NURSING 2230 Mental Health Final Exam Study Guide

NURSING 2230 Mental Health Final Exam Study Guide Chapter 01: Mental Health and Mental Illness 1. A staff nurse completes orientation to a psychiatric unit. This nurse may expect an advanced practice nurse to perform which additional intervention? a. Conduct mental health assessments. b. Prescribe psychotropic medication. c. Establish therapeutic relationships. d. Individualize nursing care plans. In most states, prescriptive privileges are granted to master’s-prepared nurse practitioners and clinical nurse specialists who have taken special courses on prescribing medication. The nurse prepared at the basic level is permitted to perform mental health assessments, establish relationships, and provide individualized care planning. 2. A nursing student expresses concerns that mental health nurses “lose all their clinical nursing skills.” Select the best response by the mental health nurse. a. “Psychiatric nurses practice in safer environments than other specialties. Nurse-to- patient ratios must be better because of the nature of the patients’ problems.” b. “Psychiatric nurses use complex communication skills as well as critical thinking to solve multidimensional problems. I am challenged by those situations.” c. “That’s a misconception. Psychiatric nurses frequently use high technology monitoring equipment and manage complex intravenous therapies.” d. “Psychiatric nurses do not have to deal with as much pain and suffering as medical–surgical nurses do. That appeals to me.” The practice of psychiatric nursing requires a different set of skills than medical–surgical nursing, though there is substantial overlap. Psychiatric nurses must be able to help patients with medical as well as mental health problems, reflecting the holistic perspective these nurses must have. Nurse–patient ratios and workloads in psychiatric settings have increased, just like other specialties. Psychiatric nursing involves clinical practice, not just documentation. Psychosocial pain and suffering are as real as physical pain and suffering. 3. When a new bill introduced in Congress reduces funding for care of persons diagnosed with mental illness, a group of nurses write letters to their elected representatives in opposition to the legislation. Which role have the nurses fulfilled? a. Recovery b. Attending c. Advocacy d. Evidence-based practice An advocate defends or asserts another’s cause, particularly when the other person lacks the ability to do that for self. Examples of individual advocacy include helping patients understand their rights or make decisions. On a community scale, advocacy includes political activity, public speaking, and publication in the interest of improving the human condition. Since funding is necessary to deliver quality programming for persons with mental illness, the letter-writing campaign advocates for that cause on behalf of patients who are unable to articulate their own needs. 4. A family has a long history of conflicted relationships among the members. Which family member’s comment best reflects a mentally healthy perspective? a. “I’ve made mistakes but everyone else in this family has also.” b. “I remember joy and mutual respect from our early years together.” c. “I will make some changes in my behavior for the good of the family.” d. “It’s best for me to move away from my family. Things will never change.” The correct response demonstrates the best evidence of a healthy recognition of the importance of relationships. Mental health includes rational thinking, communication skills, learning, emotional growth, resilience, and self-esteem. Recalling joy from earlier in life may be healthy, but the correct response shows a higher level of mental health. The other incorrect responses show blaming and avoidance. 5. Which assessment finding most clearly indicates that a patient may be experiencing a mental illness? The patient a. reports occasional sleeplessness and anxiety. b. reports a consistently sad, discouraged, and hopeless mood. c. is able to describe the difference between “as if” and “for real.” d. perceives difficulty making a decision about whether to change jobs. The correct response describes a mood alteration, which reflects mental illness. The distracters describe behaviors that are mentally healthy or within the usual scope of human experience. 6. Which finding best indicates that the goal “Demonstrate mentally healthy behavior” was achieved for an adult patient? The patient a. sees self as capable of achieving ideals and meeting demands. b. behaves without considering the consequences of personal actions. c. aggressively meets own needs without considering the rights of others. d. seeks help from others when assuming responsibility for major areas of own life. The correct response describes an adaptive, healthy behavior. The distracters describe maladaptive behaviors. 7. A nurse encounters an unfamiliar psychiatric disorder on a new patient’s admission form. Which resource should the nurse consult to determine criteria used to establish this diagnosis? a. International Statistical Classification of Diseases and Related Health Problems (ICD-10) b. The ANA’s Psychiatric-Mental Health Nursing Scope and Standards of Practice c. Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM-V) d. A behavioral health reference manual The DSM-V gives the criteria used to diagnose each mental disorder. It is the official guideline for diagnosing psychiatric disorders. The distracters may not contain diagnostic criteria for a psychiatric illness. 8. A nurse wants to find a description of diagnostic criteria for anxiety disorders. Which resource would have the most complete information? a. Nursing Outcomes Classification (NOC) b. DSM-V c. The ANA’s Psychiatric-Mental Health Nursing Scope and Standards of Practice d. ICD-10 The DSM-V details the diagnostic criteria for psychiatric clinical conditions. It is the official guideline for diagnosing psychiatric disorders. The other references are good resources but do not define the diagnostic criteria. 9. Which individual is demonstrating the highest level of resilience? One who a. is able to repress stressors. b. becomes depressed after the death of a spouse. c. lives in a shelter for 2 years after the home is destroyed by fire. d. takes a temporary job to maintain financial stability after loss of a permanent job. Resilience is closely associated with the process of adapting and helps people facing tragedies, loss, trauma, and severe stress. It is the ability and capacity for people to secure the resources they need to support their well-being. Repression and depression are unhealthy. Living in a shelter for 2 years shows a failure to move forward after a tragedy. See related audience response question. 10. Complete this analogy. NANDA: clinical judgment: NIC: a. patient outcomes. b. nursing actions. c. diagnosis. d. symptoms. Analogies show parallel relationships. NANDA, the North American Nursing Diagnosis Association, identifies diagnostic statements regarding human responses to actual or potential health problems. These statements represent clinical judgments. NIC (Nursing Interventions Classification) identifies actions provided by nurses that enhance patient outcomes. Nursing care activities may be direct or indirect. 11. An adult says, “Most of the time I’m happy and feel good about myself. I have learned that what I get out of something is proportional to the effort I put into it.” Which number on this mental health continuum should the nurse select? Mental Illness Mental Health 1 2 3 4 5 a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 e. 5 The adult is generally happy and has an adequate self-concept. The statement indicates the adult is reality-oriented, works effectively, and has control over own behavior. Mental health does not mean that a person is always happy. 