PTCB PRACTICE TEST QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS WITH COMPLETE TEST 2021
Which of the following injectable drugs would be store in the refrigerator?
a. Clindamycin
b. Ciprofloxacin
c. cyanocobalamin
d. Calcitonin-salmonCorrect Answers: d. Calcitonin-samon because none of the drugs listed as
distractors (a, b,c) are stored in the refrigerator per manufacturer storage instructions.
Which of the following is indicated for treatment of Parkinson's disease?
a. Amantadine
b. Alprazolam
c. Amitriptyline
d. AmilorideCorrect Answers: a. Amantadine is indicated for Parkinson's disease. Distractor (B) in
incorrect as alprazolam is indicated for anxiety or panic disorder. Distractor (C) is incorrect as
amitriptyline is indicated for depression. Distractor (D) is incorrect because amiloride is a diuretic
indicated mostly for hypertension
Look-alike/sound-alike medications are addressed in the Accreditation Standards of the Joint
commission because these products:
a. are sufficiently separated when placed with the regular medication.
b. allow quicker filling of prescriptions and faster service to patients.
c. should be kept locked in the pharmacy safe.
d. have higher error risk due to picking errors.Correct Answers: d. have a higher error risk due to picking
errors.
D is correct because as the name implies, look-alike and sound-alike medications may be mistaken for
each other and could lead to a higher risk of selecting the wrong medication.
Which of the following, when combined with acetaminophen 325 mg. would be a generic substitute for
Tylenol No. 4?
a. Codeine 15 mg
b. Codeine 60 mg
c. Oxycodone 7.5 mg
d. Oxycodone 10 mgCorrect Answers: b. Codeine 60 mg
Distractor (A) does not come in a combination product. Distractors (C) and (D) are generic Percocet in
two different strengths.
Which of the following brand/generic pairs is correct?
a. Decadron/prednisone
b. Aleve/ketoprofen
c. Premarin/ estradiol
d. Ativan/lorazepamCorrect Answers: d. Ativan/lorazepam
,Decadron/dexamethasone
Aleve/naproxen
Premarin/conjugated estrogen
A physician orders phenobarbital elixir 60 mg for a patient. The drug is available in a 20 mg/5 mL
concentration. How many teaspoonfuls should be given for each dose?
a. 1
b.2
c. 3
d. 4Correct Answers: C. 3
because each dose is 15 mL (20 mg/5 mL= 60 mg/x mL, solve for x). 1 teaspoonful is 5 mL, so 15 mL is 3
teaspoonful
An essential component of pharmacy quality assurance programs is to:
a. maintain standards set by the DEA.
b. focus on the individual employee's work performance
c. get the right drug to the right patient at the right time
d. provide adequate emergency stock levels.Correct Answers: c. get the right drug to the right patient at
the right time
because pharmacy quality assurance programs are put in place to guarantee the "rights" of pharmacy
practice. Although distractors (A) and (D) may be included in the program, they are not essential
components. Distractor (B) is incorrect because quality assurance programs are intended to apply to
performance of the department rather than individuals
The information contained in the manufacturer's package insert may also be found in the:
a. Orange Book
b. Merck manual
c. Physicians' Desk Reference
d. Drug IndexCorrect Answers: c. Physicians' Desk Reference
because PDR is a book of package inserts. The Orange Book give bioequivalence information, the Drug
Index gives brand and generic names, and the Merck manual does not contain drug information
The primary routing mechanism for a real-time-party prescription claim is a:
a. person code
b. BIN.
c. group number
d. member numberCorrect Answers: b. BIN
because BIN identifies the company that is accepting the billing for the medication. Distractors (a, c, and
d) are secondary indentifiers.
OSHA mandates that healthcare facilities have specific plans in place to protect healthcare workers from
with of the following:
a. Influenza
b. Pneumonia
, c. C-difficile
d. Hepatitis BCorrect Answers: d. Hepatitis B
OSHA requires healthcare facilities to offer Hepatitis B immunizations and follow Universal Precautions
to protect workers from Hepatitis B. OSHA does not require protection from influenza, pneumonia, or C-
diff
Which of the following is a calcium channel blocker?
a. Diltiazem
b. Atenolol
c. Ramipril
d. NitroglycerinCorrect Answers: a. diltiazem
Atenolol is a beta-adrenergic blocker
Ramipril is an ACE inhibitor
nitroglycerin is a vasodilator
How many bottles of hemline R insulin would be dispensed for a 90 day supply if the prescription states
"Inject 10 units SC every morning, 8 units SC at lunch, and 12 units SC at bedtime"?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 5Correct Answers: c. 3
the patient uses 30 units a day for 90 days. That would be 2700 units needed. Each 10 mL vial contains
1000 units, so 3 vials would be needed
According to the Institute for Safe Medication Practices (ISMP), abbreviations used during prescription
writing:
a. are no longer acceptable
b. improve entry time.
c. are prone to errors.
d. facilitate the prescriberCorrect Answers: c. are prone to errors
because the Institute for Safe Medications Practices has a list of error-prone abbreviations that should
never be used when communicating medical information because they are frequently misinterpreted
and involved in harmful medication errors.
Stock rotation is necessary to ensure that:
a. damaged drugs are used first.
b. short-dated items are used first
c. damaged drugs are used last.
d. short-dated items are used lastCorrect Answers: b. short-dated items are used first
because stock rotation is a process used to increase the likelihood that products are used before they go
out of date. Damaged drugs should not be used at all, and if short-dated items were saved for last, they
might go out of date before being dispensed.
