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RNC test questions and answer 100% correct

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RNC test questions a. 1st trimester evaluation of the crown-rump length b. 2nd trimester of the bi-parietal (BPD), femur length and and abdominal circumference c. 3rd trimester biophysical profile Correct Answer: a Failure to elicit a reactive pattern with a nonstress test after 40 minutes of fetal monitoring warrants a. further evaluation b. increased testing time c. retest after giving orange juice Correct Answer: a In a 30 week GA fetus who has never had a NST before, the test is considered reactive when a. accelerations accompany the marks made by the mother noted in a 20 minute period b. accelerations peak at 10 bpm above the baseline with a duration of 10 seconds within 20 minutes c. at least 2 fetal heart accelerations occur in 20 minutes Correct Answer: b A negative contraction stress test is characterized by a. accelerations with onset of contractions b. no late or significant variable decelerations c. presence of moderate variability in between contractions Correct Answer: b At 32 weeks, a prenatal patient reported decreased fetal movement. A non-stress test is reported as non-reactive. Which of the following is appropriate for this patient? a. admission to the labor unit for an expedited delivery b. Biophysical profile c. keeping a fetal movement record and return in 24 hours Correct Answer: b A low level of alpha fetoprotein is indicative of a. Down syndrome b. maternal fetal hemorrhage c. neural tube defects Correct Answer: a A woman, who is a gravida 4 para 1212 has had 4 pregnancies with one a. two term, one preterm, and 2 living children b. two abortions, one living child and two preterm c. two preterm, one abortion and two living children c Correct Answer: c A potential fetal complication that occurs with cordocentesis (percutaneous umbilical blood sampling) 2% of the time is a. cardiac dysrhythmias b. fetal loss c. profound persistent bradycardia Correct Answer: b A patient who does not want chromosome testing but would like to know the risk of her delivering a newborn with a neural tube defect (NTD), should have what test ordered that is specific for NTD? a. Maternal serum alpha fetal protein (MSAFP) b. Nuchal translucency c. Triple Screen Correct Answer: a Quad screening compared to alphafetoprotein testing can better detect a. metabolic disorders b. open neural tube defects c. trisomies Correct Answer: c A fetal heart rate change that can be seen after administration of butorphanol (stadol) is a. bradycardia b. marked variability c. Sinusoidal – appearing Correct Answer: c A woman at term is in labor and exhibits significant variable decelerations on an electronic fetal monitor. An amnioinfusion is ordered with the goal of a. improving placental circulation b. maximizing fetal oxygenation c. relieving umbilical cord compression Correct Answer: c A baroreceptor response is seen in what type of deceleration? a. early b. late c. early Correct Answer: c Decelerations are determined to be prolonged based on their a. amplitude b. duration c. etiology Correct Answer: b Baroreceptors respond mainly to changes in a. blood pressure b. hormonal changes c. oxygen and carbon dioxide levels Correct Answer: a A woman is 7 cm dilated and on the electronic fetal monitor. Fetal heart rate activity mirrors the contraction intensity and begins and ends in concert with the contraction. This is consistent with a/n a. early b. late deceleration c. variable deceleration Correct Answer: a Stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system causes the fetal heart rate to a. decrease b. increase c. remain the same Correct Answer: b Which statement describes normal uterine activity? a. Frequency of 1 1/2 to 2 minutes b. Intensity of 90 mmHg early in labor c. Resting tone less than 20-25 mmHg Correct Answer: c c Correct Answer: using the NICHD definitions, spontaneous occurrence of greater than 5 contractions in 10 minutes, averaged over a 30 minute window is called a. hyperstimulation b. hypertonus c. tachysystole The most common side effect of prostaglandin administration is a. Maternal fever b. Nausea and vomiting c. Tachysystole Correct Answer: c When fetal heart tones are heard above the umbilicus abd the fetal head is palpated in the upper part of the uterus, this is consistent with a. breech presentation b. brow presentation c. occiput posterior position Correct Answer: a Palpate the uterus is best performed by using the a. back of the hand b. fingertips c. palm Correct Answer: b At a prenatal visit, a woman's uterus is palpated at the xyphoid process. This would be normally found at what week gestation? a. 32 b. 34 c. 36 Correct Answer: c The first Leopold's maneuver assists in identifying the fetal a. attitude b. cephalic prominence c. presentation Correct Answer: a A fetal scalp blood sample reveals a ph 7.21. Based on the finding, the nurse is prepared to a. assist repeat testing in 30 minutes b. recognize the ph is normal c. transfer the patient to the OR for delivery Correct Answer: b Umbilical blood gas values are used to a. direct initial steps of neonatal resuscitation b. establish the state of fetal