol/L) who takes atorvastatin. 4. A 65-year-old female who is obese with an LDL of 188 (10.4 mmol/L). - 4 The woman who is 65 years old, overweight, and has an elevated LDL is at greatest risk. Total cholesterol greater than 200 (11.1 mmol/L), LDL greater than 100 (5.5 mmol/L), HDL less than 40 (2.2 mmol/L) in men, HDL less than 50 (2.8 mmol/L) in women, men 45 years and older, women 55 years and older, smoking and obesity increase the risk of CAD. Atorvastatin reduces LDL and decreases risk of CAD. The combination of postmenopausal, obesity, and high LDL places this client at greatest risk. . A middle-aged adult with a family history of CAD has the following: total cholesterol 198 (11 mmol/L); LDL cholesterol 120 (6.7 mmol/L); HDL cholesterol 58 (3.2 mmol/L); triglycerides 148 (8.2 mmol/L); blood sugar 102 (5.7 mmol/L); and Creactive protein (CRP) 4.2. The health care provider prescribes a statin medication and aspirin. The client asks the nurse why these medications are needed. Which is the best response by the nurse? 1. "The labs indicate severe hyperlipidemia and the medications will lower your LDL, along with a low-fat diet." 2. "The triglycerides are elevated and will not return to normal without these medications." 3. "The CRP is elevated indicating inflammation seen in cardiovascular disease, which can be lowered by the medications prescribed." 4. "These medications will reduce the risk of type 2 diabetes." - 3 CRP is a marker of inflammation and is elevated in the presence of cardiovascular disease. The high sensitivity CRP (hs-CRP) is the blood test for greater accuracy in measuring the CRP to evaluate cardiovascular risk. The family history, postmenopausal age, LDL above optimum levels, and elevated CRP place the client at risk of CAD. Statin medications can decrease LDL, whereas statins and aspirin can reduce CRP and decrease the risk of MI and stroke. The blood sugar is within normal limits. The client has been managing angina episodes with nitroglycerin. Which of the following indicate the drug is effective? 1. Decreased chest pain. 2. Increased blood pressure. 3. Decreased blood pressure. 4. Decreased heart rate - 1 Nitroglycerin acts to decrease myocardial oxygen consumption. Vasodilation makes it easier for the heart to eject blood, resulting in decreased oxygen needs. Decreased oxygen demand reduces pain caused by heart muscle not receiving sufficient oxygen. While blood pressure may decrease ever so slightly due to the vasodilation effects of nitroglycerine, it is only secondary and not related to the angina the patient is experiencing. Increased blood pressure would mean the heart would work harder, increasing oxygen demand and thus angina. Decreased heart rate is not an effect of nitroglycerine. If a client displays risk factors for coronary artery disease, such as smoking cigarettes, eating a diet high in saturated fat, or leading a sedentary lifestyle, techniques of behavior modification may be used to help the client change the behavior. The nurse can best reinforce new adaptive behaviors by: 1. Explaining how the risk factor behavior leads to poor health. 2. Withholding praise until the new behavior is well established. 3. Rewarding the client whenever the acceptable behavior is performed. 4. Instilling mild fear into the client to extinguish the behavior. - 3 A basic principle of behavior modification is that behavior that is learned and continued is behavior that has been rewarded. Other reinforcement techniques have not been found to be as effective as reward. Alteplase recombinant, or tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA), a thrombolytic enzyme, is administered during the first 6 hours after onset of myocardial infarction (MI) to: 1. Control chest pain. 2. Reduce coronary artery vasospasm. 3. Control the arrhythmias associated with MI. 4. Revascularize the blocked coronary artery. - 4 The thrombolytic agent t-PA, administered intravenously, lyses the clot blocking the coronary artery. The drug is most effective when administered within the first 6 hours after onset of MI. The drug does not reduce coronary artery vasospasm; nitrates are used to promote vasodilation. Arrhythmias are managed by antiarrhythmic drugs. Surgical approaches are used to open the coronary artery and re-establish a blood supply to the area. After the administration of t-PA, the nurse should: 1. Observe the client for chest pain. 2. Monitor for fever. 3. Review the 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG). 