EMT-B Basic Final Exam Review 2022

Who sets the curriculum for all EMS courses? Correct Answer DOT Provides national standards for EMT testing and certification. Correct Answer National Registry Physician who authorizes/delegates authority to provide medical care in the field. Correct Answer Medical Control Recognition, patient assessment, continued assessment and stabilization in hospital, definitive care. Correct Answer Continuum of Care Types of stress include: Correct Answer Cumulative, post-traumatic stress reaction, eustress, acute stress, and chronic stress S/S of stress include: Correct Answer Increased respiratory rate, heart rate, and B/P, vasodilation, dilated pupils, tensed muscles, increased glucose levels, perspiration, decreased blood flow to gastrointestinal tract, irritability, inability to concentrate, difficult or increased sleeping, anxiety, guilt, loss of appetite, decreased sexual activity, loss of interest in work, alcoholism, drug use. Management of stress includes: Correct Answer Eliminate stressors, change partners, get rid of negative personalities, change work hours, reduce overtime, change your attitude, don't obsess over what you can't change, exercise, diet. Fight or Flight response: Correct Answer During an acute stress response, the autonomic nervous system is activated and the body increases level of cortical, adrenaline, and other hormones that produce an increased heart rate, quick breathing, and higher BP. Blood is shunted from extremities to the big muscles to "fight or flight". Routes of transmission include: Correct Answer Direct - touch or droplets Indirect - spread by inanimate objects Mechanical (vector born) - by insects Biological - Transmissions by which the germs live or grow Airborne - sneezes, coughs Dust - may carry pores, may remain for long periods. Control and prevention of contamination include? Correct Answer Hand washing, gloves, eye protection, gowns, masks, mask, respirators, barrier devices, and immunizations. Duty to Act is? Correct Answer An obligation to provide care. Duties include: Correct Answer Duty to: -Respond -Obey laws and regulations -Operate an emergency vehicle reasonably and prudently -Provide care and transportation to expected standard -Provide care and transport consistent with the scope of practice and local medicine protocol -Continue and transport through to its appropriate conclusion The scope of practice is? Correct Answer Description of what assessment and treatment skills and EMT may legally perform. Implied consent is? Correct Answer Consent in which a patient is unable to give consent and is provided treatment under the implication they would want treatment. Informed consent is? Correct Answer Permission for treatment given by a patient after the potential risks, benefits, and alternatives to treatment have been explained. Ethics Correct Answer The discipline dealing with what is good and bad. Standard of care is? Correct Answer The degree of medical care and skill that is expected of a reasonably competent EMT acting in the same or similar circumstances. Confidentiality is? Correct Answer Communication between you and the patient is considered confidential and can only be released to other medical staff or with a court order. Definite signs of death include: Correct Answer Obvious mortal damage, dependent lividity , rigor mortis, putrefaction. Obvious mortal damage: Correct Answer Injuries such as decapitation or non survivable injury. Dependent lividityCorrect AnswerBlood settling to the lowest part of the body. "Pooling" Rigor mortis Correct Answer Stiffening of body muscles caused by chemical changes in the body. Develops in the face and jaw, gradually extending downward. Onset is affected by body's ability to lose temp (thin=fast, fat body=slow). Occurs between 2-12 hours after death Putrefaction Correct Answer Decomposition of body tissue. Occurs between 20-96 hours. Anterior Correct Answer Front side of body Posterior Correct Answer back of the body Midline Correct Answer Imaginary line drawn vertically from middle of the forehead through the umbilicus floor Mid clavicles Correct Answer Referring to the middle of the clavicle parallel to the midline Mid axillary Correct Answer Referring to middle of armpit parallel to the midline Superior Correct Answer Towards the head of the body Inferior Correct Answer Towards the feet Proximal Correct Answer Structures closer to the trunk Distal Correct Answer Structures further from the trunk Medial Correct Answer Towards middle Lateral Correct Answer Towards the outside Ventral Correct Answer Belly side of the body Dorsal Correct Answer Spinal side of the body Palmar Correct Answer The palms Plantar Correct Answer The soles of the feet Apex Correct Answer Tip of a structure Bilateral Correct Answer Both sides Unilateral Correct Answer One side Ipsilateral Correct Answer Refers to the same side of the body Flexion Correct Answer bending of a joint Extension Correct Answer Straightening of a joint Adduction Correct Answer Moving towards midline Abduction Correct