12. Which disorder is an example of a culture-bound syndrome? a. Epilepsy b. Schizophrenia c. Running amok d. Major depressive disorder Culture-bound syndromes occur in specific sociocultural contexts and are easily recognized by people in those cultures. A syndrome recognized in parts of Southeast Asia is running amok, in which a person (usually a male) runs around engaging in furious, almost indiscriminate violent behavior. 13. The DSM-V classifies: a. deviant behaviors. b. present disability or distress. c. people with mental disorders. d. mental disorders people have. The DSM-V classifies disorders people have rather than people themselves. The terminology of the tool reflects this distinction by referring to individuals with a disorder rather than as a “schizophrenic” or “alcoholic,” for example. Deviant behavior is not generally considered a mental disorder. Present disability or distress is only one aspect of the diagnosis. 14. A citizen at a community health fair asks the nurse, “What is the most prevalent mental disorder in the United States?” Select the nurse’s correct response. a. Schizophrenia b. Bipolar disorder c. Dissociative fugue d. Alzheimer’s disease The 12-month prevalence for Alzheimer’s disease is 10% for persons older than 65% and 50% for persons older than 85. The prevalence of schizophrenia is 1.1% per year. The prevalence of bipolar disorder is 2.6%. Dissociative fugue is a rare disorder. 15. In the majority culture of the United States, which individual has the greatest risk to be labeled mentally ill? One who a. describes hearing God’s voice speaking. b. is usually pessimistic but strives to meet personal goals. c. is wealthy and gives away $20 bills to needy individuals. d. always has an optimistic viewpoint about life and having own needs met. The question asks about risk. Hearing voices is generally associated with mental illness, but in charismatic religious groups, hearing the voice of God or a prophet is a desirable event. Cultural norms vary, which makes it more difficult to make an accurate diagnosis. The individuals described in the other options are less likely to be labeled mentally ill. 16. A patient’s relationships are intense and unstable. The patient initially idealizes the significant other and then devalues him or her, resulting in frequent feelings of emptiness. This patient will benefit from interventions to develop which aspect of mental health? a. Effectiveness in work b. Communication skills c. Productive activities d. Fulfilling relationships The information given centers on relationships with others that are described as intense and unstable. The relationships of mentally healthy individuals are stable, satisfying, and socially integrated. Data are not present to describe work effectiveness, communication skills, or activities. 17. Which belief will best support a nurse’s efforts to provide patient advocacy during a multidisciplinary patient care planning session? a. All mental illnesses are culturally determined. b. Schizophrenia and bipolar disorder are cross-cultural disorders. c. Symptoms of mental disorders are unchanged from culture to culture. d. Assessment findings in mental illness reflect a person’s cultural patterns. Symptoms must be understood in terms of a person’s cultural background. A nurse who understands that a patient’s symptoms are influenced by culture will be able to advocate for the patient to a greater degree than a nurse who believes that culture is of little relevance. The distracters are untrue statements. 18. A nurse is part of a multidisciplinary team working with groups of depressed patients. One group of patients receives supportive interventions and antidepressant medication. The other group receives only medication. The team measures outcomes for each group. Which type of study is evident? a. Incidence b. Prevalence c. Comorbidity d. Clinical epidemiology Clinical epidemiology is a broad field that addresses studies of the natural history (or what happens if there is no treatment and the problem is left to run its course) of an illness, studies of diagnostic screening tests, and observational and experimental studies of interventions used to treat people with the illness or symptoms. Prevalence refers to numbers of new cases. Comorbidity refers to having more than one mental disorder at a time. Incidence refers to the number of new cases of mental disorders in a healthy population within a given period. See related audience response question. 19. The spouse of a patient diagnosed with schizophrenia says, “I don’t understand how events from childhood have anything to do with this disabling illness.” Which response by the nurse will best help the spouse understand the cause of this disorder? a. “Psychological stress is the basis of most mental disorders.” b. “This illness results from developmental factors rather than stress.” c. “Research shows that this condition more likely has a biological basis.” d. “It must be frustrating for you that your spouse is sick so much of the time.” Many of the most prevalent and disabling mental disorders have strong biological influences. Genetics are only one part of biological factors. Empathy does not address increasing the spouse’s level of knowledge about the cause of the disorder. The other distracters are not established facts. 20. A category 5 tornado occurred in a community of 400 people. Many homes and businesses were destroyed. In the 2 years following the disaster, 140 individuals were diagnosed with posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD). Which term best applies to these newly diagnosed cases? a. Prevalence b. Comorbidity c. Incidence d. Parity Incidence refers to the number of new cases of mental disorders in a healthy population within a given period of time. Prevalence describes the total number of cases, new and existing, in a given population during a specific period of time, regardless of when they became ill. Parity refers to equivalence, and legislation required insurers that provide mental health coverage to offer annual and lifetime benefits at the same level provided for medical–surgical coverage. Comorbidity refers to having more than one mental disorder at a time. 21. Which component of treatment of mental illness is specifically recognized by Quality and Safety Education for Nurses (QSEN)? a. All genomes are unique. b. Care is centered on the patient. c. Healthy development is vital to mental health. d. Recovery occurs on a continuum from illness to health. The key areas of care promoted by QSEN are patient-centered care, teamwork and collaboration, evidence-based practice, quality improvement, safety, and informatics. 22. Select the best response for the nurse to a question from another health professional regarding the difference between a diagnosis in DSM-V and a nursing diagnosis. a. “There is no functional difference between the two. Both identify human disorders.” b. “The DSM-V diagnosis disregards culture, whereas the nursing diagnosis takes culture into account.” c. “The DSM-V diagnosis describes causes of disorders whereas a nursing diagnosis does not explore etiology.” d. “The DSM-V diagnosis guides medical treatment, whereas the nursing diagnosis offers a framework for identifying interventions for issues a patient is experiencing.” The medical diagnosis is concerned with the patient’s disease state, causes, and cures, whereas the nursing diagnosis focuses on the patient’s response to stress and possible caring interventions. Both tools consider culture. The DSM-V is multiaxial. Nursing diagnoses also consider potential problems. 23. Which nursing intervention below is part of the scope of an advanced practice psychiatric/mental health nurse rather than a basic level registered nurse? a. Coordination of care b. Health teaching c. Milieu therapy d. Psychotherapy Psychotherapy is part of the scope of practice of an advanced practice nurse. The distracters are within a basic level registered nurse’s scope of practice. 