4. Auscultate breath sounds - 1 Although monitoring the 12-lead ECG and monitoring breath sounds are important, observing the client for chest pain is the nursing assessment priority because closure of the previously obstructed coronary artery may recur. Clients who receive t- PA frequently receive heparin to prevent closure of the artery after administration of t- PA. Careful assessment for signs of bleeding and monitoring of partial thromboplastin time are essential to detect complications. Administration of t-PA should not cause fever. When monitoring a client who is receiving tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA), the nurse should have resuscitation equipment available because reperfusion of the cardiac tissue can result in which of the following? 1. Cardiac arrhythmias. 2. Hypertension. 3. Seizure. 4. Hypothermia. - 1 Cardiac arrhythmias are commonly observed with administration of t-PA. Cardiac arrhythmias are associated with reperfusion of the cardiac tissue. Hypotension is commonly observed with administration of t-PA. Seizures and hypothermia are not generally associated with reperfusion of the cardiac tissue. Prior to administering tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA), the nurse should assess the client for which of the following contradictions to administering the drug? 1. Age greater than 60 years. 2. History of cerebral hemorrhage. 3. History of heart failure. 4. Cigarette smoking. - 2 A history of cerebral hemorrhage is a contraindication to administration of t- PA because the risk of hemorrhage may be further increased. Age greater than 60 years, history of heart failure, and cigarette smoking are not contraindications. A client has driven himself to the emergency department. He is 50 years old, has a history of hypertension, and informs the nurse that his father died from a heart attack at age 60. The client has indigestion. The nurse connects him to an electrocardiogram monitor and begins administering oxygen at 2 L/min per nasal cannula. The nurse's next action should be to: 1. Call for the physician. 2. Start an IV infusion. 3. Obtain a portable chest radiograph. 4. Draw blood for laboratory studies - 2 Advanced cardiac life support recommends that at least one or two IV lines be inserted in one or both of the antecubital spaces. Calling the physician, obtaining a portable chest radiograph, and drawing blood for the laboratory are important but secondary to starting the IV line. Crackles heard on lung auscultation indicate which of the following? 1. Cyanosis. 2. Bronchospasm. 3. Airway narrowing. 4.Fluid-filled alveoli. - 4 Crackles are auscultated over fluid-filled alveoli. Crackles heard on lung auscultation do not have to be associated with cyanosis. Bronchospasm and airway narrowing generally are associated with wheezing sounds. A 68-year-old client on day 2 after hip surgery has no cardiac history but reports having chest heaviness. The first nursing action should be to: 1. Inquire about the onset, duration, severity, and precipitating factors of the heaviness. 2. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula. 3. Offer pain medication for the chest heaviness. 4. Inform the physician of the chest heaviness. - 1 Further assessment is needed in this situation. It is premature to initiate other actions until further data have been gathered. Inquiring about the onset, duration, location, severity, and precipitating factors of the chest heaviness will provide pertinent information to convey to the physician. The nurse is assessing an older adult with a pacemaker who leads a sedentary lifestyle. The client reports being unable to perform activities that require physical exertion. The nurse should further assess the client for which of the following? 1. Left ventricular atrophy. 2. Irregular heartbeats. 3. Peripheral vascular occlusion. 4. Pacemaker placement - 1 In older adults who are less active and do not exercise the heart muscle, atrophy can result. Disuse or deconditioning can lead to abnormal changes in the myocardium of the older adult. As a result, under sudden emotional or physical stress, the left ventricle is less able to respond to the increased demands on the myocardial muscle. Decreased cardiac output, cardiac hypertrophy, and heart failure are examples of the chronic conditions that may develop in response to inactivity, rather than in response to the aging process. Irregular heartbeats are generally not associated with an older sedentary adult's lifestyle. Peripheral vascular occlusion or pacemaker placement should not affect response to stress. . Following diagnosis of angina pectoris, a client reports being unable to walk up two flights of stairs without pain. Which of the following measures would most likely help the client prevent this problem? 