Answer moving away from midline Skull (cranium) contains: Correct Answer Occiput temporal regions, parietal region, mandible, zygomas, maxillae, orbit Spine consists of: Correct Answer Cervical (7), Thoracic (12), Lumbar (5), Sacrum (5), Coccyx (4) Thoracic contains : Correct Answer Ribs (12), spine, sternum, clavicle, scapula, lungs, heart, diaphragm. Pelvis consists of: Correct Answer Ilium (crest), ischium (butt bone), and pubis. Femur Correct Answer Bone located in the thigh Patella Correct Answer the bone located at the knee Tibia Correct Answer Anterior bone in the lower leg Fibula Correct Answer Posterior bone in lower leg Tarsals Correct Answer Bones in the ankle Metatarsals Correct Answer the bones that lead to the toes. Also called phalanges Humerus Correct Answer Supporting bone of the forearm Radius Correct Answer Bone in forearm "on the thumb side", larger in the proximal forearm. Ulna Correct Answer Bone in forearm "on the little finger side", larger in the distal forearm. Carpals Correct Answer Bones in the wrist Metacarpals Correct Answer Bones in the foot leading to the phalanges The RUQ contains :Correct Answer Liver, gallbladder, bile duct, colon, pancreas LUQ contains: Correct Answer Stomach, spleen, pancreas, colon RLQ contains: Correct Answer Cecum, small intestines, appendix LLQ contains: Correct Answer intestines Skeletal muscle (voluntary):Correct Answer Attaches to the skeleton Striated muscle: Correct Answer Also called skeletal muscles Smooth muscle (involuntary):Correct Answer Gastrointestinal tract, urinary systems, blood vessels, bronchi Cardiac Muscle Correct Answer Only in the heart. Upper airway consists of: Correct Answer Nasopharynx, nose, pharynx, mouth, oropharynx, epiglottis Lower airway consists of: Correct Answer Larynx, trachea, alveoli, bronchioles, bronchi, carina, lungs Primary respiratory drive is? Correct Answer The brain Secondary respiratory drive is? Correct Answer hypoxic drive. (When oxygen falls, this will stimulate breathing) Main difference between adult and children airway? Correct Answer Children have smaller and less rigid airways. Adult resp rate is? Correct Answer12 to 20 Child resp rate it? Correct Answer15 to 30 Infant resp rate is? Correct Answer25 to 50 When assessing breathing, breathing should appear: Correct Answer easy, not labored. You should not be able to see or hear a pt breathing. Inadequate breathing means: Correct Answer a person cannot move enough air into the lungs with each breath, thus not meeting metabolic needs. Signs of adequate breathing in an adult include: Correct Answer Non-labored, normal rate, regular rhythm, good audible breath sounds, regular rise and fall of chest, movement of abdomen. Signs of adequate breathing in a pedi include: Correct Answer non-labored, normal rate, regular rhythm, good audible breath sounds, regular rise and fall of chest, and movement of the abdomen. Inadequate signs of breathing in adult include: Correct Answer Muscle retractions, pale or cyantoic, cold and damp skin, tripod position, and noisy breathing. Signs of inadequate breathing in an pedi include: Correct Answer muscle retractions, pale or cyanotic, cold and damp skin, tripod position, nasal flaring, and seesaw respirations. Normal heart adults are: Correct Answer60 to 100 Normal child heart rates are: Correct Answer70 to 150 Normal infant heart rates are: Correct Answer100 to 160 Heart: Correct Answer A hollow organ that consists of 2 atria’s and 2 ventricles. It is an involuntary muscle, controlled by autonomic nervous system. Passageway through the heart: Correct Answer Blood arrives via the inferior/superior vena cava. It enters the right atrium, goes through the tricuspid valve and into the right ventricle, and then goes through the pulmonary valve to the lungs. The blood then reenters the heart through the pulmonary vein into the left atrium, through the mitral valve, then the left ventricle through the aortic valve. Arteries carry? Correct Answer Oxygenated blood Veins carry? Correct Answer Deoxygenated blood Capillaries allow: Correct Answer Exchange of oxygen and CO2. The body holds how many liters of blood? Correct Answer5-6 liters. How long does it take the body to pump the entire supply of blood? Correct Answer one minute. Normal Systolic BP in an adult: Correct Answer 90 to 140 systolic. Normal systolic BP in a child: Correct Answer80-110 systolic Normal BP in infants: Correct Answer 50-95 systolic Systolic is? Correct Answer the increased pressure that is caused along the artery with each contraction of the ventricles pulse. Diastolic is? Correct Answer The residual pressure that remains in the artiers during the relaxing phase of the heart's cycle, when the left ventricle is at rest. Proper size for BP cuff: Correct Answer Designed to wrap around the arm 1 to 1 1/2 times and take up 2/3 of the length of the arm from armpit to elbow. Small cuff=false high reading, large= false low reading. What is trending? Correct Answer Taking vitals more than once to see how your pt is doing. Emergency movement/lifting