CLINICAL PHARMACY
1. It refers to the responsible provision of drug therapy to achieve definite outcomes that are intended to improve
a patient’s quality of life
A. Professional-patient’s relationship
B. Therapeutic drug monitoring
C. Drug therapy assessment
D. Pharmaceutical care
E. Formal documentation
2. It involves measuring direct and indirect costs attributable to a specific disease
A. Cost-of-Illness Evaluation
B. Cost-Effectiveness Analysis
C. Cost-Minimization Analysis
D. Cost-Utility Analysis
E. Cost-Benefit Analysis
3. The method that allows for the identification, measurement, and comparison of the benefits and costs of a
program or treatment alternative
A. Cost-of-Illness Evaluation
B. Cost-Effectiveness Analysis
C. Cost-Minimization Analysis
D. Cost-Utility Analysis
E. Cost-Benefit Analysis
4. The method that involves the determination of the least costly alternative when comparing two or more
treatment alternatives
A. Cost-of-Illness Evaluation
B. Cost-Effectiveness Analysis
C. Cost-Minimization Analysis
D. Cost-Utility Analysis
E. Cost-Benefit Analysis
5. The method that integrates the patient preferences and health-related quality of life
A. Cost-of-Illness Evaluation
B. Cost-Effectiveness Analysis
C. Cost-Minimization Analysis
D. Cost-Utility Analysis
E. Cost-Benefit Analysis
6. A way of summarizing the health benefits and resources used by competing health care programs so that
policy makers can choose among them
A. Cost-of-Illness Evaluation
B. Cost-Effectiveness Analysis
C. Cost-Minimization Analysis
D. Cost-Utility Analysis
E. Cost-Benefit Analysis
7. It refers to the value assigned to duration of life as modified by impairments, functional states, perceptions and
social opportunities that are influenced by disease, injury, treatment or policy
A. Optimum health
B. Quality of life
C. Health outcomes
D. Responsiveness
E. Wellness of being
8. A study design in which neither the study subject nor the study staff is aware of which group or intervention
the subjects has been assigned
A. Randomized control trial
B. Crossover study
C. Cohort study
D. Blinded study
E. Cross-sectional study
9. A retrospective comparison of causal factors or exposures in a group of persons with disease and those of
persons without the disease
, C. Cohort study
D. meta-analysis
E. open-label trial
10. A retrospective or prospective follow-up study of exposed and non-exposed defined groups in which a variable
of interest is measured
A. Cross-sectional study
B. Case control study
C. Cross over study
D. Cohort study
E. open label trial
11. A trial comparing treatments in which participants, on completion of one treatment, are switched to the other
A. Cross-sectional study
B. Cross over study
C. meta-analysis
D. open label trial
E. cohort study
12. A study that examines the presence or absence of a disease and other variable in a defined population and
the potential risk factor at a particular point in time or time-interval
A. Cross-sectional study
B. Cohort study
C. case control study
D. cross over study
E. case series
13. Which of the following best describes the neonates?
A. those who are 1 month to 1 year of age
B. those who are 1 year to 12 years of age
C. those who are 12 to 16 years of age
D. those between 1 day and 1 month
E. those born before 32 weeks of gestational age
14. Which of the following best describes the infant?
A. those who are 1 month to 1 year of age
B. those who are 1 year to 12 years of age
C. those who are 12 to 16 years of age
D. those between 1 day and 1 month
E. those born before 32 weeks of gestational age
15. Clinical manifestation of Gray Baby Syndrome include:
I. Characteristic gray color III. Hypertension
II. Abdominal distention IV. Progressive shock