1. Climb the steps early in the day. 2. Rest for at least an hour before climbing the stairs. 3. Take a nitroglycerin tablet before climbing the stairs. 4. Lie down after climbing the stairs. - 3 Nitroglycerin may be used prophylactically before stressful physical activities such as stair climbing to help the client remain pain free. Climbing the stairs early in the day would have no impact on decreasing pain episodes. Resting before or after an activity is not as likely to help prevent an activity-related pain episode. The client who experiences angina has been told to follow a low-cholesterol diet. Which of the following meals would be best? 1. Hamburger, salad, and milkshake. 2. Baked liver, green beans, and coffee. 3. Spaghetti with tomato sauce, salad, and coffee. 4. Fried chicken, green beans, and skim milk - 3 Pasta, tomato sauce, salad, and coffee would be the best selection for the client following a low-cholesterol diet. Hamburgers, milkshakes, liver, and fried foods tend to be high in cholesterol. The nurse should caution the client with diabetes mellitus who is taking a sulfonylurea that alcoholic beverages should be avoided while taking these drugs because they can cause which of the following? 1. Hypokalemia. 2. Hyperkalemia. 3. Hypocalcemia. 4.Disulfiram (Antabuse)-like symptoms - 4 A client with diabetes who takes any first- or second-generation sulfonylurea should be advised to avoid alcohol intake. Sulfonylureas in combination with alcohol can cause serious disulfiram (Antabuse)-like reactions, including flushing, angina, palpitations, and vertigo. Serious reactions, such as seizures and possibly death, may also occur. Hypokalemia, hyperkalemia, and hypocalcemia do not result from taking sulfonylureas in combination with alcohol. Which of the following conditions is the most significant risk factor for the development of type 2 diabetes mellitus? 1. Cigarette smoking. 2. High-cholesterol diet. 3. Obesity. 4. Hypertension. - 3 The most important factor predisposing to the development of type 2 diabetes mellitus is obesity. Insulin resistance increases with obesity. Cigarette smoking is not a predisposing factor, but it is a risk factor that increases complications of diabetes mellitus. A high-cholesterol diet does not necessarily predispose to diabetes mellitus, but it may contribute to obesity and hyperlipidemia. Hypertension is not a predisposing factor, but it is a risk factor for developing complications of diabetes mellitus. Which of the following indicates a potential complication of diabetes mellitus? 1. Inflamed, painful joints. 2. Blood pressure of 160/100 mm Hg. 3. Stooped appearance. 4. Hemoglobin of 9 g/dL (90 g/L). - 2 The client with diabetes mellitus is especially prone to hypertension due to atherosclerotic changes, which leads to problems of the microvascular and macrovascular systems. This can result in complications in the heart, brain, and kidneys. Heart disease and stroke are twice as common among people with diabetes mellitus as among people without the disease. Painful, inflamed joints accompany rheumatoid arthritis. A stooped appearance accompanies osteoporosis with narrowing of the vertebral column. A low hemoglobin concentration accompanies anemia, especially iron deficiency anemia and anemia of chronic disease. The nurse is teaching the client about home blood glucose monitoring. Which of the following blood glucose measurements indicates hypoglycemia? 1. 59 mg/dL (3.3 mmol/L). 2. 75 mg/dL (4.2 mmol/L). 3. 108 mg/dL (6 mmol/L). 4. 119 mg/dL (6.6 mmol/L). - 1 Although some individual variation exists, when the blood glucose level decreases to less than 70 mg/dL (3.9 mmol/L), the client experiences or is at risk for hypoglycemia. Hypoglycemia can occur in both type 1 and type 2 diabetes mellitus, although it is more common when the client is taking insulin. The nurse should instruct the client on the prevention, detection, and treatment of hypoglycemia. Assessment of the diabetic client for common complications should include examination of the: 1. Abdomen. 2. Lymph glands. 3. Pharynx. 4. Eyes. - 4 Diabetic retinopathy, cataracts, and glaucoma are common complications in diabetics, necessitating eye assessment and examination. The feet should also be examined at each client encounter, monitoring for thickening, fissures, or breaks in the skin; ulcers; and thickened nails. Although assessments of the abdomen, pharynx, and lymph glands are included in a thorough examination, they are not pertinent to common diabetic complications. The client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is taught to take isophane insulin suspension NPH (Humulin N) at 5 PM each day. The client should be instructed that the greatest risk of hypoglycemia will occur at about what time? 1. 