1. An experienced nurse says to a new graduate, “When you’ve practiced as long as I have, you automatically know how to take care of patients experiencing psychosis.” Which factors should the new graduate consider when analyzing this comment? (Select all that apply.) a. The experienced nurse may have lost sight of patients’ individuality, which may compromise the integrity of practice. b. New research findings should be integrated continuously into a nurse’s practice to provide the most effective care. c. Experience provides mental health nurses with the essential tools and skills needed for effective professional practice. d. Experienced psychiatric nurses have learned the best ways to care for mentally ill patients through trial and error. e. An intuitive sense of patients’ needs guides effective psychiatric nurses. Evidence-based practice involves using research findings and standards of care to provide the most effective nursing care. Evidence is continuously emerging, so nurses cannot rely solely on experience. The effective nurse also maintains respect for each patient as an individual. Overgeneralization compromises that perspective. Intuition and trial and error are unsystematic approaches to care. 2. Which findings are signs of a person who is mentally healthy? (Select all that apply.) a. Says, “I have some weaknesses, but I feel I’m important to my family and friends.” b. Adheres strictly to religious beliefs of parents and family of origin. c. Spends all holidays alone watching old movies on television. d. Considers past experiences when deciding about the future. e. Experiences feelings of conflict related to changing jobs. Mental health is a state of well-being in which each individual is able to realize his or her own potential, cope with the normal stresses of life, work productively, and make a contribution to the community. Mental health provides people with the capacity for rational thinking, communication skills, learning, emotional growth, resilience, and self-esteem. 3. A patient in the emergency department says, “Voices say someone is stalking me. They want to kill me because I developed a cure for cancer. I have a knife and will stab anyone who is a threat.” Which aspects of the patient’s mental health have the greatest and most immediate concern to the nurse? (Select all that apply.) a. Happiness b. Appraisal of reality c. Control over behavior d. Effectiveness in work e. Healthy self-concept The aspects of mental health of greatest concern are the patient’s appraisal of and control over behavior. The appraisal of reality is inaccurate. There are auditory hallucinations, delusions of persecution, and delusions of grandeur. In addition, the patient’s control over behavior is tenuous, as evidenced by the plan to stab anyone who seems threatening. A healthy self-concept is lacking, as evidenced by the delusion of grandeur. Data are not present to suggest that the other aspects of mental health (happiness and effectiveness in work) are of immediate concern. Chapter 03: Psychobiology and Psychopharmacology 1. A patient asks, “What are neurotransmitters? My doctor said mine are imbalanced.” Select the nurse’s best response. a. “How do you feel about having imbalanced neurotransmitters?” b. “Neurotransmitters protect us from harmful effects of free radicals.” c. “Neurotransmitters are substances we consume that influence memory and mood.” d. “Neurotransmitters are natural chemicals that pass messages between brain cells.” The patient asked for information, and the correct response is most accurate. Neurotransmitters are chemical substances that function as messengers in the central nervous system. They are released from the axon terminal, diffuse across the synapse, and attach to specialized receptors on the postsynaptic neuron. The distracters either do not answer the patient’s question or provide untrue, misleading information. 2. The parent of an adolescent diagnosed with schizophrenia asks the nurse, “My child’s doctor ordered a PET. What kind of test is that?” Select the nurse’s best reply. a. “This test uses a magnetic field and gamma waves to identify problem areas in the brain. Does your teenager have any metal implants?” b. “PET means positron-emission tomography. It is a special type of scan that shows blood flow and activity in the brain.” c. “A PET scan passes an electrical current through the brain and shows brain-wave activity. It can help diagnose seizures.” d. “It’s a special x-ray that shows structures of the brain and whether there has ever been a brain injury.” The parent is seeking information about PET scans. It is important to use terms the parent can understand, so the nurse should identify what the initials mean. The correct response is the only option that provides information relevant to PET scans. The distracters describe magnetic resonance image (MRI), computed tomography (CT) scans, and EEG. See relationship to audience response question. 3. A patient with a long history of hypertension and diabetes now develops confusion. The health care provider wants to make a differential diagnosis between Alzheimer’s disease and multiple infarcts. Which diagnostic procedure should the nurse expect to prepare the patient for first? a. Skull x-rays b. CT scan c. PET d. Single photon emission computed tomography (SPECT) A CT scan shows the presence or absence of structural changes, including cortical atrophy, ventricular enlargement, and areas of infarct, information that would be helpful to the health care provider. PET and SPECT show brain activity rather than structure and may occur later. See relationship to audience response question. 4. A patient’s history shows drinking 4 to 6 L of fluid and eating more than 6,000 calories per day. Which part of the central nervous system is most likely dysfunctional for this patient? a. Amygdala b. Parietal lobe c. Hippocampus d. Hypothalamus The hypothalamus, a small area in the ventral superior portion of the brainstem, plays a vital role in such basic drives as hunger, thirst, and sex. See relationship to audience response question. 5. The nurse prepares to assess a patient diagnosed with major depressive disorder for disturbances in circadian rhythms. Which question should the nurse ask this patient? a. “Have you ever seen or heard things that others do not?” b. “What are your worst and best times of the day?” c. “How would you describe your thinking?” d. “Do you think your memory is failing?” Mood changes throughout the day may be related to circadian rhythm disturbances. Questions about sleep pattern are also relevant to circadian rhythms. The distracters apply to assessment for illusions and hallucinations, thought processes, and memory. 6. The nurse administers a medication that potentiates the action of ã-aminobutyric acid (GABA). Which effect would be expected? a. Reduced anxiety b. Improved memory c. More organized thinking d. Fewer sensory perceptual alterations Increased levels of GABA reduce anxiety. Acetylcholine and substance P are associated with memory enhancement. Thought disorganization is associated with dopamine. GABA is not associated with sensory perceptual alterations. See relationship to audience response question. 7. A nurse would anticipate that treatment for a patient with memory difficulties might include medications designed to a. inhibit GABA. b. prevent destruction of acetylcholine. c. reduce serotonin metabolism. d. increase dopamine activity. Increased acetylcholine plays a role in learning and memory. Preventing destruction of acetylcholine by acetylcholinesterase would result in higher levels of acetylcholine, with the potential for improved memory. GABA affects anxiety rather than memory. Increased dopamine would cause symptoms associated with schizophrenia or mania rather than improve memory. Decreasing dopamine at receptor sites is associated with Parkinson’s disease rather than improving memory. 