A. I only
B. I and IV only
C. I, II and III only
D. I, II and IV only
E. I and III only
16. Which of the following is associated with the use of thalidomide?
I. Polyneuritis III. Limb deformities
II. Mental retardation
A. I only
B. I, II and III only
C. II and III only
D. III only
E. I and III only
17. Factors that increase the risk of drug-related problems in the elderly include:
I. Polypharmacy III. Medication adherence
II. Inappropriate prescribing IV. Multiple diseases
A. I and II only
B. I, II and III only
C. II and IV only
D. I, II and IV only
, A. I, II and III only
B. I, III and IV only
C. II, III and IV only
D. I, II and IV only
E. I, II, III and IV
19. Refers to the continual monitoring for unwanted effects and other safety-related aspects of marketed drugs
A. Pharmacoepidemiology
B. Pharmacovigilance
C. Pharmacoinformatics
D. Pharmacogenetics
E. Pharmacogenomics
20. Study of the use of and effect of drugs in a large number of people
A. Pharmacoepidemiology
B. Pharmacovigilance
C. Pharmacoinformatics
D. Pharmacogenetics
E. Pharmacogenomics
21. Any noxious, unintended, and undesired effect of a drug that occurs at doses used in humans for prophylaxis,
diagnosis or therapy
A. Adverse drug event
B. Allergy
C. Hypersensitivity
D. Adverse drug reaction
E. Idiosyncrasy
22. Which of the following is/are true regarding chest x-ray?
I. Provides supplemental information to the physical examination and usually the first diagnostic test in a
cardiac workup
II. Provides details of internal cardiac structures
III. Gives information about position and size of the heart and chambers and surrounding anatomy
A. I only
B. I, II and III
C. I and II only
D. I and III only
E. II and III only
23. The manifestation of chromium deficiency include:
I. Alopecia III. Red blood cell fragility
II. Depigmentation of hair and skin IV. Glucose intolerance
A. I and II only
B. II and IV only
C. I, II, III and VI
D. III only
E. IV only
24. The manifestation of zinc deficiency include:
I. Poor wound healing III. Poor resistance to infection
II. Poor growth
A. I only
B. II and III only
C. I and IV only
D. III only
E. I, II and III only
25. Incompatibilities with fat emulsions cause majority of formulation problems in TPN. Which of the following
affects lipid stability in TPN preparations?
I. Nature of amino acid solution III. The amount of dissolved oxygen in the solution
II. pH IV. Electrolyte content
A. I, II and III only
B. II, III and IV only
C. I, II and IV only
D. I and II only
, A. IV only
B. I and III only
C. I, II and III only
D. II, III and IV only
E. II and IV only
27. Which of the following is the most rapidly reduced vitamin?
A. Riboflavin
B. Niacin
C. Thiamine
D. Cevitamic Acid
E. Ascorbic Acid
28. Which of the following are associated with delusional hyponatremia?
I. Administration of albumin III. Cirrhosis
II. Congestive heart failure
A. II only
B. I and III only
C. I and II only
D. I only
E. I, II and III
29. Which of the following is/are true regarding blood urea nitrogen (BUN)?
I. End product of protein metabolism
II. Produces by liver and kidney
III. Filtered completely at glomerulus
A. I and II only
B. I and III only
C. II and III only
D. I, II and III
E. I only
30. Which of the following accurately describes creatinine?
I. Not absorbed and secreted by the kidney
II. Filtered freely at the glomerulus
III. Metabolized by the kidney
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and II only
E. II and III only
31. Which of the following is/are true regarding aspartate aminotransferase (AST)?
I. Also called serum glutamic pyruvic transaminase
II. Abundant in heart and liver tissue
III.Used to evaluate myocardial injury and case prognosis of liver disease resulting from hepatocellular