11 AM, shortly before lunch. 2. 1 PM, shortly after lunch. 3. 6 PM, shortly after dinner. 4.1 AM, while sleeping - 4 The client with diabetes mellitus who is taking NPH insulin (Humulin N) in the evening is most likely to become hypoglycemic shortly after midnight because this insulin peaks in 6 to 8 hours. The client should eat a bedtime snack to help prevent hypoglycemia while sleeping. A nurse is teaching a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus who jogs daily about the preferred sites for insulin absorption. What is the most appropriate site for a client who jogs? 1. Arms. 2. Legs. 3. Abdomen. 4. Iliac crest. - 3 If the client engages in an activity or exercise that focuses on one area of the body, that area may cause inconsistent absorption of insulin. A good regimen for a jogger is to inject the abdomen for 1 week and then rotate to the buttock. A jogger may have inconsistent absorption in the legs or arms with strenuous running. The iliac crest is not an appropriate site due to a lack of loose skin and subcutaneous tissue in that area. A client with diabetes is taking insulin lispro (Humalog) injections. The nurse should advise the client to eat: 1. Within 10 to 15 minutes after the injection. 2. 1 hour after the injection. 3. At any time, because timing of meals with lispro injections is unnecessary. 4. 2 hours before the injection. - 1 Insulin lispro (Humalog) begins to act within 10 to 15 minutes and lasts approximately 4 hours. A major advantage of Humalog is that the client can eat almost immediately after the insulin is administered. The client needs to be instructed regarding the onset, peak, and duration of all insulin, as meals need to be timed with these parameters. Waiting 1 hour to eat may precipitate hypoglycemia. Eating 2 hours before the insulin lispro could cause hyperglycemia if the client does not have circulating insulin to metabolize the carbohydrate. The best indicator that the client has learned how to give an insulin self injection correctly is when the client can: 1. Perform the procedure safely and correctly. 2. Critique the nurse's performance of the procedure. 3. Explain all steps of the procedure correctly. 4. Correctly answer a posttest about the procedure - 1 The nurse should judge that learning has occurred from the evidence of a change in the client's behavior. A client who performs a procedure safely and correctly demonstrates that he has acquired a skill. Evaluation of this skill acquisition requires performance of that skill by the client with observation by the nurse. The client must also demonstrate cognitive understanding, as shown by the ability to critique the nurse's performance. Explaining the steps demonstrates acquisition of knowledge at the cognitive level only. A posttest does not indicate the degree to which the client has learned a psychomotor skill. The nurse is instructing the client on insulin administration. The client is performing a return demonstration for preparing the insulin. The client's morning dose of insulin is 10 units of regular and 22 units of NPH. The nurse checks the dose accuracy with the client. The nurse determines that the client has prepared the correct dose when the syringe reads how many units? - 32 units Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors may be prescribed for the client with diabetes mellitus to reduce vascular changes and possibly prevent or delay development of: 1. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). 2. Pancreatic cancer. 3. Renal failure. 4. Cerebrovascular accident. - 3 Renal failure frequently results from the vascular changes associated with diabetes mellitus. ACE inhibitors increase renal blood flow and are effective in decreasing diabetic nephropathy. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is not a complication of diabetes, nor is it prevented by ACE inhibitors. Pancreatic cancer is neither prevented by ACE inhibitors nor considered a complication of diabetes. Cerebrovascular accident is not directly prevented by ACE inhibitors, although management of hypertension will decrease vascular disease. The nurse should teach the diabetic client that which of the following is the most common symptom of hypoglycemia? 1. Nervousness. 2. Anorexia. 3. Kussmaul's respirations. 