NURS 6512 Week 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11 Quiz (2 Latest VERSIONS of Each Quiz)/ NURS 6512N Week 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11 Quiz |100% Correct Q & A, Download to Secure HIGHSCORE|

NURS 6512 Week 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11 Quiz (2 Latest VERSIONS of Each Quiz)/ NURS 6512N Week 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11 Quiz |100% Correct Q & A, Download to Secure HIGHSCORE| NURS 6512 Week 1 Quiz, NURS 6512 Week 2 Quiz, NURS 6512 Week 3 Quiz, NURS 6512 Week 4 Quiz, NURS 6512 Week 5 Quiz, NURS 6512 Week 6 Quiz, NURS 6512 Week 7 Quiz & NURS 6512 Week 8, 9, 10, 11 Quiz (2 Latest Versions of Each Quiz) NURS 6512N Week 1 Quiz, NURS 6512N Week 2 Quiz, NURS 6512N Week 3 Quiz, NURS 6512N Week 4 Quiz, NURS 6512N Week 5 Quiz, NURS 6512N Week 6 Quiz, NURS 6512N Week 7 Quiz, NURS 6512N Week 8, 9, 10, 11 Quiz ( 2 Latest Versions of Each Quiz) NURS6512 Week 1 Quiz, NURS6512 Week 2 Quiz, NURS6512 Week 3 Quiz, NURS6512 Week 4 Quiz, NURS6512 Week 5 Quiz, NURS6512 Week 6 Quiz, NURS6512 Week 7 Quiz, NURS6512 Week 8, 9, 10, 11 Quiz ( 2 Latest Versions of Each Quiz) NURS6512N Week 1 Quiz, NURS6512N Week 2 Quiz, NURS6512N Week 3 Quiz, NURS6512N Week 4 Quiz, NURS6512N Week 5 Quiz, NURS6512N Week 6 Quiz, NURS6512N Week 7 Quiz, NURS6512N Week 8, 9, 10, 11 Quiz ( 2 Latest Versions of Each Quiz) NURS-6512N Week 1 Quiz, NURS-6512N Week 2 Quiz, NURS-6512N Week 3 Quiz, NURS-6512N Week 4 Quiz, NURS-6512N Week 5 Quiz, NURS-6512N Week 6 Quiz, NURS-6512N Week 7 Quiz, NURS-6512N Week 8, 9, 10, 11 Quiz ( 2 Latest Versions of Each Quiz) NURS 6512 Week 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11 Quiz (2 Latest VERSIONS of Each Quiz)/ NURS 6512N Week 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11 Quiz NURS6512 Week 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11 Quiz (2 Latest VERSIONS of Each Quiz)/ NURS6512N Week 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11 Quiz NURS 6512 Week 1 Quiz / NURS6512 Week 1 Quiz ( 2 Latest Versions): Advanced Health Assessment: Walden University Walden NURS 6512 Week 1 Quiz / Walden NURS6512 Week 1 Quiz( 2 Latest Versions) • Question 1 The position on a clock, topographic notations, and anatomic landmarks: • Question 2 During a history-taking session, Mr. B. appears to be avoiding certain questions. He keeps looking out the window. What should the caregiver do? • Question 3 Ms. T. is crying and states that her mother couldn t possibly have a tumor. No one else in the family, exclaims the daughter, has ever had cancer! The most appropriate response to Ms. T. would be: • Question 4 Subjective and symptomatic data are: • Question 5 A 36-year-old woman complains that she has had crushing chest pain for the past 2 days. She seems nervous as she speaks to you. An appropriate response is to: • Question 6 Mr. F. is speaking with you, the health care provider, about his respiratory problem. Mr. F. says, I ve had this cough for 3 days, and it s getting worse. You reply, Tell me more about your cough. Mr. F. states, I wish I could tell you more. That s why I m here. You tell me what s wrong! Which caregiver response would be most appropriate for enhancing communication? • Question 7 Periods of silence during the interview can serve important purposes, such as: • Question 8 Which part of the information contained in the patient s record may be used in court? • Question 9 Which of the following formats would be used for visits that address problems not yet identified in the problem-oriented medical record (POMR)? • Question 10 Mary Jane has brought in her 16-year-old son, Kyle. She states that he has been sleeping more, doesn t hang around his friends, and recently his girlfriend broke up with him. Your most immediate question is to ask Kyle: • Question 11 Which technique is most likely to result in the patient s understanding of questions? • Question 12 When recording physical findings, which data are recorded first for all systems? • Question 13 Which question would be considered a leading question? • Question 14 When interviewing older adults, the examiner should: • Question 15 The duties of care providers established by tradition, and within the context of culture, are known as: • Question 16 Tom is a 16-year-old diabetic who does not follow his diet. He enjoys his dirt bike and seems unconcerned about any consequences of his activities. Which factor is typical of adolescence and pertinent to Tom s health? • Question 17 A problem may be defined as anything that will require: • Question 18 Regardless of the orifice, discharge is described by noting: • Question 19 When you suspect that your 81-year-old patient has short-term memory loss because he cannot remember what he had for breakfast, you should: • Question 20 When you enter the examination room of a 3-year-old girl, you find her sitting on her father s lap. She turns away from you when you greet her. Initially, your best response is to: NURS 6512 Week 1 Quiz: Walden University 1. When questioning a patient regarding alcohol intake, she tells you that she is only a social drinker. Which initial response is appropriate? 2. Information recorded about an infant differs from that of an adult, mainly because of the infant s: 3. Mr. D. complains of a headache. During the history, he mentions his use of alcohol and illicit drugs. This information would most likely belong in the: 4. When taking a history, you should: 5. Drawing of stick figures is most useful to: 6. When you suspect that your 81-year-old patient has short-term memory loss because he cannot remember what he had for breakfast, you should: 7. Allergies to drugs and foods are generally listed in which section of the medical record? 8. Which part of the information contained in the patient s record may be used in court? 9. A survey of mobility and activities of daily living (ADLs) is part of a(n): 10. A 50-year-old man comes to the primary care clinic. He tells you he is worried because he has had severe chest pains for the past 2 weeks. Which initial history interview question is most appropriate? 11. The effect of the chief complaint on the patient s lifestyle is recorded in which section of the medical record? 12. A SOAP note is used in which type of recording system? 13. Which of the following is an example of a problem requiring recording on the patient s problem list? 14. Differential diagnoses belong in the: 15. Which technique is most likely to result in the patient s understanding of questions? 16. The quality of a symptom, such as pain, is subjective information that should be: 17. To what extent should the patient with a physical disability or emotional disorder be involved in providing health history information to the health professional? 