oxygenation c. predict adverse neurological outcomes Correct Answer: b An advantage of vibroacoustic testing is that is a. can be used effectively at any gestational age b. can decrease nonstress testing time c. can be used for 3 seconds each time, up to 5 times Correct Answer: b A fetal response to asphyxia is a. decreased PCO2 b. increased lactate level c. increased PO2 Correct Answer: a a negative fetal fibronectin test at 30 weeks indicates a. a need for further testing b. increased risk for delivery c. risk of delivery is low for the next 7-14 days Correct Answer: c The Montevideo units (MVU's) for a woman in the active phase of labor is 225 a. adequate contraction activity for labor progression b. Hypertonic labor c. Inadequate contraction activity for progress Correct Answer: a The term used to describe the fetus settling down into the pelvic inlet (engagement) during pregnancy is a. Chadwick's sign b. lightening c. quickening Correct Answer: b The pelvic type is favorable for a vaginal birth is a. android b. gynecoid c. platypelloid Correct Answer: b One theory of labor initiation is an increase in a. corticotrophin- releasing-hormone (CRH) b. progesterone c. prostacyclin Correct Answer: a When differentiating false labor from true labor, a finding that would suggest a woman is in true labor is if after 1-2 hours of walking which of the following occurs? a. Back pain radiating to the abdomen b. Cervix is soft and closed c. Contractions lesson some with walking Correct Answer: a The umbilical vein carries a. carbon dioxide from the fetus back to the placenta b. deoxygenated blood from the fetus to the placenta c. oxygenated blood from the placenta to the fetus Correct Answer: c Maternal supine hypotension is caused mainly by compression of the a. inferior vena cava b. spiral arteries c. uterine vessels Correct Answer: a During labor and delivery, cardiac output is at its highest in the a. first stage b. second stage c. immediate period after delivery Correct Answer: b The Ferguson reflex is the result of a. cytokine release b. pressure on the cervix c. prostaglandin release from the membranes Correct Answer: b Compared to non-pregnant values, the maternal arterial carbon dioxide (pCO2) during pregnancy is a. decreased b. increased c. the same Correct Answer: a Compared to non-pregnant values, the maternal arterial ph during pregnancy is a. slightly decreased b. slightly increased c. the same Correct Answer: b The metabolic states of pregnancy is described as a chronic a. respiratory acidosis b. respiratory alkalosis c. mixed acidosis Correct Answer: b During pregnancy cardiac output increases by what percent? a. 20-30 % b. 40-50 % c. 60-70% b Correct Answer: b The color of nitrazine paper most indicative of ruptured membranes is a. blue b. green c. yellow Correct Answer: a During labor, a woman in pain complains of dizziness, light-headedness, and numbness and tingling in her lips. The most likely cause of these symptoms is a. carbon dioxide retention b. excessive anxiety c. hyperventilation Correct Answer: c The fetal heart tones of a baby in the ROP position, would best be heard over the mother's a. left lower abdomen closer to her side b. left upper abdomen toward the midline c. right lower abdomen Correct Answer: c In the low risk patient who is in the active stage of labor, the fetal heart should be assessed every a. 15 minutes b. 30 minutes c. 60 minutes Correct Answer: a According to the ACOG guidelines for continuous electronic monitoring, a patient without complications in the active phase of labor should have the fetal heart rate assessed every a. 15 minutes b. 30 minutes c. 60 minutes Correct Answer: b During labor and delivery, the cardinal movement of restitution describes a. flexion of the fetal head b. internal rotation of the fetal head c. rotation of the fetal head 45 degrees after head delivery Correct Answer: c In the second stage of labor, the high risk patient should be assessed every a. 5 minutes b. 10 minutes c. 15 minutes Correct Answer: a The phase of labor that distraction techniques are most likely to be effective is a. active b. latent c. transition Correct Answer: b A prolonged second stage in a primigravida with regional anesthesia is defined as a lack of continuous progress and a second stage duration of greater than a. 1 hour b. 2 hours c. 3 hours Correct Answer: c Internal rotation of the head generally occurs in a. mid pelvis b. pelvic entry c posterior pelvis Correct Answer: a The transition phase of labor is characterized by maternal a. alertness and seriousness b. excitement and anticipation c. panic and fear Correct Answer: c One sign that suggests placental separation is a. downward movement of the uterus in the abdomen b. lengthening of the umbilical cord c. uterus changes shape from a glob to a disk Correct Answer: b A woman in labor is having contractions about every 2-3 minutes. She is 7-8 cm dilated, 100% effaced, and a +1 station. These findings are most consistent with what stage of labor? a. First b. Second c. Third Correct Answer: a The pushing technique that a woman in second stage should be encouraged to use is a. Alternating between open and closed glottis pushing b. Closed glottis pushing while holding her b

