OVER 175 EXAM PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS HESI FUNDAMENTALS
PRACTICE (2021-2022)
, OVER 175 EXAM PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS HESI FUNDAMENTALS
PRACTICE (2021-2022)
B
Rationale: Because the nurse can only stand on one side of the bed, bed rails should be up on the
opposite side to ensure that the client does not fall out of bed. Option A can cause client injury to the
skin or joint. Options C and D are useful techniques while turning a client but have less priority in terms
of safety than use of the bed rails. - CORRECT ANSWER When turning an immobile bedridden client
without assistance, which action by the nurse best ensures client safety?
A. Securely grasp the client's arm and leg.
B. Put bed rails up on the side of bed opposite from the nurse.
C. Correctly position and use a turn sheet.
D. Lower the head of the client's bed slowly.
B
Rationale: Careful handwashing technique is the single most effective intervention for the prevention of
contamination to all clients. Option A reverses the hypovolemia that initially accompanies burn trauma
but is not related to decreasing the proliferation of infective organisms. Options C and D are
recommended by various burn centers as possible ways to reduce the chance of infection. Option B is a
proven technique to prevent infection. - CORRECT ANSWER The nurse identifies a potential for infection
in a client with partial-thickness (second-degree) and full-thickness (third-degree) burns. What
intervention has the highest priority in decreasing the client's risk of infection?
A. Administration of plasma expanders
B. Use of careful handwashing technique
C. Application of a topical antibacterial cream
D. Limiting visitors to the client with burns
A
Rationale: Long-term protein deficiency is required to cause significantly lowered serum albumin levels.
Albumin is made by the liver only when adequate amounts of amino acids (from protein breakdown) are
available. Albumin has a long half-life, so acute protein loss does not significantly alter serum levels.
Option B is a serum protein with a half-life of only 8 to 10 days, so it will drop with an acute protein
deficiency. Options C and D are not clinical measures of protein malnutrition. - CORRECT ANSWER The
nurse is aware that malnutrition is a common problem among clients served by a community health
clinic for the homeless. Which laboratory value is the most reliable indicator of chronic protein
malnutrition?
,A. Low serum albumin level
B. Low serum transferrin level
C. High hemoglobin level
D. High cholesterol level
C
Rationale: The surgeon should be informed immediately that the permit is not signed. It is the surgeon's
responsibility to explain the procedure to the client and obtain the client's signature on the permit.
Although the nurse can witness an operative permit, the procedure must first be explained by the health
care provider or surgeon, including answering the client's questions. The client's questions should be
addressed before the permit is signed. - CORRECT ANSWER In completing a client's preoperative routine,
the nurse finds that the operative permit is not signed. The client begins to ask more questions about
the surgical procedure. Which action should the nurse take next?
A. Witness the client's signature to the permit.
B. Answer the client's questions about the surgery.
C. Inform the surgeon that the operative permit is not signed and the client has questions about the
surgery.
D. Reassure the client that the surgeon will answer any questions before the anesthesia is administered.
B
Rationale:
Anticoagulants increase the risk for bleeding during surgery, which can pose a threat for the
development of surgical complications. The health care provider should be informed that the client is
taking these drugs. Although clients who take birth control pills may be more susceptible to the
development of thrombi, such problems usually occur postoperatively. A client with option C or D is at
less of a surgical risk than with option B. - CORRECT ANSWER The nurse is assessing several clients prior
to surgery. Which factor in a client's history poses the greatest threat for complications to occur during
surgery?
A. Taking birth control pills for the past 2 years
B. Taking anticoagulants for the past year
C. Recently completing antibiotic therapy
D. Having taken laxatives PRN for the last 6 months
, B
Rationale: Option B describes the correct positioning of the nurse and affords the nurse a wide base of
support while stabilizing the client's knees when assisting to a standing position. The chair should be
placed at a 45-degree angle to the bed, with the back of the chair toward the head of the bed. Clients
should never be lifted under the axillae; this could damage nerves and strain the nurse's back. The client
should be instructed to use the arms of the chair and should never place his or her arms around the
nurse's neck; this places undue stress on the nurse's neck and back and increases the risk for a fall. -
CORRECT ANSWER When assisting a client from the bed to a chair, which procedure is best for the nurse
to follow?
A. Place the chair parallel to the bed, with its back toward the head of the bed and assist the client in
moving to the chair.
B. With the nurse's feet spread apart and knees aligned with the client's knees, stand and pivot the
client into the chair.
C. Assist the client to a standing position by gently lifting upward, underneath the axillae.
D. Stand beside the client, place the client's arms around the nurse's neck, and gently move the client to
the chair.
A, B
Rationale: The correct answers (A and B) are the appropriate administration of ear drops. The dropper
should be held 1 cm (½ inch) above the ear canal (C). A cotton ball should be placed in the outermost
canal (D). The auricle is pulled down and back for a child younger than 3 years of age, but not an adult
(E). - CORRECT ANSWER Which step(s) should the nurse take when administering ear drops to an adult
client? (Select all that apply.)
A. Place the client in a side-lying position.
B. Pull the auricle upward and outward.
C. Hold the dropper 6 cm above the ear canal.
D. Place a cotton ball into the inner canal.
E. Pull the auricle down and back.
B
Rationale: The medication should be inhaled through the mouth simultaneously with compression of the
inhaler. This will facilitate the desired destination of the aerosol medication deep in the lungs for an
optimal bronchodilation effect. Options A, C, and D do not allow for deep lung penetration. - CORRECT
ANSWER The nurse is instructing a client in the proper use of a metered-dose inhaler. Which instruction
should the nurse provide the client to ensure the optimal benefits from the drug?