18. Objective data are usually recorded: 19. An example of a complementary care modality is: 20. J.M. has been seen in your clinic for 5 years. She presents today with signs and symptoms of acute sinusitis. The type of history that is warranted is a(n) _____ history. NURS 6512 Week 2 Quiz / NURS6512 Week 2 Quiz ( 2 Latest Versions): Advanced Health Assessment: Walden University Walden NURS 6512 Week 2 Quiz / Walden NURS6512 Week 2 Quiz ( 2 Latest Versions) The use of secondary, tangential lighting is most helpful in the detection of: variations in skin color. enlarged tonsils. foreign objects in the nose or ear. variations in contour of the body surface. variations in texture and mobility. Tuning forks with a frequency of 500 to 1000 Hz are most commonly used to measure: vibratory sensations. hearing from bone conduction. hearing range of normal speech. noise above the threshold level. peripheral motor nerve damage. Which patient is at the highest risk for the development of latex allergy? The new patient who has no chronic illness and has never been hospitalized The patient who has had multiple procedures or surgeries The patient who is allergic to eggs The patient who is allergic to contrast dye The patient who is a vegetarian When percussing, a dull tone is expected to be heard over: most of the abdomen. emphysemic lungs. the liver. healthy lung tissue. an empty stomach. The dorsal surface of the hand is most often used for the assessment of: crepitus. thrills. texture. vibration. temperature. A patient in the emergency department has a concussion to the head. You suspect the patient may also have a retinal hemorrhage. You are using the ophthalmoscope to examine the retina of this patient. Which aperture of the ophthalmoscope is most appropriate for this patient? Strabismoscope Red-free filter Slit lamp Small aperture Grid A variant of the percussion hammer is the neurologic hammer, which is equipped with which of the following? Brush and needle Tuning fork and cotton swab Penlight and goniometer Ruler and bell Transilluminator Transillumination functions on the principle that: infrared radiation is easily detected. black light causes certain substances to fluoresce. converging and diverging light brings structures into focus. tangential light casts shadows that illuminate contours. air, fluid, and tissue transmit light differentially. Which statement is true regarding the relationship of physical characteristics and culture? Physical characteristics should be used to identify members of cultural groups. There is a difference between distinguishing cultural characteristics and distinguishing physical characteristics. To be a member of a specific culture, an individual must have certain identifiable physical characteristics. Gender and race are the two essential physical characteristics used to identify cultural groups. All cultural traits can be viewed as static whereas physical traits are dynamic. A scale used to assess patients weight should be calibrated: when the patient tells you the weight is not correct. by a qualified technician at regularly scheduled intervals. each time it is used. when necessary, with the patient standing on the scale. only by the manufacturer. Which technique is commonly used to elicit tenderness arising from the liver, gallbladder, or kidneys? Finger percussion Only indirect percussion techniques are ever used to elicit tenderness. Fist percussion Thumb percussion Palmer percussion A rubber or plastic ring should be around the bell end-piece of a stethoscope to: prevent the transmission of static electricity. avoid cold metal from touching the patient. prevent the sharp edge of the stethoscope from damaging the patient s skin. allow firm pressure to be applied without discomfort. ensure secure contact with the body surface. In terms of cultural communication differences, Americans are more likely to _____ than are other groups of patients. emphasize attitudes and feelings maintain eye contact come quickly to the point use silence comfortably speak more softly than other cultures For a woman with a small vaginal opening, the examiner should use a _____ speculum. plastic Graves Pederson pediatric nasal metal Graves During percussion, the downward snap of the striking fingers should originate from the: wrist. forearm. shoulder. interphalangeal joint. elbow. You are auscultating a patient s chest. The sounds are not clear, and you are having difficulty distinguishing between respirations and heartbeats. What technique can you use to facilitate your assessment? Anticipate the next sounds. Isolate each cycle segment. Listen to all sounds together. Move the stethoscope clockwise. Ask the patient to whisper his name. Expected normal percussion tones include: dullness over the lungs. hyperresonance over the lungs. tympany over an empty stomach. flatness over an empty stomach. resonance over the liver. During auscultation, you can limit your perceptual field best by: asking patients to describe their symptoms. listening through the patient s clothing. closing your eyes. performing palpation before percussion. turning out the lights in the examination room. Standard Precautions apply to all patients: withbloodborne infections. with infected, draining wounds. in intensive care units. receiving care in hospitals. believed to have an infectious disease. Which of the following describes a physical, not a cultural, differentiator? Ritual Rite Race Norm Ethos NURS 6512 Week 2 Quiz: Walden University 1. Informing a patient that he or she has a terminal illness is most likely to be discouraged in which cultural group? 2. Which statement is true regarding the impoverished? 3. The infant should be placed in which position to have his or her height or length measured? 4. A naturalistic or holistic approach to health care often assumes: 5. Which of the following describes a physical, not a cultural, differentiator? 6. Axillary measurement of temperature correlates best with core temperatures of: 7. You are performing a vaginal examination for a patient with a history of spina bifida. As you insert the metal speculum, the patient suddenly feels nauseated and is sweating, and her skin turns blotchy. What is your most immediate reaction to this situation? 8. Which statement is true regarding the relationship of physical characteristics and culture? 9. You are auscultating a patient s chest. The sounds are not clear, and you are having difficulty distinguishing between respirations and heartbeats. What technique can you use to facilitate your assessment? 10. During percussion, the downward snap of the striking fingers should originate from the: 11. Which technique should be used to stabilize the stethoscope during auscultation? 12. As you explain your patient s condition to her husband, you notice that he is leaning toward you and pointedly blinking his eyes. Knowing that he is from England, your most appropriate response to this behavior is to: 13. A fixed image of any group that rejects its potential for originality or individuality is known as a(n): 14. When monitoring serial measures, such as head circumference or abdominal girth, which procedure is best to ensure that the tape measure is placed in the same position each time? 15. Observing the rise and fall of the abdomen usually facilitates calculation of respiratory rate in the: 16. A patient in the emergency department has a concussion to the head. You suspect the patient may also have a retinal hemorrhage. You are using the ophthalmoscope to examine the retina of this patient. Which aperture of the ophthalmoscope is most appropriate for this patient? 