is: Correct Answer Moving a pt before initial assessment. *Clothes drag, blanket, arm and arm-to-arm drag Urgent movement/lifting is: Correct Answer Used for pts with AMS, inadequate ventilations, or shock. Rapid Extrication is required in what situation? Correct Answer When the pt is in an unsafe vehicle, pt cannot be properly assessed, pt needs immediate intervention/transport, pt requires supine position, or pt blocks access to another seriously injured pt. Non-urgent movement/lift is used when: Correct Answer The patient and scene are safe. Backboard: Correct Answer used for most situations, needs multiple people to make it safe Scoop Stretcher Correct Answer used when log rolling is not an option Stokes Basket Correct Answer For high/low angle rescue, caves, etc. Stair Chair Correct Answer Can be used for small areas or hallways. Ambulance stretcher (wheeled)Correct Answer Can be used for most situations when there is room and it can roll easily. Blankets Correct Answer For small spaces or when it is hard to get other equipment into the area. The brain can function for how long before the brain may become severely damaged? Correct Answer4-6 minutes Cells in the kidney can live how long without oxygen? Correct Answer up to 45 minutes How much O2 is in the air we breathe? Correct Answer21% How much O2 is in the air that we exhale? Correct Answer16%-17% If mouth-to-mask without O2 attached is given, how much air is the pt receiving? Correct Answer16%-17% Explain the process of breathing. Correct AnswerO2 reaches body tissues and cells through two separate but related processes - breath and circulation. As we inhale, O2 moves from the atmosphere into the lungs then passes from the alveoli in the lungs into the capillaries to oxygenate the blood. At the same time, CO2 produced by the cells in the tissues in the body, moves from the blood into the alveoli. The blood enriched with O2 travels through the the body by pumping of he heart. On exhalation, CO2 is expirated. What is hypoxia? Correct Answer Dangerous condition in which the the body's tissues and cells do not have enough oxygen Without interventions, the pt will die within minutes. Heart Attack Correct Answer Tissues begin to die from lack of O2, weakened heart then pumps blood poorly to rest of body, resulting in systemic shock. Pulmonary Edema Correct Answer Fluid accumulates in the lungs, making the exchange of )2 and CO2 in the alveoli less efficient. Acute narcotic or sedative overdose Correct AnswerResp may decrease and become shallow. smoke inhalation/toxic fumes Correct Answer Causes pulmonary edema and destroys lung tissue, causing problems with gas exchange. Stroke Correct Answer May cause hypoxia due to facial drooping or may damage respiration center of the brain. Chest Injury Correct Answer Pain interferes with full chest expansion, thus limiting ventilations. Lung damage itself is secondary to pulmonary contusion, can also prevent gas exchange. Shock Correct Answer Occurs as a result of injuries that affect the circulatory system. When the circulatory system fails, hypoxia being to set in. COPD Correct Answer Chronic irritation of the lungs and passageways produces alveolar damage and poor gas exchange. Asthma Correct Answer Narrowing of the respiratory passages and buildup of mucus causes trapping of air and poor gas exchange. Premature Birth Correct Answer Pulmonary surfactant is decreased in some premature infants, therefore, prematurity is often associated with hypoxia. The more premature an infant, the worse the hypoxia. What is hypoxic drive?Correct AnswerBackup system to control respirations when O2 levels fall. Oral Adjuncts: Correct Answer are used to keep the tongue from blocking the upper airway. Use to make it easier to suction the oropharynx if neccesary. Oropharyngeal adjunct Indications: Correct AnswerUsed on unconscious pts who have no gag reflex and used with BVM. Oropharyngeal adjunct contraindications: Correct AnswerConscious pt, any pt who has a gag reflex. Nasopharyngeal adjunct indications: Correct Answer Semiconscious or unconscious pt with itnact gag reflex, pts who will not tolerate an oral airway. Nasopharyngeal adjunct contraindications Correct Answer Sever head injury with blood draining from the noise, hx of fx nasal bones. How do you correctly measure the size of a nasal airway? Correct Answer From the tip of the nose to earlobe. When suctioning: Correct Answer Must keep airway clear so that pt can be ventilated properly. If it is not clear, fluids will be forced into the lungs and possibly cause a lung infection. Types of suction devices include: Correct Answer Plastic, rigid suction tips (Tonsil or Yankauer) No rigid plastic catheters call French or Whistle-tip. Preferred oropharynx suctioning device is: Correct Answer Yankauers (tonsil tip) Preferred nasopharynx suctioning device is: Correct Answer French whistle. How do you maintain the airway in a pt who is not injured and breathing on his/her own with normal rate and adequate tidal volume? Correct Answer place in the recovery position.