Mark Klimek Written 12 Lectures in 90 Pages with added Figures

Mark Klimek Blue Book
1. In Abruptio Placenta, the placenta ____________ from the uterine wall ____________.

- Separates; prematurely

2. Abruptio Placenta usually occurs in (prima/multi) gravida over the age of ____________.

- Multigravida, 35 (HTN, trauma, cocaine)

3. How is the bleeding of Abruptio Placenta different from that in Placenta Previa?

- Usually painful; bleeding is more voluminous in placenta previa

4. If you are the nurse starting the IV on the client with Abruptia Placenta, what gauge needle should you
use?

- 18 (in preparation to give blood if necessary)

5. How often should you measure the VS, vaginal bleeding, fetal HR during Abruptio Placenta?

- Q5-15 minutes for bleeding,
- maternal VS and continuous fetal Monitoring Deliver baby at earliest sign of fetal distress

6. How is an infant delivered when Abruptio Placenta is present?

- Usually C-section

7. Is there a higher or lower incidence of fetal death with Abruptio Placenta compared to Placenta Previa?

- Higher

8. In what trimester does Abruptio Placenta most commonly occur?

- Third

9. At what age are accidental poisonings most common?

- 2 years old

10. If a child swallows a potentially poisonous substance, what should be done first?

- Call for medical help

11. Should vomiting be induced after ingestion of gasoline?

- No- not for gas or any other petroleum products
12. When taking a child to the ER after accidental poisoning has occurred what must accompany the child to
the ER?

- the suspected poison




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,13. An elderly client is a (high/low) risk for accidental poisoning? What about a school age child?

- high - due to poor eyesight
- high

14. What types of chemicals cause burns to oral mucosa when ingested?

- Lye, caustic cleaners

15. Children at highest risk for seizure activity after ingestion are those who have swallowed _____________
and ______________.

- drugs; insecticides

16. Can impaired skin integrity ever be an appropriate nursing diagnosis when poisoning has occurred?

- Yes, when Lye or caustic agents have been ingested

17. What is the causative organism of acne?

- P. acnes (propionibacterium acnes)

18. What structures are involved in acne vulgaris?

- The sebaceous glands

19. Name 3 drugs given for acne?

1. Vitamin A
2. Antibiotics
3. Retinoids

20. Dietary indiscretions and uncleanliness are causes of acne?

- False

21. What are the 3 causative factors in acne vulgaris?

1. Hereditary
2. Bacterial
3. Hormonal

22. Uncleanliness is a cause of acne?

- False

23. What is the most common retinoid given to people with acne?

- Accutane

24. Accutane is an analog of which vitamin?

- Vitamin A




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,25. What is the most common side effect of accutane? And what is the most important in health teaching in
administration?

- Inflammation of the lips;
- Causes birth defects

26. What is the antibiotic most commonly given to clients with acne?

- Tetracycline

27. How long will it take for the person to see results when acne is being treated?

- 4 to 6 weeks

28. Does stress make acne worse?

- Yes

29. How often should the client with acne wash his face each day?

- Twice a day

30. What instructions do you give to a client taking Tetracycline?

- Take it on an empty stomach and avoid the sunlight (photosensitivity)

31. What are comedones?

- Blackheads and white heads

32. What virus causes AIDS?

- HIV (Human immunodeficiency virus)

33. The AIDS virus invades the helper ____________.

- T-lymphocytes (or CD4 cells)
34. AIDS is transmissible through what four routes?

1. Blood
2. Sexual contact
3. Breast feeding
4. Across placenta in utero

35. HIV is present in all body fluids?

- No; only through blood, semen and breast milk

36. Name the 5 risk groups for AIDS

1. Homosexual/bisexual men
2. IV drug users
3. Hemophiliacs
4. Heterosexual partners of infected people
5. Newborn children of infected women



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, 37. What is the first test for HIV antibodies?

- ELISA

38. What test confirms the ELISA?

- Western Blot

39. Which test is the best indicator of the PROGRESS of HIV disease?

- CD4 count

40. A CD4 count of under __________ is associated with the onset of AIDS-related symptoms.

- 500

41. A CD4 count of under _______ is associated with the onset of OPPORTUNISTIC INFECTIONS.

- 200

42. Give 6 symptoms of HIV disease.

1. anorexia
2. fatigue
3. weakness
4. diarrhea
5. night sweats
6. fever

43. Which 2 classes of drugs are given in combination for HIV sero-positivity?

1. NRTI's (Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitors)
and PI's (Protease Inhibitors)

2. They prevent viral replication.

44. NRTI (nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors)

- An antiviral drug used against HIV

- Is incorporated into the DNA of the virus and stops the building process; results in incomplete DNA that
cannot create a new virus; often used in combination with other drugs

45. PI's (Protease inhibitors)

- Most potent of antiviral meds Inhibit cell protein synthesis that interferes with viral replication.
- Does not cure but slows progression of AIDS
- Prolongs life, used prophylactically and used in AIDS to decrease viral load and opportunistic infections.

46. What do NRTIs and PI's do?

- They prevent viral replication.

47. What does the physician hope to achieve with NRTIs and PI's for HIV?

- A delayed onset of AIDS for as long as possible (usually can delay onset for 10-15 years)


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