NUR 200 SAS
NUR-200-SAS-COMPILATION GRADED A+
COMPILATION
SAS 1 his knees to support his chest and shoulder for
breathing. This client has symptoms of which of the
1. The term “pink puffer” refers to the client with following respiratory disorder?
which of the following symptoms? a. ARDS
a. ARDS
b. Asthma
c. Chronic obstructive
bronchitis d. Emphysema.
2. The underlying pathophysiology of COPD is:
a. inflamed airways that obstruct airflow.
b. mucus secretions that block airways
c. overinflated alveoli that impair gas exchange.
d. characterized by variations of all of the
above.
3. The abnormal inflammatory response in the
lungs occurs primarily in the:
a. airways.
b. parenchyma.
c. pulmonary vasculature.
d. areas identified in all of the above.
4. Two diseases common to the etiology of COPD are:
a. asthma and atelectasis.
b. chronic bronchitis and emphysema.
c. pneumonia and pleurisy.
d. tuberculosis and pleural effusions.
5. The term “blue bloater” refers to which of
the following conditions?
a. adult respiratory distress syndrome
b. asthma
c. chronic obstructive bronchitis
d. emphysema
6. The most important environmental risk factor
for emphysema is:
a. air pollution.
b. allergens.
c. infectious agents.
d. cigarette
smoking.
7. A 66-year-old client has marked dyspnea at rest, is
thin and uses accessory muscles to breathe. He is
tachypneic, with a prolonged expiration phase. He has
no cough. He leans forward with his arms braced on
, NUR 200 SAS
NUR-200-SAS-COMPILATION GRADED A+
COMPILATION
b. Asthma respiratory rate 38/min, temperature 38.4° C (101.2° F),
c. Chronic obstructive and blood pressure 100/54 mm Hg. Which of the
bronchitis d. Emphysema. following actions is the priority
8. Clients with chronic obstructive bronchitis are
given diuretic therapy. Which of the following
reasons explains why?
a. reducing fluid volume reduces oxygen demand
b. reducing fluid volume improves clients’ morbidity
c. restricting fluid volume reduces sputum production
d. reducing fluid volume improves respiratory function
9. Teaching for a client with chronic obstructive
pulmonary disease (COPD) should include which of
the following topics?
a. How to have his wife learn to listen to his lungs
with a stethoscope
b. How to increase his oxygen therapy
c. How to treat respiratory infections without going
to the physician
d. How to recognize the signs of impending
respiratory infection.
10. A nurse plans care for a client with chronic
obstructive pulmonary disease, knowing that the
client is most likely to experience what type of acid-
base imbalance.
a. respiratory acidosis
b. respiratory alkalosis
c. metabolic acidosis
d. metabolic alkalosis
SAS 2
1. A nurse is caring for several clients. Which of
the following clients are at risk for having a
pulmonary embolism? (Select all that apply.)
A. A client who has a BMI of 30
B. A female client who is
postmenopausal C. A client who has a
fractured femur
D. A client who is a marathon runner
E. A client who has chronic atrial fibrillation
2. A nurse is reviewing prescriptions for a client who
has acute dyspnea and diaphoresis. The client states
that she is anxious because she feels that she cannot
get enough air. Vital signs are: heart rate 117/min,
, NUR 200 SAS
NUR-200-SAS-COMPILATION GRADED A+
COMPILATION
action at this time? C. Hallucination or tinnitus
D. Lightheadedness and paresthesia
A. Notify the provider.
B. Administer heparin via IV
infusion. C. Administer oxygen
therapy.
D. Obtain a spiral CT scan.
3. A male patient’s X-ray result reveals bilateral
white- outs indicating adult respiratory distress
syndrome (ARDS). This syndrome results from;
A. Cardiogenic pulmonary edema
B. Respiratory alkalosis
C. Increased pulmonary capillary permeability.
D. Renal failure
4. A nurse is caring for a male client with acute
respiratory distress syndrome. Which of the
following would the nurse expect to note in the
client?
A. Pallor
B. Low arterial PaO2
C. Elevated arterial PaO2
D. Decreased respiratory rate.
5. A nurse is assessing a client who has a pulmonary
embolism. Which of the clinical manifestations
should the nurse expect to find? (Select all that
apply.)
A. Bradypnea
B. Pleural friction rub
C. Hypertension
D. Petechiae
E. Tachycardia
6. You’re providing care to a patient who is being
treated for aspiration pneumonia. The patient is on a
100% nonrebreather mask. Which finding below is a
HALLMARK sign and symptom that the patient is
developing acute respiratory distress syndrome
(ARDS)?
A. The patient is experiencing bradypnea.
B. The patient is tired and confused.
C. The patient’s PaO2 remains at 45 mmHg.
D. The patient’s blood pressure is 180/96.
7. A male adult patient hospitalized for treatment of
a pulmonary embolism develops respiratory
alkalosis. Which clinical findings commonly
accompany respiratory alkalosis?