8. A patient has disorganized thinking associated with schizophrenia. Neuroimaging would likely show dysfunction in which part of the brain? a. Hippocampus b. Frontal lobe c. Cerebellum d. Brainstem The frontal lobe is responsible for intellectual functioning. The hippocampus is involved in emotions and learning. The cerebellum regulates skeletal muscle coordination and equilibrium. The brainstem regulates internal organs. 9. The nurse should assess a patient taking a drug with anticholinergic properties for inhibited function of the a. parasympathetic nervous system. b. sympathetic nervous system. c. reticular activating system. d. medulla oblongata. Acetylcholine is the neurotransmitter found in high concentration in the parasympathetic nervous system. When anticholinergic drugs inhibit acetylcholine action, blurred vision, dry mouth, constipation, and urinary retention commonly occur. 10. The therapeutic action of neurotransmitter inhibitors that block reuptake cause a. decreased concentration of the blocked neurotransmitter in the central nervous system. b. increased concentration of the blocked neurotransmitter in the synaptic gap. c. destruction of receptor sites specific to the blocked neurotransmitter. d. limbic system stimulation. If the reuptake of a substance is inhibited, it accumulates in the synaptic gap, and its concentration increases, permitting ease of transmission of impulses across the synaptic gap. Normal transmission of impulses across synaptic gaps is consistent with normal rather than depressed mood. The other options are not associated with blocking neurotransmitter reuptake. 11. A patient taking medication for mental illness develops restlessness and an uncontrollable need to be in motion. Which drug action causes these symptoms to develop? a. Anticholinergic effects b. Dopamine-blocking effects c. Endocrine-stimulating effects d. Ability to stimulate spinal nerves Medication that blocks dopamine often produces disturbances of movement, such as akathisia, because dopamine affects neurons involved in both thought processes and movement regulation. Anticholinergic effects include dry mouth, blurred vision, urinary retention, and constipation. Akathisia is not caused by endocrine stimulation or spinal nerve stimulation. 12. A fearful patient has an increased heart rate and blood pressure. The nurse suspects increased activity of which neurotransmitter? a. GABA b. Norepinephrine c. Acetylcholine d. Histamine Norepinephrine is the neurotransmitter associated with sympathetic nervous system stimulation, preparing the individual for “fight or flight.” GABA is a mediator of anxiety level. A high concentration of histamine is associated with an inflammatory response. A high concentration of acetylcholine is associated with parasympathetic nervous system stimulation. 13. A patient has acute anxiety related to an automobile accident 2 hours ago. The nurse should teach the patient about medication from which group? a. Tricyclic antidepressants b. Antipsychotic drugs c. Mood stabilizers d. Benzodiazepines Benzodiazepines provide anxiety relief. Tricyclic antidepressants are used to treat symptoms of depression. Mood stabilizers are used to treat bipolar disorder. Antipsychotic drugs are used to treat psychosis. 14. A patient is hospitalized for severe major depressive disorder. Of the medications listed below, the nurse can expect to provide the patient with teaching about a. chlordiazepoxide. b. clozapine. c. sertraline. d. tacrine. Sertraline (Zoloft) is an selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI). This antidepressant blocks the reuptake of serotonin, with few anticholinergic and sedating side effects. Clozapine is an antipsychotic. Chlordiazepoxide is an anxiolytic. Tacrine treats Alzheimer’s disease 15. A patient diagnosed with bipolar disorder displays aggressiveness, agitation, talkativeness, and irritability. The nurse expects the health care provider to prescribe a medication from which group? a. Psychostimulants b. Mood stabilizers c. Anticholinergics d. Antidepressants The symptoms describe mania, which is effectively treated by mood stabilizers, such as lithium, and selected anticonvulsants (carbamazepine, valproic acid, and lamotrigine). Drugs from the other classifications listed are not effective in the treatment of mania. 16. A drug causes muscarinic receptor blockade. The nurse will assess the patient for a. dry mouth. b. gynecomastia. c. pseudoparkinsonism. d. orthostatic hypotension. Muscarinic receptor blockade includes atropine-like side effects, such as dry mouth, blurred vision, and constipation. Gynecomastia is associated with decreased prolactin levels. Movement defects are associated with dopamine blockade. Orthostatic hypotension is associated with á1 antagonism. 17. A patient begins therapy with a phenothiazine medication. What teaching should the nurse provide related to the drug’s strong dopaminergic effect? a. Chew sugarless gum. b. Increase dietary fiber. c. Arise slowly from bed. d. Report changes in muscle movement. Phenothiazines block dopamine receptors in both the limbic system and basal ganglia. Movement disorders and motor abnormalities (extrapyramidal side effects), such as parkinsonism, akinesia, akathisia, dyskinesia, and tardive dyskinesia, are likely to occur early in the course of treatment. They are often heralded by sensations of muscle stiffness. Early intervention with antiparkinsonism medication can increase the patient’s comfort and prevent dystonic reactions. The distracters are related to anticholinergic effects. 18. A patient tells the nurse, “My doctor prescribed paroxetine for my depression. I assume I’ll have side effects like I had when I was taking imipramine.” The nurse’s reply should be based on the knowledge that paroxetine is a(n) a. selective norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor. b. tricyclic antidepressant. c. monoamine oxidase (MAO) inhibitor. d. SSRI. Paroxetine is an SSRI and will not produce the same side effects as imipramine, a tricyclic antidepressant. The patient will probably not experience dry mouth, constipation, or orthostatic hypotension. 19. A nurse can anticipate anticholinergic side effects are likely when a patient takes a. lithium. b. buspirone. c. imipramine. d. risperidone. Imipramine (Tofranil) is a tricyclic antidepressant with strong anticholinergic properties, resulting in dry mouth, blurred vision, constipation, and urinary retention. Lithium therapy is more often associated with fluid-balance problems, including polydipsia, polyuria, and edema. Risperidone therapy is more often associated with movement disorders, orthostatic hypotension, and sedation. Buspirone is associated with anxiety reduction without major side effects. 20. Which instruction has priority when teaching a patient about clozapine? a. “Avoid unprotected sex.” b. “Report sore throat and fever immediately.” c. “Reduce foods high in polyunsaturated fats.” d. “Use over-the-counter preparations for rashes.” Clozapine therapy may produce agranulocytosis; therefore, signs of infection should be immediately reported to the health care provider. In addition, the patient should have white blood cell levels measured weekly. The other options are not relevant to clozapine. 21. A nurse cares for a group of patients receiving various medications, including haloperidol, carbamazepine, trazodone, and phenalgine. The nurse will order a special diet for the patient who takes a. carbamazepine. b. haloperidol. c. phenelzine. d. trazodone. Patients taking phenelzine, an MAO inhibitor, must be on a low tyramine diet to prevent hypertensive crisis. There are no specific dietary precautions associated with the distracters. 22. A nurse instructs a patient taking a drug that inhibits MAO to avoid certain foods and drugs because of the risk of a. cardiac dysrhythmia. b. hypotensive shock. c. hypertensive crisis. d. hypoglycemia. Patients taking MAO-inhibiting drugs must be on a low tyramine diet to prevent hypertensive crisis. In the presence of MAO inhibitors, tyramine is not destroyed by the liver and in high levels produces intense vasoconstriction, resulting in elevated blood pressure. 