injury
A. I only
B. I and II only
C. I and III only
D. II and III only
E. III only
32. Which of the following is/are true regarding the comparison of ALT and AST enzyme?
I. ALT elevations persist longer than those of AST.
II. ALT is more liver specific.
III. The liver contains 3.5 times more AST than ALT.
A. I, II and III
B. I and II only
C. II and III only
D. I and III only
E. II only
33. Which of the following may result to a decrease in hematocrit?
I. Hemolysis III. Sickle cell anemia
1. It refers to the responsible provision of drug therapy to achieve definite outcomes that are intended to improve
a patient’s quality of life
A. Professional-patient’s relationship
B. Therapeutic drug monitoring
C. Drug therapy assessment
D. Pharmaceutical care
E. Formal documentation
2. It involves measuring direct and indirect costs attributable to a specific disease
A. Cost-of-Illness Evaluation
B. Cost-Effectiveness Analysis
C. Cost-Minimization Analysis
D. Cost-Utility Analysis
E. Cost-Benefit Analysis
3. The method that allows for the identification, measurement, and comparison of the benefits and costs of a
program or treatment alternative
A. Cost-of-Illness Evaluation
B. Cost-Effectiveness Analysis
C. Cost-Minimization Analysis
D. Cost-Utility Analysis
E. Cost-Benefit Analysis
4. The method that involves the determination of the least costly alternative when comparing two or more
treatment alternatives
A. Cost-of-Illness Evaluation
B. Cost-Effectiveness Analysis
C. Cost-Minimization Analysis
D. Cost-Utility Analysis
E. Cost-Benefit Analysis
5. The method that integrates the patient preferences and health-related quality of life
A. Cost-of-Illness Evaluation
B. Cost-Effectiveness Analysis
C. Cost-Minimization Analysis
D. Cost-Utility Analysis
E. Cost-Benefit Analysis
6. A way of summarizing the health benefits and resources used by competing health care programs so that
policy makers can choose among them
A. Cost-of-Illness Evaluation
B. Cost-Effectiveness Analysis
C. Cost-Minimization Analysis
D. Cost-Utility Analysis
E. Cost-Benefit Analysis
7. It refers to the value assigned to duration of life as modified by impairments, functional states, perceptions and
social opportunities that are influenced by disease, injury, treatment or policy
A. Optimum health
B. Quality of life
C. Health outcomes
D. Responsiveness
E. Wellness of being
8. A study design in which neither the study subject nor the study staff is aware of which group or intervention
the subjects has been assigned
A. Randomized control trial
B. Crossover study
C. Cohort study
D. Blinded study
E. Cross-sectional study
9. A retrospective comparison of causal factors or exposures in a group of persons with disease and those of
persons without the disease
, C. Cohort study
D. meta-analysis
E. open-label trial
10. A retrospective or prospective follow-up study of exposed and non-exposed defined groups in which a variable
of interest is measured
A. Cross-sectional study
B. Case control study
C. Cross over study
D. Cohort study
E. open label trial
11. A trial comparing treatments in which participants, on completion of one treatment, are switched to the other
A. Cross-sectional study
B. Cross over study
C. meta-analysis
D. open label trial
E. cohort study
12. A study that examines the presence or absence of a disease and other variable in a defined population and
the potential risk factor at a particular point in time or time-interval
A. Cross-sectional study
B. Cohort study
C. case control study
D. cross over study
E. case series
13. Which of the following best describes the neonates?
A. those who are 1 month to 1 year of age
B. those who are 1 year to 12 years of age
C. those who are 12 to 16 years of age
D. those between 1 day and 1 month
E. those born before 32 weeks of gestational age
14. Which of the following best describes the infant?
A. those who are 1 month to 1 year of age
B. those who are 1 year to 12 years of age
C. those who are 12 to 16 years of age
D. those between 1 day and 1 month
E. those born before 32 weeks of gestational age
15. Clinical manifestation of Gray Baby Syndrome include:
I. Characteristic gray color III. Hypertension
II. Abdominal distention IV. Progressive shock
A. I only