Which of the following injectable drugs would be store in the refrigerator?
a. Clindamycin
b. Ciprofloxacin
c. cyanocobalamin
d. Calcitonin-salmonCorrect Answers: d. Calcitonin-samon because none of the drugs listed as
distractors (a, b,c) are stored in the refrigerator per manufacturer storage instructions.
Which of the following is indicated for treatment of Parkinson's disease?
a. Amantadine
b. Alprazolam
c. Amitriptyline
d. AmilorideCorrect Answers: a. Amantadine is indicated for Parkinson's disease. Distractor (B) in
incorrect as alprazolam is indicated for anxiety or panic disorder. Distractor (C) is incorrect as
amitriptyline is indicated for depression. Distractor (D) is incorrect because amiloride is a diuretic
indicated mostly for hypertension
Look-alike/sound-alike medications are addressed in the Accreditation Standards of the Joint
commission because these products:
a. are sufficiently separated when placed with the regular medication.
b. allow quicker filling of prescriptions and faster service to patients.
c. should be kept locked in the pharmacy safe.
d. have higher error risk due to picking errors.Correct Answers: d. have a higher error risk due to picking
errors.
D is correct because as the name implies, look-alike and sound-alike medications may be mistaken for
each other and could lead to a higher risk of selecting the wrong medication.
Which of the following, when combined with acetaminophen 325 mg. would be a generic substitute for
Tylenol No. 4?
a. Codeine 15 mg
b. Codeine 60 mg
c. Oxycodone 7.5 mg
d. Oxycodone 10 mgCorrect Answers: b. Codeine 60 mg
Distractor (A) does not come in a combination product. Distractors (C) and (D) are generic Percocet in
two different strengths.
Which of the following brand/generic pairs is correct?
a. Decadron/prednisone
b. Aleve/ketoprofen
c. Premarin/ estradiol
d. Ativan/lorazepamCorrect Answers: d. Ativan/lorazepam
,Decadron/dexamethasone
Aleve/naproxen
Premarin/conjugated estrogen
A physician orders phenobarbital elixir 60 mg for a patient. The drug is available in a 20 mg/5 mL
concentration. How many teaspoonfuls should be given for each dose?
a. 1
b.2
c. 3
d. 4Correct Answers: C. 3
because each dose is 15 mL (20 mg/5 mL= 60 mg/x mL, solve for x). 1 teaspoonful is 5 mL, so 15 mL is 3
teaspoonful
An essential component of pharmacy quality assurance programs is to:
a. maintain standards set by the DEA.
b. focus on the individual employee's work performance
c. get the right drug to the right patient at the right time
d. provide adequate emergency stock levels.Correct Answers: c. get the right drug to the right patient at
the right time
because pharmacy quality assurance programs are put in place to guarantee the "rights" of pharmacy
practice. Although distractors (A) and (D) may be included in the program, they are not essential
components. Distractor (B) is incorrect because quality assurance programs are intended to apply to
performance of the department rather than individuals
The information contained in the manufacturer's package insert may also be found in the:
a. Orange Book
b. Merck manual
c. Physicians' Desk Reference
d. Drug IndexCorrect Answers: c. Physicians' Desk Reference
because PDR is a book of package inserts. The Orange Book give bioequivalence information, the Drug
Index gives brand and generic names, and the Merck manual does not contain drug information
The primary routing mechanism for a real-time-party prescription claim is a:
a. person code
b. BIN.
c. group number
d. member numberCorrect Answers: b. BIN
because BIN identifies the company that is accepting the billing for the medication. Distractors (a, c, and
d) are secondary indentifiers.
OSHA mandates that healthcare facilities have specific plans in place to protect healthcare workers from
with of the following:
a. Influenza
b. Pneumonia
, c. C-difficile
d. Hepatitis BCorrect Answers: d. Hepatitis B
OSHA requires healthcare facilities to offer Hepatitis B immunizations and follow Universal Precautions
to protect workers from Hepatitis B. OSHA does not require protection from influenza, pneumonia, or C-
diff
Which of the following is a calcium channel blocker?
a. Diltiazem
b. Atenolol
c. Ramipril
d. NitroglycerinCorrect Answers: a. diltiazem
Atenolol is a beta-adrenergic blocker
Ramipril is an ACE inhibitor
nitroglycerin is a vasodilator
How many bottles of hemline R insulin would be dispensed for a 90 day supply if the prescription states
"Inject 10 units SC every morning, 8 units SC at lunch, and 12 units SC at bedtime"?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 5Correct Answers: c. 3
the patient uses 30 units a day for 90 days. That would be 2700 units needed. Each 10 mL vial contains
1000 units, so 3 vials would be needed
According to the Institute for Safe Medication Practices (ISMP), abbreviations used during prescription
writing:
a. are no longer acceptable
b. improve entry time.
c. are prone to errors.
d. facilitate the prescriberCorrect Answers: c. are prone to errors
because the Institute for Safe Medications Practices has a list of error-prone abbreviations that should
never be used when communicating medical information because they are frequently misinterpreted
and involved in harmful medication errors.
Stock rotation is necessary to ensure that:
a. damaged drugs are used first.
b. short-dated items are used first
c. damaged drugs are used last.
d. short-dated items are used lastCorrect Answers: b. short-dated items are used first
because stock rotation is a process used to increase the likelihood that products are used before they go
out of date. Damaged drugs should not be used at all, and if short-dated items were saved for last, they
might go out of date before being dispensed.