23. A nurse caring for a patient taking a SSRI will develop outcome criteria related to a. coherent thought processes. b. improvement in depression. c. reduced levels of motor activity. d. decreased extrapyramidal symptoms. SSRIs affect mood, relieving depression in many cases. SSRIs do not act to reduce thought disorders. SSRIs reduce depression but have little effect on motor hyperactivity. SSRIs do not produce extrapyramidal symptoms. 24. By which mechanism do SSRI medications improve depression? a. Destroying increased amounts of serotonin b. Making more serotonin available at the synaptic gap c. Increasing production of acetylcholine and dopamine d. Blocking muscarinic and á1 norepinephrine receptors Depression is thought to be related to lowered availability of the neurotransmitter serotonin. SSRIs act by blocking reuptake of serotonin, leaving a higher concentration available at the synaptic cleft. SSRIs prevent destruction of serotonin. SSRIs have little or no effect on acetylcholine and dopamine production. SSRIs do not produce muscarinic or á1 norepinephrine blockade. 25. The laboratory report for a patient taking clozapine (Clozaril) shows a white blood cell count of 3000 mm3. Select the nurse’s best action. a. Report the results to the health care provider immediately. b. Administer the next dose as prescribed. c. Give aspirin and force fluids. d. Repeat the laboratory test. These laboratory values indicate the possibility of agranulocytosis, a serious side effect of clozapine therapy. These results must be immediately reported to the health care provider, and the drug should be withheld. The health care provider may repeat the test, but in the meantime, the drug should be withheld. (Note: This question requires students to apply previous learning regarding normal and abnormal values of white blood cell counts.) 26. A drug blocks the attachment of norepinephrine to 1 receptors. The patient may experience a. hypertensive crisis. b. orthostatic hypotension. c. severe appetite disturbance. d. an increase in psychotic symptoms. Sympathetic-mediated vasoconstriction is essential for maintaining normal blood pressure in the upright position. Blockage of 1 receptors leads to vasodilation and orthostatic hypotension. Orthostatic hypotension may cause fainting and falls. Teach patients ways of minimizing this phenomenon. 27. A nurse cares for four patients who are receiving clozapine, lithium, fluoxetine, and venlafaxine, respectively. With which patient should the nurse be most alert for problems associated with fluid and electrolyte imbalance? The patient receiving a. lithium. b. clozapine. c. fluoxetine. d. venlafaxine. Lithium is a salt and known to alter fluid and electrolyte balance, producing polyuria, edema, and other symptoms of imbalance. Patients receiving clozapine should be monitored for agranulocytosis. Patients receiving fluoxetine should be monitored for acetylcholine block. Patients receiving venlafaxine should be monitored for heightened feelings of anxiety. 28. An obese patient has a diagnosis of schizophrenia. Medications that block which receptors would contribute to further weight gain? a. H1 b. 5 HT2 c. Acetylcholine d. GABA H1 receptor blockade results in weight gain, which is undesirable for an obese patient. Blocking of the other receptors would have little or no effect on the patient’s weight. 29. An individual hiking in the forest encounters a large poisonous snake on the path. Which change in this individual’s vital signs is most likely? a. Pulse rate changes from 90 to 72. b. Respiratory rate changes from 22 to 18. c. Complaints of intestinal cramping begin. d. Blood pressure changes from 114/62 to 136/78. This frightening experience would stimulate the sympathetic nervous system, causing a release of norepinephrine, an excitatory neurotransmitter. It prepares the body for fight or flight. Increased blood pressure, pupil size, respiratory rate, and pulse rate signify release of norepinephrine. Intestinal cramping would be associated with stimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system. 30. Consider these medications: carbamazepine, lamotrigine, gabapentin. Which medication below also belongs to this group? a. Galantamine b. Valproate c. Buspirone d. Tacrine The medications listed in the stem are mood stabilizers, anticonvulsant types. Valproate (Depakote) is also a member of this group. The distracters are drugs for treatment of Alzheimer’s disease and anxiety. 31. A professional football player is seen in the emergency department after losing consciousness from an illegal block. Prior to discharge, the nurse assists the patient to schedule an outpatient computed tomography (CT) scan for the next day. Which strategy should the nurse use to ensure the patient remembers the appointment? a. Write the appointment day, time, and location on a piece of paper and give it to the player. b. Log the appointment day, time, and location into the player’s cell phone calendar feature. c. Ask the health care provider to admit the patient to the hospital overnight. d. Verbally inform the patient of the appointment day, time, and location. This player may have suffered repeated head injuries with damage to the hippocampus. The hippocampus has significant role in maintaining memory. Logging the appointment into the player’s cell phone calendar will remind him of the appointment the next day. Paper will be lost, and the patient is unlikely to remember verbal instruction. Hospitalization is unnecessary. See relationship to audience response question. Caution: This question requires students to apply previous learning regarding central nervous system anatomy and physiology. 1. A nurse prepares to administer a second-generation antipsychotic medication to a patient diagnosed with schizophrenia. Additional monitoring for adverse effects will be most important if the patient has which co-morbid health problems? (Select all that apply.) a. Parkinson’s disease b. Grave’s disease c. Hyperlipidemia d. Osteoarthritis e. Diabetes Antipsychotic medications may produce weight gain, which would complicate care of a patient with diabetes, and increase serum triglycerides, which would complicate care of a patient with hyperlipidemia. Parkinson’s disease involves changes in transmission of dopamine and acetylcholine, so these drugs would also complicate care of this patient. Osteoarthritis and Grave’s disease should have no synergistic effect with this medication. 2. Questions the nurse could ask that would be nonjudgmental when obtaining information about a patient’s use of complementary and herbal remedies include (Select all that apply) a. “You don’t regularly take herbal remedies, do you?” b. “What herbal medicines have you used to relieve your symptoms?” c. “What over-the-counter medicines, vitamins, and nutritional supplements do you use?” d. “What differences in your symptoms do you notice when you take herbal supplements?” e. “Have you experienced problems from using herbal and prescription drugs at the same time?” The correct responses are neutral in tone and do not express bias for or against the use of complementary or herbal medicines. The distracter, worded in a negative way, makes the nurse’s bias evident. 3. An individual is experiencing problems with memory. Which of these structures are most likely to be involved in this deficit? (Select all that apply.) a. Amygdala b. Hippocampus c. Occipital lobe d. Temporal lobe e. Basal ganglia The frontal and temporal lobes of the cerebrum play a key role in the storage and processing of memories. The amygdala and hippocampus also play roles in memory. The occipital lobe is predominantly involved with vision. The basal ganglia influence integration of physical movement, as well as some thoughts and emotions. 