17. Which lying position is useful for auscultating heart tones? 18. A nonambulatory 80-year-old male patient tells the female nurse that he feels like he is having drainage from his rectum. Which initial nursing action is appropriate? 19. Because of common cultural food preferences, avoidance of monosodium glutamate (MSG) is likely to be most problematic for the hypertensive patient of which group? 20. When percussing, a dull tone is expected to be heard over: NURS 6512 Week 3 Quiz / NURS6512 Week 3 Quiz ( 2 Latest Versions): Advanced Health Assessment: Walden University Walden NURS 6512 Week 3 Quiz / Walden NURS6512 Week 3 Quiz( 2 Latest Versions) How much of the weight gained during a normal pregnancy is accounted for by the fetus? A. Less than 3 pounds B. 5 to 10 pounds C. 10 to 15 pounds D. 15 to 30 pounds Which Tanner stage is marked by the most significant growth in penis length? A. Stage 1 B. Stage 2 C. Stage 3 D. Stage 4 A 17-year-old girl presents to the clinic for a sport s physical. Physical examination findings reveal bradycardia, multiple erosions of tooth enamel, and scars on her knuckles. She appears healthy otherwise. You should ask her if she: binges and vomits. has regular menstrual periods. has constipation frequently. is cold intolerant. has bloating. The gonads begin to secrete estrogen and testosterone during: A. infancy. B. puberty. C. pregnancy. D. early adulthood. The legs are the fastest growing body part during: A. early infancy. B. late infancy. C. childhood. D. early adulthood. In clinical practice, the Ballard Assessment Tool is used to assess a newborn's: A. length. B. weight. C. lung maturity. D. gestational age. A deficiency of vitamin ___, a fat-soluble micronutrient, can result in rickets. A E B1 K D Allergies to drugs and foods are generally listed in which section of the medical record? General patient information Past medical history Social history Problem list History of present illness Regardless of the orifice, discharge is described by noting: only the amount. color and consistency. demographic data and risk factors. associated symptoms in alphabetic order. a grading scale of 0 to 4. When recording assessments during the construction of the problem-oriented medical record, the examiner should: combine all data into one assessment. create an assessment for each problem on the problem list. create an assessment for every abnormal physical finding. create an assessment for every symptom presented in the history. create an assessment for each abnormal laboratory finding. Which of the following is a macronutrient? Iron Thiamin Calcium Fat Alcohol You are using the rule of thumb for advising a 150-pound person regarding the appropriate number of calories to promote weight loss. Your advice is for the person to consume no more than _____ calories. 1500 1700 1900 2100 2500 Which B vitamin is deficient in patients with pernicious anemia? B1 B2 B6 B9 B12 Your patient returns for a blood pressure check 2 weeks after a visit during which you performed a complete history and physical. This visit would be documented by creating a(n): progress note. incident report. problem-oriented medical record. triage note. new problem list. Which medication is frequently associated with weight gain? Diuretics Oral hypoglycemics Laxatives Steroids Antibiotics Macronutrients are so named because they: have high molecular weights. form long chemical chains. tend to increase waist measurements. are required in large amounts. not stored in the body. The recommended minimum daily protein requirement for the normal adult is: 20 g. 14% to 20% of total calories. 90 g. 35% to 45% of total calories. 50% to 60% of total calories. Ms. G. is being seen for her routine physical examination. She is a college graduate and president of a research firm. Although her exact salary is unknown, she has adequate health insurance. Most of the above information is part of Ms. G. s _____ history. identifying information past medical personal and social present problem family What finding is unique to the documentation of a physical examination of an infant? Fontanel sizes Liver span Prostate size Thyroid position Visual acuity Which of the following should be assessed first in the patient with sustained rapid respirations? Diet history Hydration Mid-upper arm circumference Weight Body mass index NURS 6512 Week 3 Quiz: Walden University 1. Which of the following is a major function of dietary protein? 2. Which medication is frequently associated with weight gain? 3. Which of the following is not a characteristic of the plan portion of the problem-oriented medical record? 4. When recording assessments during the construction of the problem-oriented medical record, the examiner should: 5. Subjective and symptomatic data are: 6. Which of the following is the most accurate reflection of an individual s food intake? 7. Adult recommended dietary fat intake is _____ % of daily caloric intake. 8. You are using the rule of thumb for advising a 150-pound person regarding the appropriate number of calories to promote weight loss. Your advice is for the person to consume no more than _____ calories. 9. When recording physical findings, which data are recorded first for all systems? 10. Deficiency of which of the following is a concern in the vegetarian diet? 11. The position on a clock, topographic notations, and anatomic landmarks: 12. Which part of the information contained in the patient s record may be used in court? 13. A 17-year-old girl presents to the clinic for a sport s physical. Physical examination findings reveal bradycardia, multiple erosions of tooth enamel, and scars on her knuckles. She appears healthy otherwise. You should ask her if she: 14. Under normal circumstances, how much water is lost daily by the body? 15. The recommended minimum daily protein requirement for the normal adult is: 16. During adolescence, the head size normally increases as a result of: 17. Mrs. Layton is a 33-year-old patient who has obesity. The majority of adult obesity begins: 18. Infants born to the same parents are normally within which range of weight of each other? 19. How much of the weight gained during a normal pregnancy is accounted for by the fetus? 