A. Nausea and vomiting
B. Abdominal pain or diarrhea
NUR-200-SAS-COMPILATION GRADED A+
COMPILATION
SAS 1 his knees to support his chest and shoulder for
breathing. This client has symptoms of which of the
1. The term “pink puffer” refers to the client with following respiratory disorder?
which of the following symptoms? a. ARDS
a. ARDS
b. Asthma
c. Chronic obstructive
bronchitis d. Emphysema.
2. The underlying pathophysiology of COPD is:
a. inflamed airways that obstruct airflow.
b. mucus secretions that block airways
c. overinflated alveoli that impair gas exchange.
d. characterized by variations of all of the
above.
3. The abnormal inflammatory response in the
lungs occurs primarily in the:
a. airways.
b. parenchyma.
c. pulmonary vasculature.
d. areas identified in all of the above.
4. Two diseases common to the etiology of COPD are:
a. asthma and atelectasis.
b. chronic bronchitis and emphysema.
c. pneumonia and pleurisy.
d. tuberculosis and pleural effusions.
5. The term “blue bloater” refers to which of
the following conditions?
a. adult respiratory distress syndrome
b. asthma
c. chronic obstructive bronchitis
d. emphysema
6. The most important environmental risk factor
for emphysema is:
a. air pollution.
b. allergens.
c. infectious agents.
d. cigarette
smoking.
7. A 66-year-old client has marked dyspnea at rest, is
thin and uses accessory muscles to breathe. He is
tachypneic, with a prolonged expiration phase. He has
no cough. He leans forward with his arms braced on
, NUR 200 SAS
NUR-200-SAS-COMPILATION GRADED A+
COMPILATION
b. Asthma respiratory rate 38/min, temperature 38.4° C (101.2° F),
c. Chronic obstructive and blood pressure 100/54 mm Hg. Which of the
bronchitis d. Emphysema. following actions is the priority
8. Clients with chronic obstructive bronchitis are
given diuretic therapy. Which of the following
reasons explains why?
a. reducing fluid volume reduces oxygen demand
b. reducing fluid volume improves clients’ morbidity
c. restricting fluid volume reduces sputum production
d. reducing fluid volume improves respiratory function
9. Teaching for a client with chronic obstructive
pulmonary disease (COPD) should include which of
the following topics?
a. How to have his wife learn to listen to his lungs
with a stethoscope
b. How to increase his oxygen therapy
c. How to treat respiratory infections without going
to the physician
d. How to recognize the signs of impending
respiratory infection.
10. A nurse plans care for a client with chronic
obstructive pulmonary disease, knowing that the
client is most likely to experience what type of acid-
base imbalance.
a. respiratory acidosis
b. respiratory alkalosis
c. metabolic acidosis
d. metabolic alkalosis
SAS 2
1. A nurse is caring for several clients. Which of
the following clients are at risk for having a
pulmonary embolism? (Select all that apply.)
A. A client who has a BMI of 30
B. A female client who is
postmenopausal C. A client who has a
fractured femur
D. A client who is a marathon runner
E. A client who has chronic atrial fibrillation
2. A nurse is reviewing prescriptions for a client who
has acute dyspnea and diaphoresis. The client states
that she is anxious because she feels that she cannot
get enough air. Vital signs are: heart rate 117/min,
, NUR 200 SAS
NUR-200-SAS-COMPILATION GRADED A+
COMPILATION
action at this time? C. Hallucination or tinnitus
D. Lightheadedness and paresthesia
A. Notify the provider.
B. Administer heparin via IV
infusion. C. Administer oxygen
therapy.
D. Obtain a spiral CT scan.
3. A male patient’s X-ray result reveals bilateral
white- outs indicating adult respiratory distress
syndrome (ARDS). This syndrome results from;
A. Cardiogenic pulmonary edema
B. Respiratory alkalosis
C. Increased pulmonary capillary permeability.
D. Renal failure
4. A nurse is caring for a male client with acute
respiratory distress syndrome. Which of the
following would the nurse expect to note in the
client?
A. Pallor
B. Low arterial PaO2
C. Elevated arterial PaO2
D. Decreased respiratory rate.
5. A nurse is assessing a client who has a pulmonary
embolism. Which of the clinical manifestations
should the nurse expect to find? (Select all that
apply.)
A. Bradypnea
B. Pleural friction rub
C. Hypertension
D. Petechiae
E. Tachycardia
6. You’re providing care to a patient who is being
treated for aspiration pneumonia. The patient is on a
100% nonrebreather mask. Which finding below is a
HALLMARK sign and symptom that the patient is
developing acute respiratory distress syndrome
(ARDS)?
A. The patient is experiencing bradypnea.
B. The patient is tired and confused.
C. The patient’s PaO2 remains at 45 mmHg.
D. The patient’s blood pressure is 180/96.
7. A male adult patient hospitalized for treatment of
a pulmonary embolism develops respiratory
alkalosis. Which clinical findings commonly
accompany respiratory alkalosis?
A. Nausea and vomiting
B. Abdominal pain or diarrhea