4. A patient’s sibling says, “My brother has a mental illness, but the doctor ordered a functional magnetic resonance image (fMRI) test. That test is too expensive and will just increase the hospital bill.” Select the nurse’s best responses. (Select all that apply.) a. “Sometimes there are physical causes for psychiatric symptoms. This test will help us understand whether that is the situation.” b. “Some mental illnesses are evident on fMRIs. This test will give information to help us plan the best care for your brother.” c. “This test will indicate whether your brother has been taking his psychotropic medications as prescribed.” d. “It sounds like you do not truly believe your brother had a mental illness.” e. “It would be better for you to discuss your concerns with the health care provider.” The correct responses provide information to the sibling. Modern imaging techniques are important tools in assessing molecular changes in mental disease and marking the receptor sites of drug action, which can help in treatment planning. Psychiatric symptoms can be caused by anatomical or physiologic abnormalities. There is no evidence of denial in the sibling’s comment. The nurse can answer this question rather than referring it to the physician/health care provider. An fMRI does not demonstrate adherence to the medication regime. Chapter 07: The Nursing Process and Standards of Care 1. A new staff nurse completes an orientation to the psychiatric unit. This nurse will expect to ask an advanced practice nurse to perform which action for patients? a. Perform mental health assessment interviews. b. Prescribe psychotropic medication. c. Establish therapeutic relationships. d. Individualize nursing care plans. Prescriptive privileges are granted to master’s-prepared nurse practitioners who have taken special courses on prescribing medication. The nurse prepared at the basic level performs mental health assessments, establishes relationships, and provides individualized care planning. 2. A newly admitted patient diagnosed with major depressive disorder has gained 20 pounds over a few months and has suicidal ideation. The patient has taken antidepressant medication for 1 week without remission of symptoms. Select the priority nursing diagnosis. a. Imbalanced nutrition: more than body requirements b. Chronic low self-esteem c. Risk for suicide d. Hopelessness Risk for suicide is the priority diagnosis when the patient has both suicidal ideation and a plan to carry out the suicidal intent. Imbalanced nutrition, hopelessness, and chronic low self-esteem may be applicable nursing diagnoses, but these problems do not affect patient safety as urgently as would a suicide attempt. 3. A patient diagnosed with major depressive disorder has lost 20 pounds in one month, has chronic low self-esteem, and a plan for suicide. The patient has taken antidepressant medication for 1 week. Which nursing intervention has the highest priority? a. Implement suicide precautions. b. Offer high-calorie snacks and fluids frequently. c. Assist the patient to identify three personal strengths. d. Observe patient for therapeutic effects of antidepressant medication. Implementing suicide precautions is the only option related to patient safety. The other options, related to nutrition, self-esteem, and medication therapy, are important but are not priorities. 4. The desired outcome for a patient experiencing insomnia is, “Patient will sleep for a minimum of 5 hours nightly within 7 days.” At the end of 7 days, review of sleep data shows the patient sleeps an average of 4 hours nightly and takes a 2-hour afternoon nap. The nurse will document the outcome as a. consistently demonstrated. b. often demonstrated. c. sometimes demonstrated. d. never demonstrated. The correct response to this question involves applying the evaluation step of nursing process. Although the patient is sleeping 6 hours daily, the total is not one uninterrupted session at night. Therefore, the outcome must be evaluated as never demonstrated. 5. The desired outcome for a patient experiencing insomnia is, “Patient will sleep for a minimum of 5 hours nightly within 7 days.” At the end of 7 days, review of sleep data shows the patient sleeps an average of 4 hours nightly and takes a 2-hour afternoon nap. What is the nurse’s next action? a. Continue the current plan without changes. b. Remove this nursing diagnosis from the plan of care. c. Write a new nursing diagnosis that better reflects the problem. d. Examine interventions for possible revision of the target date. The correct response to this question involves applying the evaluation step of nursing process. Sleeping a total of 5 hours at night remains a reasonable outcome. Extending the period for attaining the outcome may be appropriate. Examining interventions might result in planning an activity during the afternoon rather than permitting a nap. Continuing the current plan without changes is inappropriate. Removing this nursing diagnosis from the plan of care would be correct when the outcome was met and the problem resolved. Writing a new nursing diagnosis is inappropriate because no other nursing diagnosis relates to the problem. 6. A patient begins a new program to assist with building social skills. In which part of the plan of care should a nurse record the item, “Encourage patient to attend one psychoeducational group daily”? a. Assessment b. Analysis c. Implementation d. Evaluation Interventions are the nursing prescriptions to achieve the outcomes. Interventions should be specific. 7. Before assessing a new patient, a nurse is told by another health care worker, “I know that patient. No matter how hard we work, there isn’t much improvement by the time of discharge.” The nurse’s responsibility is to a. document the other worker’s assessment of the patient. b. assess the patient based on data collected from all sources. c. validate the worker’s impression by contacting the patient’s significant other. d. discuss the worker’s impression with the patient during the assessment interview. Assessment should include data obtained from both the primary and reliable secondary sources. The nurse, bearing in mind the possible effects of counter-transference, should evaluate biased assessments by others as objectively as possible. 8. A patient presents to the emergency department with mixed psychiatric symptoms. The admission nurse suspects the symptoms may be the result of a medical problem. Lab results show elevated BUN (blood urea nitrogen) and creatinine. What is the nurse’s next best action? a. Report the findings to the health care provider. b. Assess the patient for a history of renal problems. c. Assess the patient’s family history for cardiac problems. d. Arrange for the patient’s hospitalization on the psychiatric unit. Elevated BUN and creatinine suggest renal problems. Renal dysfunction can often imitate psychiatric disorders. The nurse should further assess the patient’s history for renal problems and then share the findings with the health care provider. 9. A patient states, “I’m not worth anything. I have negative thoughts about myself. I feel anxious and shaky all the time. Sometimes I feel so sad that I want to go to sleep and never wake up.” Which nursing intervention should have the highest priority? a. Self-esteem–building activities b. Anxiety self-control measures c. Sleep enhancement activities d. Suicide precautions The nurse would place a priority on monitoring and reinforcing suicide self-restraint because it relates directly and immediately to patient safety. Patient safety is always a priority concern. The nurse should monitor and reinforce all patient attempts to control anxiety, improve sleep patterns, and develop self-esteem, while giving priority attention to suicide self-restraint. 