20. In clinical practice, the Ballard Assessment Tool is used to assess a newborn's: NURS 6512 Week 4 Quiz / NURS6512 Week 4 Quiz ( 2 Latest Versions): Advanced Health Assessment: Walden University Walden NURS 6512 Week 4 Quiz / Walden NURS6512 Week 4 Quiz( 2 Latest Versions) A Dennie-Morgan fold is probably caused by: A. birth trauma. B. high fever. C. excess adipose tissue. D. chronic rubbing. A 29-year-old white woman appears jaundiced. An etiology of liver disease has been excluded. What history questions should the nurse ask? A. Whether she had unprotected sex B. Whether she has a history of diabetes mellitus C. Whether she had unusual bleeding problems D. Whether she eats a lot of yellow and orange vegetables A simian line seen in the palm of a small child may imply: A. Down syndrome. B. Turner syndrome. C. systemic sclerosis. D. profound dehydration. Wound infections are often cause by all of the following organisms except: Staphylococcus aureus Proteus Streptococci Chlamydia Adhesive skin glues are indicated for closure of which of the following wounds? Laceration on the flexor surface of the elbow Laceration to the palm of the hand Laceration to the chin Laceration on the tongue Lidocaine with epinephrine can safely be used to anesthetize which of the following? The tip of the nose The fingers The penis The forehead You are conducting a preschool examination on a 5-year-old child. Which injury would most likely raise your suspicion that the child was being abused? A. Recent bruising over both knees B. A healed laceration under the chin C. A bruise on the right shin with associated abrasion of tissue D. Bruises in various stages of resolution over body soft tissues Fluorescing lesions are best distinguished using a(n): A. incandescent lamp. B. magnifying glass. C. transilluminator. D. Wood’s lamp. The skin repairs surface wounds by: A. exaggerating cell replacement. B. excreting lactic acid. C. producing vitamins. D. providing a mechanical barrier. Which cultural group has the lowest incidence of nevi? A. Native Americans/American Indians B. African Americans C. Mexican Americans D. Asians Assessment of poor hygiene, healed fractures with deformity, or unexplained trauma in older adults indicates: A. sexual abuse. B. physical neglect. C. psychological abuse. D. violated rights. You are inspecting the lower extremities of a patient and have noted pale, shiny skin of the lower extremities. This may reflect: A. systemic disease. B. a history of vigorous exercise. C. peptic ulcer disease. D. mental retardation. Mrs. Leonard brings her newborn infant into the pediatrician's office for a first well-baby visit. As the health care provider, you teach her that newborns are more vulnerable to hypothermia due to: A. the presence of coarse terminal hair. B. desquamation of the stratum corneum. C. their covering of vernix caseosa. D. a poorly developed subcutaneous fat layer. During history taking, a mother states that her son awoke in the middle of the night complaining of intense itching to his legs. Today, your inspection reveals honey-colored exudate from the vesicular rash on his legs. Which condition is consistent with the above findings? A. Exanthem B. Impetigo C. Solar keratoses D. Trichotillomania Painful vesicles are associated with: A. psoriasis. B. pityriasisrosea. C. paronychia. D. herpes zoster. The most common inflammatory skin condition is: A. cutis marmorata. B. eczematous dermatitis. C. intradermal nevus. D. pityriasisrosea. You have just completed a skin assessment on Mr. Baker. During your assessment, you have transilluminated a skin lesion. During the physical examination, you know that skin lesions are transilluminated to distinguish: A. vascular from nonvascular lesions. B. furuncles from folliculitis lesions. C. fluid-filled from solid cysts or masses. D. herpes zoster from varicella. A flat, nonpalpable lesion is described as a macule if the diameter is: A. greater than 1 cm. B. less than 1 cm. C. 3 cm exactly. D. too irregular to measure. Skin turgor checks are performed to determine the: A. temperature of the skin. B. hydration status. C. actual age. D. extent of an ecchymosis. Small, minute bruises are called: A. ecchymoses. B. petechiae. C. spider veins. D. telangiectasias. NURS 6512 Week 5 Quiz / NURS6512 Week 5 Quiz ( 2 Latest Versions): Advanced Health Assessment: Walden University Walden NURS 6512 Week 5 Quiz / Walden NURS6512 Week 5 Quiz( 2 Latest Versions) • Question 1 2 out of 2 points Nasal symptoms that imply an allergic response include: • Question 2 2 out of 2 points Observation during history taking is the best way to examine for: • Question 3 2 out of 2 points The hair cells of Corti and membrane of Corti: • Question 4 2 out of 2 points A patient has come in with a chief complaint of facial pain and “sinus issues.” Transillumination of the right sinus produces no light. You consulted your preceptor to order a sinus x-ray and she agreed. Which of the following findings on x-ray would support your diagnosis of sinusitis? • Question 5 2 out of 2 points Which of the following is not a component of a management plan? • Question 6 2 out of 2 points Which variation may be an expected finding in the ear examination of a newborn? • Question 7 2 out of 2 points Speech with a monotonous tone and erratic volume may indicate: • Question 8 2 out of 2 points Status epilepticus is defined as: • Question 9 2 out of 2 points New findings of unknown causes are: • Question 10 2 out of 2 points During physical examination of a 30-year-old Chinese man, you notice slight asymmetry of his face. The cranial nerve examination is normal. Your best action is to: • Question 11 2 out of 2 points While performing the primary survey on a trauma victim, the patient is answering your questions. You may assume that during the time of the questioning: • Question 12 2 out of 2 points When examining the skull of a 4-month-old baby, you should normally find: • Question 13 2 out of 2 points Mr. Black is a 44-year-old patient who presents to the clinic with complaints of neck pain that he thinks is from his job involving computer data entry. As the examiner, you are checking the range of motion in his neck and note the greatest degree of cervical mobility is at: • Question 14 2 out of 2 points After the subjective and objective data have been prioritized, the next step is to: • Question 15 2 out of 2 points The premature union of cranial sutures that involves the shape of the head without mental retardation is: • Question 16 2 out of 2 points Ask the patient to look directly at the light of the ophthalmoscope when you are ready to examine the: • Question 17 2 out of 2 points Term infants have a visual acuity of about_20_/_400_. • Question 18 2 out of 2 points Mr. C.'s visual acuity is 20/50. This means that he: • Question 19 2 out of 2 points A pterygium is more common in people heavily exposed to: • Question 20 2 out of 2 points The criterion for adequacy of a patient's visual field is: NURS 6512 Week 5 Quiz: Walden University 1. Entropion implies that the lower eyelid is: 2. Cupping of the optic disc may be a result of: 3. When testing corneal sensitivity controlled by cranial nerve V, you should expect the patient to respond by: 4. Peripheral vision can be estimated by means of which test? 5. Which of the following findings, when seen in the infant, is ominous? 