B. I and IV only
C. I, II and III only
D. I, II and IV only
E. I and III only
16. Which of the following is associated with the use of thalidomide?
I. Polyneuritis III. Limb deformities
II. Mental retardation
A. I only
B. I, II and III only
C. II and III only
D. III only
E. I and III only
17. Factors that increase the risk of drug-related problems in the elderly include:
I. Polypharmacy III. Medication adherence
II. Inappropriate prescribing IV. Multiple diseases
A. I and II only
B. I, II and III only
C. II and IV only
D. I, II and IV only
, A. I, II and III only
B. I, III and IV only
C. II, III and IV only
D. I, II and IV only
E. I, II, III and IV
19. Refers to the continual monitoring for unwanted effects and other safety-related aspects of marketed drugs
A. Pharmacoepidemiology
B. Pharmacovigilance
C. Pharmacoinformatics
D. Pharmacogenetics
E. Pharmacogenomics
20. Study of the use of and effect of drugs in a large number of people
A. Pharmacoepidemiology
B. Pharmacovigilance
C. Pharmacoinformatics
D. Pharmacogenetics
E. Pharmacogenomics
21. Any noxious, unintended, and undesired effect of a drug that occurs at doses used in humans for prophylaxis,
diagnosis or therapy
A. Adverse drug event
B. Allergy
C. Hypersensitivity
D. Adverse drug reaction
E. Idiosyncrasy
22. Which of the following is/are true regarding chest x-ray?
I. Provides supplemental information to the physical examination and usually the first diagnostic test in a
cardiac workup
II. Provides details of internal cardiac structures
III. Gives information about position and size of the heart and chambers and surrounding anatomy
A. I only
B. I, II and III
C. I and II only
D. I and III only
E. II and III only
23. The manifestation of chromium deficiency include:
I. Alopecia III. Red blood cell fragility
II. Depigmentation of hair and skin IV. Glucose intolerance
A. I and II only
B. II and IV only
C. I, II, III and VI
D. III only
E. IV only
24. The manifestation of zinc deficiency include:
I. Poor wound healing III. Poor resistance to infection
II. Poor growth
A. I only
B. II and III only
C. I and IV only
D. III only
E. I, II and III only
25. Incompatibilities with fat emulsions cause majority of formulation problems in TPN. Which of the following
affects lipid stability in TPN preparations?
I. Nature of amino acid solution III. The amount of dissolved oxygen in the solution
II. pH IV. Electrolyte content
A. I, II and III only
B. II, III and IV only
C. I, II and IV only
D. I and II only
, A. IV only
B. I and III only
C. I, II and III only
D. II, III and IV only
E. II and IV only
27. Which of the following is the most rapidly reduced vitamin?
A. Riboflavin
B. Niacin
C. Thiamine
D. Cevitamic Acid
E. Ascorbic Acid
28. Which of the following are associated with delusional hyponatremia?
I. Administration of albumin III. Cirrhosis
II. Congestive heart failure
A. II only
B. I and III only
C. I and II only
D. I only
E. I, II and III
29. Which of the following is/are true regarding blood urea nitrogen (BUN)?
I. End product of protein metabolism
II. Produces by liver and kidney
III. Filtered completely at glomerulus
A. I and II only
B. I and III only
C. II and III only
D. I, II and III
E. I only
30. Which of the following accurately describes creatinine?
I. Not absorbed and secreted by the kidney
II. Filtered freely at the glomerulus
III. Metabolized by the kidney
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and II only
E. II and III only
31. Which of the following is/are true regarding aspartate aminotransferase (AST)?
I. Also called serum glutamic pyruvic transaminase
II. Abundant in heart and liver tissue
III.Used to evaluate myocardial injury and case prognosis of liver disease resulting from hepatocellular
injury
A. I only
B. I and II only
C. I and III only
D. II and III only
E. III only
32. Which of the following is/are true regarding the comparison of ALT and AST enzyme?
I. ALT elevations persist longer than those of AST.
II. ALT is more liver specific.
III. The liver contains 3.5 times more AST than ALT.
A. I, II and III
B. I and II only
C. II and III only
D. I and III only
E. II only
33. Which of the following may result to a decrease in hematocrit?
I. Hemolysis III. Sickle cell anemia