10. Select the best outcome for a patient with the nursing diagnosis: Impaired social interaction related to sociocultural dissonance as evidenced by stating, “Although I’d like to, I don’t participate because I don’t speak the language very well.” Patient will a. show improved use of language. b. demonstrate improved social skills. c. become more independent in decision making. d. select and participate in one group activity per day. The outcome describes social involvement on the part of the patient. Neither cooperation nor independence has been an issue. The patient has already expressed a desire to interact with others. Outcomes must be measurable. Two of the distracters are not measurable. 11. Nursing behaviors associated with the implementation phase of nursing process are concerned with a. participating in mutual identification of patient outcomes. b. gathering accurate and sufficient patient-centered data. c. comparing patient responses and expected outcomes. d. carrying out interventions and coordinating care. Nursing behaviors relating to implementation include using available resources, performing interventions, finding alternatives when necessary, and coordinating care with other team members. 12. Which statement made by a patient during an initial assessment interview should serve as the priority focus for the plan of care? a. “I can always trust my family.” b. “It seems like I always have bad luck.” c. “You never know who will turn against you.” d. “I hear evil voices that tell me to do bad things.” The statement regarding evil voices tells the nurse that the patient is experiencing auditory hallucinations and may create risks for violence. Safety is the nurse’s first concern. The other statements are vague and do not clearly identify the patient’s chief symptom. 13. Which entry in the medical record best meets the requirement for problem-oriented charting? a. “A: Pacing and muttering to self. P: Sensory perceptual alteration related to internal auditory stimulation. I: Given fluphenazine HCL 2.5 mg po at 0900 and went to room to lie down. E: Calmer by 0930. Returned to lounge to watch TV.” b. “S: States, ‘I feel like I’m ready to blow up.’ O: Pacing hall, mumbling to self. A: Auditory hallucinations. P: Offer haloperidol 2 mg po. I: Haloperidol 2 mg po given at 0900. E: Returned to lounge at 0930 and quietly watched TV.” c. “Agitated behavior. D: Patient muttering to self as though answering an unseen person. A: Given haloperidol 2 mg po and went to room to lie down. E: Patient calmer. Returned to lounge to watch TV.” d. “Pacing hall and muttering to self as though answering an unseen person. haloperidol 2 mg po administered at 0900 with calming effect in 30 minutes. Stated, ‘I’m no longer bothered by the voices.’” Problem-oriented documentation uses the first letter of key words to organize data: S for subjective data, O for objective data, A for assessment, P for plan, I for intervention, and E for evaluation. The distracters offer examples of PIE charting, focus documentation, and narrative documentation. 14. A nurse assesses an older adult patient brought to the emergency department by a family member. The patient was wandering outside saying, “I can’t find my way home.” The patient is confused and unable to answer questions. Select the nurse’s best action. a. Record the patient’s answers to questions on the nursing assessment form. b. Ask an advanced practice nurse to perform the assessment interview. c. Call for a mental health advocate to maintain the patient’s rights. d. Obtain important information from the family member. When the patient (primary source) is unable to provide information, secondary sources should be used, in this case, the family member. Later, more data may be obtained from other information sources familiar with the patient. An advanced practice nurse is not needed for this assessment; it is within the scope of practice of the staff nurse. Calling a mental health advocate is unnecessary. See relationship to audience response question. 15. A nurse asks a patient, “If you had fever and vomiting for 3 days, what would you do?” Which aspect of the mental status examination is the nurse assessing? a. Behavior b. Cognition c. Affect and mood d. Perceptual disturbances Assessing cognition involves determining a patient’s judgment and decision making. In this case, the nurse would expect a response of “Call my doctor” if the patient’s cognition and judgment are intact. If the patient responds, “I would stop eating” or “I would just wait and see what happened,” the nurse would conclude that judgment is impaired. The other options refer to other aspects of the examination. 16. An adolescent asks a nurse conducting an assessment interview, “Why should I tell you anything? You’ll just tell my parents whatever you find out.” Which response by the nurse is appropriate? a. “That isn’t true. What you tell us is private and held in strict confidence. Your parents have no right to know.” b. “Yes, your parents may find out what you say, but it is important that they know about your problems.” c. “What you say about feelings is private, but some things, like suicidal thinking, must be reported to the treatment team.” d. “It sounds as though you are not really ready to work on your problems and make changes.” Adolescents are very concerned with confidentiality. The patient has a right to know that most information will be held in confidence but that certain material must be reported or shared with the treatment team, such as threats of suicide, homicide, use of illegal drugs, or issues of abuse. The incorrect responses are not true, will not inspire the confidence of the patient, or are confrontational. 17. A nurse wants to assess an adult patient’s recent memory. Which question would best yield the desired information? a. “Where did you go to elementary school?” b. “What did you have for breakfast this morning?” c. “Can you name the current president of the United States?” d. “A few minutes ago, I told you my name. Can you remember it?” The patient’s recall of a meal provides evidence of recent memory. Two incorrect responses are useful to assess immediate and remote memory. The other distracter assesses the patient’s fund of knowledge. 18. When a nurse assesses an older adult patient, answers seem vague or unrelated to the questions. The patient also leans forward and frowns, listening intently to the nurse. An appropriate question for the nurse to ask would be a. “Are you having difficulty hearing when I speak?” b. “How can I make this assessment interview easier for you?” c. “I notice you are frowning. Are you feeling annoyed with me?” d. “You’re having trouble focusing on what I’m saying. What is distracting you?” The patient’s behaviors may indicate difficulty hearing. Identifying any physical need, the patient may have at the onset of the interview and making accommodations are important considerations. By asking if the patient is annoyed, the nurse is jumping to conclusions. Asking how to make the interview easier for the patient may not elicit a concrete answer. Asking about distractions is a way of asking about auditory hallucinations, which is not appropriate because the nurse has observed that the patient seems to be listening intently. 19. At what point in an assessment interview would a nurse ask, “How does your faith help you in stressful situations?” During the assessment of a. childhood growth and development b. substance use and abuse c. educational background d. coping strategies When discussing coping strategies, the nurse might ask what the patient does when upset, what usually relieves stress, and to whom the patient goes to talk about problems. The question regarding whether the patient’s faith helps deal with stress fits well here. It would be out of place if introduced during exploration of the other topics. 