6. Expected physical changes associated with older adults include: 7. A 5-year-old child presents with nasal congestion and a headache. To assess for sinus tenderness you should palpate over the: 8. Examiner experience should result in: 9. Mr. W., age 25, has recovered recently from an upper and lower respiratory infection. He describes a long-standing nasal dripping. He is seeking treatment for a mild hearing loss that has not gone away. Information concerning his chronic postnasal drip should be documented within which section of his history? 10. To perform the Rinne test, place the tuning fork on the: 11. The proportion of persons with an observation characteristic of a disease that have the disease is known as _____ value. 12. During injury assessment, one of the most crucial historical components is: 13. During a head and neck assessment of a neonate, it is important to screen for: 14. An inconsequential finding on the head of an adult is a palpable: 15. Self-analysis assists providers in giving proper context to: 16. You are using a pneumonic attachment on the otoscope while assessing tympanic membrane movement. You gently squeeze the bulb but see no movement of the membrane. Your next action should be to: 17. A stethoscope is used in a head and neck examination to assess: 18. The parotid, submandibular, and sublingual salivary glands: 19. An infant s auditory canal, when compared with an adult s, is: 20. A patient has come in with a chief complaint of facial pain and “sinus issues.” Transillumination of the right sinus produces no light. You consulted your preceptor to order a sinus x-ray and she agreed. Which of the following findings on x-ray would support your diagnosis of sinusitis? NURS 6512 Week 6 Quiz / NURS6512 Week 6 Quiz ( 2 Latest Versions): Advanced Health Assessment: Walden University Walden NURS 6512 Week 6 Quiz / Walden NURS6512 Week 6 Quiz ( 2 Latest Versions) Bronchovesicular breath sounds in young children that are loud and harsh are an indication of: an accumulation of fluid. malignant tumors or solid masses. normal, thin chest wall structures. pus-filled abscesses and tumors. tension pneumothorax. On a CXR, which of the following is true of the diaphragm? The right diaphragm is usually higher. The left diaphragm is usually higher. The diaphragm is of equal heights on both sides. It is abnormal for the diaphragm to be 3cm on one side versus the other Which of the following statements is most accurate in describing hepatic jugular reflux? It is an accurate indicator of heart failure. It is exaggerated in patients with right heart failure. It is normal when patients are sitting up straight. It should be absent in older patients with heart failure. It never elevates the jugular venous pressure (JVP) in patients without heart failure. Chest pain in a child with an organic cause is more likely the result of: cardiac disease. asthma. esophageal reflux. arthritis. peptic ulcer disease. The American Thoracic Society suggests replacing the term rales with: wheezes. crunches. vesicular. crackles. rhonchi. Heart position can vary depending on body habitus. In a short, stocky individual, you would expect the heart to be located: more to the right and hanging more vertically. more to the left and lying more horizontally. riding higher in the chest and pushed anteriorly. hanging lower in the chest and riding more vertically. more to the right and lying more horizontally. Which of following is considered an expected finding in newborns and when found in adults is a concern? Mottling of the thorax Sternal retractions Cough Nasal flaring Stridor To assess a patient s jugular veins, he or she should first be placed in which position? Supine Semi-Fowler Upright Left lateral recumbent Leaning forward If pitting edema is unilateral, you would suspect occlusion of a: lymphatic duct. major vein. surface capillary. superficial artery. deep artery. The patient that you are examining is complaining of pain near the spine. While palpating the spinous process at T7, and medially to the inferior border of the right scapula, the patient feels more intense pain. When viewing the chest radiograph, you will carefully look at which rib? Right sixth rib Right seventh rib Right eighth rib Left seventh rib Left eighth rib In newborn infants, closure of the ductus arteriosus usually occurs: prior to the initiation of labor. 12 to 14 hours after birth. after 7 days of life. between the second and third month. during the toddler period. In the adult, the apical impulse should be most visible when the patient is in what position? Supine Leaning backwards Lithotomy Right lateral recumbent Upright Persons of Irish or German descent and genetically predisposed women who take birth control pills are at risk for developing: kidney dysfunction. liver disease. renal calculi. varicose veins. preeclampsia. An idiopathic spasm of arterioles in the digits is called: arteriosclerosis obliterans. giant cell arteritis. arteriovenous fistula. peripheral arterial aneurysm. Raynaud disease. In differentiating between an occluded artery or vein, a differentiating sign (present in venous but not arterial occlusion) is: color change. edema. pain with walking. pain with palpation. paralysis. Electrical activity recorded by the electrocardiogram (ECG) tracing that denotes the spread of the stimulus through the atria is the: P wave. PR interval. QRS complex. ST segment. T wave. In children, coarctation of the aorta should be suspected if you detect: a delay between the radial and femoral pulses. a simultaneous radial and femoral pulse. an absent femoral pulse on the left. bilateral absence of femoral pulses. equal blood pressures in the arms and legs. A sound similar to a murmur that is heard over arteries is a: thrill. hum. friction rub. bruit. heave. Mr. O., age 50, comes for his yearly health assessment, which is provided by his employer. During your initial history-taking interview, Mr. O. mentions that he routinely engages in light exercise. At this time, you should: ask if he makes his own bed daily. have the patient describe his exercise. make a note that he walks each day. record light exercise in the history. record questionable exercise in the history. You are conducting an examination of Mr. C. s heart and blood vessels and auscultate a grade III murmur. The intensity of this murmur is: barely discernible. quiet but audible. moderately loud. loud with palpable thrill. very loud without a stethoscope. NURS 6512 Week 7 Quiz / NURS6512 Week 7 Quiz (2 Latest Versions): Advanced Health Assessment: Walden University Walden NURS 6512 Week 7 Quiz / Walden NURS6512 Week 7 Quiz (2 Latest Versions) You are caring for a patient with trigeminal neuralgia. During the assessment, the patient would describe the pain as: A. throbbing and dull. B. burning or shocklike. C. tender and deep. D. cramping and spasmodic. Ms. Green is an 85-year-old female patient with dementia who presents to the emergency