4. Bradycardia. - 1 The four most commonly reported signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia are nervousness, weakness, perspiration, and confusion. Other signs and symptoms include hunger, incoherent speech, tachycardia, and blurred vision. Anorexia and Kussmaul's respirations are clinical manifestations of hyperglycemia or ketoacidosis. Bradycardia is not associated with hypoglycemia; tachycardia is. The nurse is assessing the client's use of medications. Which of the following medications may cause a complication with the treatment plan of a client with diabetes? 1. Aspirin. 2. Steroids. 3. Sulfonylureas. 4. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors - 2 Steroids can cause hyperglycemia because of their effects on carbohydrate metabolism, making diabetic control more difficult. Aspirin is not known to affect glucose metabolism. Sulfonylureas are oral hypoglycemic agents used in the treatment of diabetes mellitus. ACE inhibitors are not known to affect glucose metabolism. A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus has influenza. The nurse should instruct the client to: 1. Increase the frequency of self-monitoring (blood glucose testing). 2. Reduce food intake to diminish nausea. 3. Discontinue that dose of insulin if unable to eat. 4. Take half of the normal dose of insulin - 1 Colds and influenza present special challenges to the client with diabetes mellitus because the body's need for insulin increases during illness. Therefore, the client must take the prescribed insulin dose, increase the frequency of blood glucose testing, and maintain an adequate fluid intake to counteract the dehydrating effect of hyperglycemia. Clear fluids, juices, and Gatorade are encouraged. Not taking insulin when sick, or taking half the normal dose, may cause the client to develop ketoacidosis. Which of the following is a priority goal for the diabetic client who is taking insulin and has nausea and vomiting from a viral illness or influenza? 1. Obtaining adequate food intake. 2. Managing own health. 3. Relieving pain. 4. Increasing activity. - 1 The priority goal for the client with diabetes mellitus who is experiencing vomiting with influenza is to obtain adequate nutrition. The diabetic client should eat small, frequent meals of 50 g of carbohydrate or food equal to 200 cal every 3 to 4 hours. If the client cannot eat the carbohydrates or take fluids, the health care provider should be called or the client should go to the emergency department. The diabetic client is in danger of complications with dehydration, electrolyte imbalance, and ketoacidosis. Increasing the client's health management skills is important to lifestyle behaviors, but it is not a priority during this acute illness of influenza. Pain relief may be a need for this client, but it is not the priority at this time; neither is increasing activity during the illness. A client with diabetes begins to cry and says, "I just cannot stand the thought of having to give myself a shot every day." Which of the following would be the best response by the nurse? 1. "If you do not give yourself your insulin shots, you will die." 2. "We can teach your daughter to give the shots so you will not have to do it." 3. "I can arrange to have a home care nurse give you the shots every day." 4. "What is it about giving yourself the insulin shots that bothers you?" - 4 The best response is to allow the client to verbalize her fears about giving herself a shot each day. Tactics that increase fear are not effective in changing behavior. If possible, the client needs to be responsible for her own care, including giving selfinjections. It is unlikely that the client's insurance company will pay for home-care visits if the client is capable of self-administration. A client is to have a transsphenoidal hypophysectomy to remove a large, invasive pituitary tumor. The nurse should instruct the client that the surgery will be performed through an incision in the: 1. Back of the mouth. 2. Nose. 3. Sinus channel below the right eye. 4.Upper gingival mucosa in the space between the upper gums and lip. - 4 With transsphenoidal hypophysectomy, the sella turcica is entered from below, through the sphenoid sinus. There is no external incision; the incision is made between the upper lip and gums. To help minimize the risk of postoperative respiratory complications after a hypophysectomy, during preoperative teaching, the nurse should instruct the client how to: 1. Use incentive spirometry. 2. Turn in bed. 3. Take deep breaths. 4. Cough. - 3 Deep breathing is the best choice for helping prevent atelectasis. The client should be placed in the semi-Fowler's position (or as prescribed) and taught deep breathing, sighing, mouth breathing, and how to avoid coughing. Blow bottles are