20. When a new patient is hospitalized, a nurse takes the patient on a tour, explains rules of the unit, and discusses the daily schedule. The nurse is engaged in a. counseling. b. health teaching. c. milieu management. d. psychobiological intervention. Milieu management provides a therapeutic environment in which the patient can feel comfortable and safe while engaging in activities that meet the patient’s physical and mental health needs. Counseling refers to activities designed to promote problem solving and enhanced coping and includes interviewing, crisis intervention, stress management, and conflict resolution. Health teaching involves identifying health education needs and giving information about these needs. Psychobiological interventions involve medication administration and monitoring response to medications. 21. After formulating the nursing diagnoses for a new patient, what is a nurse’s next action? a. Designing interventions to include in the plan of care b. Determining the goals and outcome criteria c. Implementing the nursing plan of care d. Completing the spiritual assessment The third step of the nursing process is planning and outcome identification. Outcomes cannot be determined until the nursing assessment is complete and nursing diagnoses have been formulated. 22. Select the most appropriate label to complete this nursing diagnosis: related to feelings of shyness and poorly developed social skills as evidenced by watching television alone at home every evening. a. Deficient knowledge b. Ineffective coping c. Social isolation d. Powerlessness Nursing diagnoses are selected based on the etiological factors and assessment findings, or evidence. In this instance, the evidence shows social isolation that is caused by shyness and poorly developed social skills. 23. “QSEN” refers to a. Qualitative Standardized Excellence in Nursing. b. Quality and Safety Education for Nurses. c. Quantitative Effectiveness in Nursing. d. Quick Standards Essential for Nurses. QSEN represents national initiatives centered on patient safety and quality. The primary goal of QSEN is to prepare future nurses with the knowledge, skills, and attitudes to increase the quality, care, and safety in the health care setting in which they work. 24. A nurse documents: “Patient is mute despite repeated efforts to elicit speech. Makes no eye contact. Inattentive to staff. Gazes off to the side or looks upward rather than at speaker.” Which nursing diagnosis should be considered? a. Defensive coping b. Decisional conflict c. Risk for other-directed violence d. Impaired verbal communication The defining characteristics are more related to the nursing diagnosis of impaired verbal communication than to the other nursing diagnoses. 25. A nurse prepares to assess a new patient who moved to the United States from Central America 3 years ago. After introductions, what is the nurse’s next comment? a. “How did you get to the United States?” b. “Would you like for a family member to help you talk with me?” c. “An interpreter is available. Would you like for me to make a request for these services?” d. “Are you comfortable conversing in English, or would you prefer to have a translator present?” The nurse should determine whether a translator is needed by first assessing the patient for language barriers. Accuracy of the assessment depends on the ability to communicate in a language that is familiar to the patient. Family members are not always reliable translators. An interpreter may change the patient’s responses; a translator is a better resource. 26. The nurse records this entry in a patient’s progress notes: Patient escorted to unit by ER nurse at 2130. Patient’s clothing was dirty. In interview room, patient sat with hands over face, sobbing softly. Did not acknowledge nurse or reply to questions. After several minutes, abruptly arose, ran to window, and pounded. Shouted repeatedly, “Let me out of here.” Verbal intervention unsuccessful. Order for stat dose 2 mg haloperidol PO obtained; medication administered at 2150. By 2215, patient stopped shouting and returned to sit wordlessly in chair. Patient placed on one-to-one observation. How should this documentation be evaluated? a. Uses unapproved abbreviations b. Contains subjective material c. Too brief to be of value d. Excessively wordy e. Meets standards This narrative note describes patient appearance, behavior, and conversation. It mentions that less-restrictive measures were attempted before administering medication and documents patient response to medication. This note would probably meet standards. A complete nursing assessment would be in order as soon as the patient is able to participate. Subjective material is absent from the note. Abbreviations are acceptable. 1. A nurse assessed a patient who reluctantly participated in activities, answered questions with minimal responses, and rarely made eye contact. What information should be included when documenting the assessment? (Select all that apply.) a. The patient was uncooperative b. The patient’s subjective responses c. Only data obtained from the patient’s verbal responses d. A description of the patient’s behavior during the interview e. Analysis of why the patient was unresponsive during the interview Both content and process of the interview should be documented. Providing only the patient’s verbal responses would create a skewed picture of the patient. Writing that the patient was uncooperative is subjectively worded. An objective description of patient behavior would be preferable. Analysis of the reasons for the patient’s behavior would be speculation, which is inappropriate. 2. A nurse performing an assessment interview for a patient with a substance use disorder decides to use a standardized rating scale. Which scales are appropriate? (Select all that apply.) a. Addiction Severity Index (ASI) b. Brief Drug Abuse Screen Test (B-DAST) c. Abnormal Involuntary Movement Scale (AIMS) d. Cognitive Capacity Screening Examination (CCSE) e. Recovery Attitude and Treatment Evaluator (RAATE) Standardized scales are useful for obtaining data about substance use disorders. The ASI, B- DAST, and RAATE are scales related to substance abuse. AIMS assesses involuntary movements associated with antipsychotic medications. The CCSE assesses cognitive function. 3. What information is conveyed by nursing diagnoses? (Select all that apply.) a. Medical judgments about the disorder b. Unmet patient needs currently present c. Goals and outcomes for the plan of care d. Supporting data that validate the diagnoses e. Probable causes that will be targets for nursing interventions Nursing diagnoses focus on phenomena of concern to nurses rather than on medical diagnoses. 4. A patient is very suspicious and states, “The FBI has me under surveillance.” Which strategies should a nurse use when gathering initial assessment data about this patient? (Select all that apply.) a. Tell the patient that medication will help this type of thinking. b. Ask the patient, “Tell me about the problem as you see it.” c. Seek information about when the problem began. d. Tell the patient, “Your ideas are not realistic.” e. Reassure the patient, “You are safe here.” During the assessment interview, the nurse should listen attentively and accept the patient’s statements in a nonjudgmental way. Because the patient is suspicious and fearful, reassuring safety may be helpful, although trust is unlikely so early in the relationship. Saying that medication will help or telling the patient that the ideas are not realistic will undermine development of trust between the nurse and patient. Chapter 09: Therapeutic Communication 1. A patient says to the nurse, “I dreamed I was stoned. When I woke up, I felt emotionally drained, as though I hadn’t rested well.” Which response should the nurse use to clarify the patient’s comment? a. “It sounds as though you were uncomfortable with the content of your dream.” b. “I understand what you’re saying. Bad dreams leave me feeling tired, too.” c. “So you feel as though you did not get enough quality sleep last night?” d. “Can you give me an example of what you mean by ‘stoned’?” The technique of clarification is therapeutic and helps the nurse examine the meaning of the patient’s statement. Asking for a definition of “stoned” directly asks for clarification.