department with her daughter because of a change in function. Which pain assessment scale would be the best choice? A. Oucher Scale B. Checklist for Nonverbal Pain Indicators C. Wong/Baker Rating Scale D. CRIES Scale Body language that leads you to suspect the person is in pain is: A. talkative, verbose speech. B. fretful hand movements. C. focused, fixed eye stares. D. marked salivation. What is considered the gold standard diagnostic radiology test for appendicitis? Thin cut CT CBC with diff Abdominal ultrasound Barium enema Pulsusparadoxus greater than 20 mm Hg, tachycardia greater than 130 beats per minute, and increasing dyspnea are signs of: intracranial pressure. pulmonary hypertension. statusasthmaticus. tetanic contractions. drug overdose. A 5-year-old is complaining of nondescriptive "belly pain." Your next action should be to ask him to: A. point a finger to the spot that hurts. B. draw a circle around the area that hurts. C. use a metaphor to describe the pain. D. identify how pain medication affects the pain. You ask the patient to raise the head and shoulders while lying in a supine position. A midline abdominal ridge rises. You chart this observation as a(n): small inguinal hernia. large epigastric hernia. abdominal lipoma. diastasis recti. incisional hernia. When auscultating the abdomen, which finding would indicate collateral circulation between the portal and systemic venous systems? Arterial bruit Gastric rumbling Renal hyperresonance Borborygmi Venous hum Which structure is located in the hypogastric region of the abdomen? Bladder Cecum Gallbladder Stomach Liver The major function of the large intestine is: water absorption. food digestion. carbohydrate absorption. mucous absorption. glycogen breakdown. Before performing an abdominal examination, the examiner should: ascertain the patient s HIV status. have the patient empty his or her bladder. don double gloves. completely disrobe the patient. uncover only the painful areas of the abdomen. Which abdominal organs also produce hormones and function as endocrine glands? Kidney and liver Liver and gallbladder Stomach and spleen Gallbladder and pancreas Pancreas and kidney After thorough inspection of the abdomen, the next assessment step is to: percuss. palpatenonpainful areas. auscultate. perform a rectal examination. palpate painful areas. A mother brings her 2-year-old child for you to assess. The mother feels a lump whenever she fastens the child s diaper. Nephroblastoma is likely for this child when your physical examination of the abdomen reveals a(n): fixed mass palpated in the hypogastric area. tender, midline abdominal mass. olive-sized mass of the right upper quadrant. nontender, slightly moveable, flank mass. sausage-shaped mass in the left upper quadrant. What condition is associated with purplish striae? Cushing disease Diastasis recti Liver cirrhosis Recent pregnancy Intra-abdominal bleeding When examining a patient with tense abdominal musculature, a helpful technique is to have the patient: hold his or her breath. sit upright. flex his or her knees. raise his or her head off the pillow. fully extend the legs. A patient presents to the emergency department after a motor vehicle accident. The patient sustained blunt trauma to the abdomen and complains of pain in the upper left quadrant that radiates to the left shoulder. What organ is most likely injured? Gallbladder Liver Spleen Stomach Colon Visible intestinal peristalsis may indicate: normal digestion. intestinal obstruction. increased pulse pressure of aorta. aortic aneurysm. paralytic ileus. The majority of nutrient absorption takes place in the: stomach. small intestine. cecum. transverse colon. descending colon. An umbilical assessment in the newborn that is of concern is: a thick cord. an umbilical hernia. one umbilical artery and two veins. pulsations superior to the umbilicus. visiblenondistended superficial veins. NURS 6512 Week 8 Quiz / NURS6512 Week 8 Quiz (2 Latest Versions): Advanced Health Assessment: Walden University Walden NURS 6512 Week 8 Quiz / Walden NURS6512 Week 8 Quiz (2 Latest Versions) A red, hot swollen joint in a 40-year-old man should lead you to suspect: trauma. bursitis. gout. cellulitis. tenosynovitis. An increase in muscle tone is known as: crepitus. effusion. tenosynovitis. atrophy. spasticity. A tingling sensation radiating from the wrist to the hand on striking the median nerve is a positive _____ sign. Phalen Gower Homan Tinel Allis Your examination of an infant reveals a positive Allis sign. To confirm this finding, you would perform a: startle reflex. Barlow-Ortolanimaneuver. Trendelenburg test. tibial torsion test. Lachman test. A goniometer is used to assess: bone maturity. joint proportions. range of motion. muscle strength. body fat. The musculoskeletal examination should begin when: the patient enters the examination room. during the collection of subjective data. when height is measured. when joint mobility is assessed. the remainder of the physical examination is completed. The strength of the trapezius muscle is evaluated by having the patient: clench her teeth during muscle palpation. push her head against the examiner s hand. straighten her leg with examiner opposition. uncross her legs with examiner resistance. adduct the arm. Inquiry about nocturnal muscle spasms would be most significant when taking the musculoskeletal history of: adolescents. infants. older adults. middle adulthood. children. Expected normal findings during inspection of spinal alignment include: asymmetrical skinfolds at the neck. slight right-sided scapular elevation. convex lumbar curve. head positioned superiorly to the gluteal cleft. convex cervical curve. Light skin and thin body habitus are risk factors for: rheumatoid arthritis. osteoarthritis. congenital bony defects. osteoporosis. sports-related injuries. The dowager hump is: the hallmark of osteoporosis. pathognomic of scoliosis. indicative of tendonitis. characteristic of rickets. indicative of muscular dystrophy. Arm length is measured from the acromion process through the: olecranon joint to carpal thumb hinge. olecranon process to distal ulnar prominence. proximal radial prominence to distal joint. proximal ulnar joint to middle fingertip. olecranon process to the second fingertip. Pain, disease of the muscle, or damage to the motor neuron may all cause: bony hypertrophy. muscle crepitus. muscle hypertrophy. muscle wasting. claudication. What technique is performed at every infant examination during the first year of life to detect hip dislocation? Ballottement maneuvers Barlow-Ortolani maneuvers Range of motion Thomas McMurray assessment Trendelenburg test Term infants normally resist: ankle dorsiflexion. McMurray test. forefoot adduction. knee extension. elbow flexion. A finding that is indicative of osteoarthritis is: swan neck deformities. Bouchard nodes. ganglion cysts Heberden nodes. spindle-shaped fingers. A 3-year-old is brought to the clinic complaining of a painful