PRACTICE (2021-2022)
, OVER 175 EXAM PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS HESI FUNDAMENTALS
PRACTICE (2021-2022)
B
Rationale: Because the nurse can only stand on one side of the bed, bed rails should be up on the
opposite side to ensure that the client does not fall out of bed. Option A can cause client injury to the
skin or joint. Options C and D are useful techniques while turning a client but have less priority in terms
of safety than use of the bed rails. - CORRECT ANSWER When turning an immobile bedridden client
without assistance, which action by the nurse best ensures client safety?
A. Securely grasp the client's arm and leg.
B. Put bed rails up on the side of bed opposite from the nurse.
C. Correctly position and use a turn sheet.
D. Lower the head of the client's bed slowly.
B
Rationale: Careful handwashing technique is the single most effective intervention for the prevention of
contamination to all clients. Option A reverses the hypovolemia that initially accompanies burn trauma
but is not related to decreasing the proliferation of infective organisms. Options C and D are
recommended by various burn centers as possible ways to reduce the chance of infection. Option B is a
proven technique to prevent infection. - CORRECT ANSWER The nurse identifies a potential for infection
in a client with partial-thickness (second-degree) and full-thickness (third-degree) burns. What
intervention has the highest priority in decreasing the client's risk of infection?
A. Administration of plasma expanders
B. Use of careful handwashing technique
C. Application of a topical antibacterial cream
D. Limiting visitors to the client with burns
A
Rationale: Long-term protein deficiency is required to cause significantly lowered serum albumin levels.
Albumin is made by the liver only when adequate amounts of amino acids (from protein breakdown) are
available. Albumin has a long half-life, so acute protein loss does not significantly alter serum levels.
Option B is a serum protein with a half-life of only 8 to 10 days, so it will drop with an acute protein
deficiency. Options C and D are not clinical measures of protein malnutrition. - CORRECT ANSWER The
nurse is aware that malnutrition is a common problem among clients served by a community health
clinic for the homeless. Which laboratory value is the most reliable indicator of chronic protein
malnutrition?
,A. Low serum albumin level
B. Low serum transferrin level
C. High hemoglobin level
D. High cholesterol level
C
Rationale: The surgeon should be informed immediately that the permit is not signed. It is the surgeon's
responsibility to explain the procedure to the client and obtain the client's signature on the permit.
Although the nurse can witness an operative permit, the procedure must first be explained by the health
care provider or surgeon, including answering the client's questions. The client's questions should be
addressed before the permit is signed. - CORRECT ANSWER In completing a client's preoperative routine,
the nurse finds that the operative permit is not signed. The client begins to ask more questions about
the surgical procedure. Which action should the nurse take next?
A. Witness the client's signature to the permit.
B. Answer the client's questions about the surgery.
C. Inform the surgeon that the operative permit is not signed and the client has questions about the
surgery.
D. Reassure the client that the surgeon will answer any questions before the anesthesia is administered.
B
Rationale:
Anticoagulants increase the risk for bleeding during surgery, which can pose a threat for the
development of surgical complications. The health care provider should be informed that the client is
taking these drugs. Although clients who take birth control pills may be more susceptible to the
development of thrombi, such problems usually occur postoperatively. A client with option C or D is at
less of a surgical risk than with option B. - CORRECT ANSWER The nurse is assessing several clients prior
to surgery. Which factor in a client's history poses the greatest threat for complications to occur during
surgery?
A. Taking birth control pills for the past 2 years
B. Taking anticoagulants for the past year
C. Recently completing antibiotic therapy
D. Having taken laxatives PRN for the last 6 months
, B
Rationale: Option B describes the correct positioning of the nurse and affords the nurse a wide base of
support while stabilizing the client's knees when assisting to a standing position. The chair should be
placed at a 45-degree angle to the bed, with the back of the chair toward the head of the bed. Clients
should never be lifted under the axillae; this could damage nerves and strain the nurse's back. The client
should be instructed to use the arms of the chair and should never place his or her arms around the
nurse's neck; this places undue stress on the nurse's neck and back and increases the risk for a fall. -
CORRECT ANSWER When assisting a client from the bed to a chair, which procedure is best for the nurse
to follow?
A. Place the chair parallel to the bed, with its back toward the head of the bed and assist the client in
moving to the chair.
B. With the nurse's feet spread apart and knees aligned with the client's knees, stand and pivot the
client into the chair.
C. Assist the client to a standing position by gently lifting upward, underneath the axillae.
D. Stand beside the client, place the client's arms around the nurse's neck, and gently move the client to
the chair.
A, B
Rationale: The correct answers (A and B) are the appropriate administration of ear drops. The dropper
should be held 1 cm (½ inch) above the ear canal (C). A cotton ball should be placed in the outermost
canal (D). The auricle is pulled down and back for a child younger than 3 years of age, but not an adult
(E). - CORRECT ANSWER Which step(s) should the nurse take when administering ear drops to an adult
client? (Select all that apply.)
A. Place the client in a side-lying position.
B. Pull the auricle upward and outward.
C. Hold the dropper 6 cm above the ear canal.
D. Place a cotton ball into the inner canal.
E. Pull the auricle down and back.
B
Rationale: The medication should be inhaled through the mouth simultaneously with compression of the
inhaler. This will facilitate the desired destination of the aerosol medication deep in the lungs for an
optimal bronchodilation effect. Options A, C, and D do not allow for deep lung penetration. - CORRECT
ANSWER The nurse is instructing a client in the proper use of a metered-dose inhaler. Which instruction
should the nurse provide the client to ensure the optimal benefits from the drug?