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RNC test questions
a. 1st trimester evaluation of the crown-rump length
b. 2nd trimester of the bi-parietal (BPD), femur length and
and abdominal circumference
c. 3rd trimester biophysical profile
Correct Answer: a

Failure to elicit a reactive pattern with a nonstress test after 40 minutes of fetal monitoring
warrants
a. further evaluation
b. increased testing time
c. retest after giving orange juice
Correct Answer: a

In a 30 week GA fetus who has never had a NST before, the test is considered reactive when
a. accelerations accompany the marks made by
the mother noted in a 20 minute period
b. accelerations peak at 10 bpm above the baseline with
a duration of 10 seconds within 20 minutes
c. at least 2 fetal heart accelerations occur in 20 minutes
Correct Answer: b

A negative contraction stress test is characterized by
a. accelerations with onset of contractions
b. no late or significant variable decelerations
c. presence of moderate variability in between contractions
Correct Answer: b

At 32 weeks, a prenatal patient reported decreased fetal movement. A non-stress test is reported
as non-reactive. Which of the following is appropriate for this patient?
a. admission to the labor unit for an expedited delivery
b. Biophysical profile
c. keeping a fetal movement record and return in 24 hours
Correct Answer: b

A low level of alpha fetoprotein is indicative of
a. Down syndrome
b. maternal fetal hemorrhage
c. neural tube defects
Correct Answer: a
A woman, who is a gravida 4 para 1212 has had 4 pregnancies with one
a. two term, one preterm, and 2 living children
b. two abortions, one living child and two preterm

,c. two preterm, one abortion and two living children
c Correct Answer: c

A potential fetal complication that occurs with cordocentesis (percutaneous umbilical blood
sampling) 2% of the time is
a. cardiac dysrhythmias
b. fetal loss
c. profound persistent bradycardia
Correct Answer: b

A patient who does not want chromosome testing but would like to know the risk of her
delivering a newborn with a neural tube defect (NTD), should have what test ordered that is
specific for NTD?
a. Maternal serum alpha fetal protein (MSAFP)
b. Nuchal translucency
c. Triple Screen
Correct Answer: a

Quad screening compared to alphafetoprotein testing can better detect
a. metabolic disorders
b. open neural tube defects
c. trisomies
Correct Answer: c

A fetal heart rate change that can be seen after administration of butorphanol (stadol) is
a. bradycardia
b. marked variability
c. Sinusoidal – appearing
Correct Answer: c

A woman at term is in labor and exhibits significant variable decelerations on an electronic fetal
monitor. An amnioinfusion is ordered with the goal of
a. improving placental circulation
b. maximizing fetal oxygenation
c. relieving umbilical cord compression
Correct Answer: c

A baroreceptor response is seen in what type of deceleration?
a. early
b. late
c. early
Correct Answer: c

Decelerations are determined to be prolonged based on their
a. amplitude
b. duration

, c. etiology
Correct Answer: b

Baroreceptors respond mainly to changes in
a. blood pressure
b. hormonal changes
c. oxygen and carbon dioxide levels
Correct Answer: a

A woman is 7 cm dilated and on the electronic fetal monitor. Fetal heart rate activity mirrors the
contraction intensity and begins and ends in concert with the contraction. This is consistent with
a/n
a. early
b. late deceleration
c. variable deceleration
Correct Answer: a

Stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system causes the fetal heart rate to
a. decrease
b. increase
c. remain the same
Correct Answer: b

Which statement describes normal uterine activity?
a. Frequency of 1 1/2 to 2 minutes
b. Intensity of 90 mmHg early in labor
c. Resting tone less than 20-25 mmHg
Correct Answer: c

c Correct Answer: using the NICHD definitions, spontaneous occurrence of greater than 5
contractions in 10 minutes, averaged over a 30 minute window is called
a. hyperstimulation
b. hypertonus
c. tachysystole

The most common side effect of prostaglandin administration is
a. Maternal fever
b. Nausea and vomiting
c. Tachysystole
Correct Answer: c


When fetal heart tones are heard above the umbilicus abd the fetal head is palpated in the upper
part of the uterus, this is consistent with
a. breech presentation
b. brow presentation

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Geschreven in
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