right elbow. He is holding the right arm slightly flexed and pronated and refuses to move it. The mother states that symptoms started right after his older brother had been swinging him around by his arms. This presentation supports a diagnosis of: radial head subluxation. femoralanteversion. carpal tunnel syndrome. Osgood-Schlatter disease. osteomyelitis. Anterior cruciate ligament integrity is assessed via the _____ test. Lachman straight leg raise valgus stress Homan Thomas A 7-year-old boy is brought into your office with a chief complaint of possible fracture in his left third finger. He jammed it while playing basketball 2 days ago. The mother states that she really does not think it is broken because he can move it. What is your best response? Yes, if he can wiggle the finger, then it is not broken. This is a common misconception, and the finger may be broken. An x-ray is indicated. No x-ray is indicated at this time because there is a waiting period of 3 days before we can take x-rays. Finger x-rays are never indicated. A patient presenting for the first time with typical low back pain should receive which of the following diagnostic tests? Lumbar x-ray CT of the lumbar spine MRI of the lumbar spine None of the above. X-ray is not indicated because lumbar pain is usually of musculoskeletal etiology. NURS 6512 Week 9 Quiz / NURS6512 Week 9 Quiz (2 Latest Versions): Advanced Health Assessment: Walden University Walden NURS 6512 Week 9 Quiz / Walden NURS6512 Week 9 Quiz (2 Latest Versions) • Question 1 Environmental hazards and cognitive function are data needed for the personal and social history section of a neurologic assessment for: • Question 2 You have asked a patient to close his eyes and identify an object placed in his hand. You are evaluating: • Question 3 Motor maturation proceeds in an orderly progression from: • • Question 4 The Denver II is a tool used to determine: • Question 5 A positive Babinski sign is normal until what age? • Question 6 While interviewing a 70-year-old female clinic patient, she tells you that she takes ginkgo biloba and St. John s wort. You make a short note to check for results of the: • Question 7 Deep pressure tests are used mostly for patients who are experiencing: • Question 8 Loss of immediate and recent memory with retention of remote memory suggests: • Question 9 A patient in the deepest coma would be scored a _____ on the Glasgow Coma Scale. • Question 10 Diabetic peripheral neuropathy will likely produce: • Question 11 You are initially evaluating the equilibrium of Ms. Q. You ask her to stand with her feet together and arms at her sides. She loses her balance. Ms. Q. has a positive: • Question 12 Flight of ideas or loosening of associations are associated with: • Question 13 At what age should the infant begin to transfer objects from hand to hand? • Question 14 You are performing a two-point discrimination test as part of a well physical examination. The area with the ability to discern two points in the shortest distance is the: • Question 15 Normal changes of the aging brain include: • Question 16 To assess a cremasteric reflex, the examiner strokes the: • Question 17 The finger-to-nose test allows assessment of: • Question 18 The Glasgow Coma Scale is used to: • Question 19 An aversion to touch or being held, along with delayed or absent language development, is characteristic of: • Question 20 A woman brings her husband to the emergency department and states that he is having a stroke. You are the student NP on the hospitalist service and are sent down first to obtain the history and physical. You develop a differential diagnosis and know that the initial gold standard radiology test to further evaluate is: NURS 6512 Week 10 Quiz / NURS6512 Week 10 Quiz (2 Latest Versions): Advanced Health Assessment: Walden University Walden NURS 6512 Week 10 Quiz / Walden NURS6512 Week 10 Quiz (2 Latest Versions) A nursing mother complains that her breasts are tender. You assess hard, shiny, and erythremic breasts bilaterally. You should advise the patient to: massage gently and continue nursing. apply warm compresses and stop nursing. monitor her temperature and restrict fluids. sleep with a bra and wash her breasts with antibacterial soap. stop nursing and restrict fluids. A normal vas deferens should feel: tender. smooth. rugated. spongy. beaded. In a woman complaining of a breast lump, it is most important to ask about: its relationship to menses. weight gain. sleep patterns. immunization status. alcohol consumption. A 23-year-old female presents with severe right lower quadrant tenderness. All of the following should be considered in the differential except: Ruptured ovarian cyst Appendicitis Pelvic inflammatory disease Classic diverticulitis What is the initial diagnostic radiology test that should be ordered if you suspect a ruptured ovarian cyst? Abdominal and transvaginal ultrasound Flat and upright abdominal x-ray CT of the abdomen CT of the abdomen and pelvis A 17-year-old male was brought into the emergency room with testicular/scrotal pain. The differential diagnosis should include all except: Testicular cancer Testicular torsion Inguinal herniation Epididymitis The finding of a painless indurated lesion on the glans penis is most consistent with: herpes simplex. herpes zoster. warts. chancre. molluscumcontagiosum. Thrombosed hemorrhoids are: flabby skin sacs. red, inflamed, and painful. fluctuant soft papules. blue, shiny painful masses. pink to whitish. Pregnancy-related cervical changes include: flattening and lengthening. thinning and reddening. hardening and pallor. shortening and reddening. softening and bluish coloring. You are inspecting the genitalia of an uncircumcised adult male. The foreskin is tight and cannot be easily retracted. You should: chart the finding as paraphimosis. inquire about previous penile infections. retract the foreskin firmly. transilluminate the glans. chart the finding as balanitis. An adolescent male is being seen for acute onset of left testicular pain. The pain started 3 hours ago. He complains of nausea and denies dysuria or fever. Your prioritized assessment should be to: obtain urine and DNA probe urethral samples. lift the left scrotum to confirm epididymitis. establish absent cremasteric reflex. transilluminate the left and right scrotum. have the patient stand and observe the scrotum for a bag of worms. A 23-year-old white woman has come to the clinic because she has missed two menstrual periods. She states that her breasts have enlarged and that her nipples have turned a darker color. Your further response to this finding is to: instruct her that this is a side effect of birth control injection therapy. suggest pregnancy testing. question her use of tanning beds. schedule an appointment with a surgeon. recommend she remove caffeine from her diet. During a pelvic examination for a postmenopausal woman you would expect to assess: a wider and longer vaginal vault. absence of vaginal wall rugation. anonpalpable cervical os. a more mobile cervix. palpable ovaries. While collecting personal and social history data from a woman complaining of breast discomfort, you should question her regarding: history of medication allergies. alcohol, tobacco, and caffeine use. level of personal education. amount of personal income. menstrual history. Your patient s chief complaint is repeated pencil-like stools. Further examination should include: stool culture. parasite testing. digital rectal examination (DRE). prostate examination. cellulose tape test. Which one of the following is a proper technique for use of a speculum during a vaginal examination? Allow labia to spread; insert speculum slightly open. Press introitus upward; insert closed speculum horizontally. Press introitus downward; insert closed speculum obliquely. Spread labia; insert closed speculum horizontally. Insert one finger; insert opened speculum. A cervical polyp usually appears as a: grainy appearance at the ectocervical junction. bright-red soft protrusion from the endocervical canal. transverse or stellate scar. hard granular surface at or near the os. flesh colored firm protrusion at the cervical os. Asking the woman to close the introitus during a pelvic examination is a test for: endometriosis. rectocele. cervical polyps. muscle tone. cystocele. Male gynecomastia associated with illicit or prescription drug use can be expected to: lessen when the body becomes accustomed to the drug. resolve after the drug is discontinued. leave permanent breast enlargement when the drug is discontinued. cause purulent drainage if left untreated. lead to an increased risk of breast cancer. A cremasteric reflex should result in: the scrotum appear to contain a bag of worms. penile deviation to the left side. scrotum to elevate bilaterally. immediate erection of the penis. testicle and scrotal rise on the stroked side. NURS 6512 Week 11 Quiz / NURS6512 Week 11 Quiz (2 Latest Versions): Advanced Health Assessment: Walden University Walden NURS 6512 Week 11 Quiz / Walden NURS6512 Week 11 Quiz (2 Latest Versions) Which of the following are examined with the patient in a reclining 45-degree position? Bilateral hips and popliteal angles Facial bones and cranial nerves V and VII Cardinal fields of gaze Oropharynx and thyroid gland placement Jugular venous pulsation and pressure Which one of the following patient characteristics is most likely to limit patient reliability during history taking? Patient s measured IQ is above average. Patient is alert and oriented to time and place. Patient is sleep and sensory deprived. Patient speaks the same language as examiner. Patient appears emotionally stable. Functional assessment is most important during the examination of a(n): adolescent. infant. older adult. young adult. toddler. Which of the following statements accurately reflects the sensitivity and specificity of laboratory tests? Sensitivity and specificity are not related. Sensitivity and specificity are inversely correlated. Sensitivity and specificity are directly correlated. No test has 100% sensitivity and specificity. The gold standard test has 100% sensitivity and specificity. Which medical condition would exclude one from sports participation? Asthma Fever Controlled seizures HIV-positive status Sickle cell trait Your 15-year-old patient is athletic and thin. Radiography of an ankle injury reveals a stress fracture. You should question this patient about her: sleep patterns. salt intake. aerobic workouts. menstrual cycles. family history. The best way to ease the apprehension of a 3-year-old child before a physical examination is to: explain that you will be gentle. have the parents leave the examination room. let the child hold the stethoscope while you listen. tell the child he or she will get a lollipop for good behavior. hand the child a picture book. An ophthalmoscopic eye examination involves: lens inspection. near vision evaluation. sclera observation. visual field assessment. assessing extraocular eye muscles. When conducting a geriatric assessment, basic activities of daily living (ADLs) include: bathing. housekeeping. medication compliance. communication skills. money management. The checkout station for preparticipation physical evaluation (PPE) is critical because at this point: all completed forms are distributed. parentalcosignatures are obtained. the relevant history is obtained. coordination of follow-ups is reviewed. a primary care visit will not be required. Which of the following is true regarding the relationship between the examiner and the patient? It is the examiner s responsibility to help the patient understand that he or she is qualified to make decisions regarding health care. The patient must trust the examiner completely. The examiner-patient relationship is enhanced by ignoring cultural issues. The patient is a full partner with the examiner. The examiner-patient relationship should never have priority over strict information gathering. The greatest risk for potential health problems occurs in which age group? Newborn Toddler School age Adolescence Young adult The sequence of the physical examination should be individualized to: minimize the number of times that the patient must change positions. maximize the convenience of the examiner. improve patient flow. minimize the time the patient is in the room. maximize patient movements to assess their mobility. When you attempt to move a 10-month-old child from his mother s lap to the examination table, he screams loudly. Your best action is to: move the child to the examination table and proceed matter-of-factly with the examination. perform the examination while the child is in the mother s lap. ask the mother to get the child to stop crying. defer the examination until another day. have the mother place the child on the examination table. One of the most important aspects to consider in the orthopedic screening examination is: muscle contraction. flexibility. muscle development. balance. symmetry. The cranial nerves are usually assessed while the patient is in which position? Left lateral Supine Sitting Prone Standing Which patient position facilitates inspection of the chest and shoulders? Sitting Supine Trendelenburg Prone Lithotomy Which of the following factors is not known to affect patient compliance with his or her treatment regimen? The patient s ability to understand the problem The value the patient places on resolving the problem The provider s relationship with the patient The patient s age and social status The provider s recognition of the patient s autonomy Throughout the history and physical examination, the clinician should: concentrate on emotional issues. follow an inflexible sequence. maintain a matter-of-fact demeanor. deal only with previously identified problems. evaluate the whole patient. According to the usual examination procedure, you would first assist your patient to assume which position? Lithotomy Prone Standing Supine Sitting