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PTCB exam practice 1000 questions with correct answers 2022

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PTCB exam practice 1000 questions with correct answers 2022

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PTCB exam practice 1000 questions with correct
answers 2022
What is the route of administration for a prescription with the following directions: "i supp pr q 6 hr prn"?

A. Orally
B. Rectally
C. Urethrally
D. Vaginall

Rationale:
"pr" means per rectum.

What is the meaning of PDA?

A. Personal digital aid
B. Personal digital assistant
C. Physician digital assistant
D. Pharmaceutical data assistant

Rationale:
PDA is an acronym for personal digital assistant.

Which of the following medications is not a bronchodilator?

A. Albuterol
B. Ipratropium
C. Montelukast
D. Salmeterol

Rationale:
Montelukast (Singulair) is a leukotriene inhibitor.

Which organ can be affected by a condition of flutter?

A. Esophagus
B. Heart
C. Intestine
D. Kidneys

Rationale:
A flutter is a type of arrhythmia in which the patient's heart is beating at 200 to 350 beats/min.

Which answer best describes the information required during the sale of an "exempt narcotic"?

,A. Dispensing date, printed name, signature and address of the buyer, name and quantity of the product
sold, and the pharmacist's signature

B. Dispensing date, signature and phone number of the buyer, product name, and product company with lot
number

C. Dispensing date, signature of the buyer, name and quantity of the product sold, price of the product sold,
and lot number of the product sold

D. Dispensing date, buyer signature, pharmacist signature, product name and amount, and expiration date
of the product

Rationale:
The sale of an "exempt narcotic" requires that an individual be at least 18 years of age and a resident of the
community and that only one 4-oz bottle be sold in the original manufacturer's bottle every 48 hours. The
patient must complete the exempt narcotic log (record), which includes the date of the purchase and the
patient's name and address. The pharmacist must make sure that the name, quantity of the product, and
selling price of the product is entered in the "exempt narcotic book." The pharmacist must sign his or her
name in the book as the seller of the "exempt narcotic."

What does "K" represent on a patient's medical chart?

A. Calcium
B. Potassium
C. Phosphate
D. Sodium

Rationale:
K is potassium. Ca is calcium, Na is sodium, and PO4 is phosphate.

How many days does a pharmacy have to fill a prescription of Accutane (isotretinoin)?

A. 1 day
B. 7 days
C. 30 days
D. 180 days

Rationale:
All Accutane (isotretinoin) prescriptions must be handwritten by the prescriber and filled within 7 days of
being written with the approved yellow seal attached and having no refills authorized.

A pharmacy contracts to buy the majority of its formulary from a particular wholesaler. What type of
agreement is this?

A. Preferred agreement
B. Preferred vendor contract

,C. Preferential agreement
D. Prime vendor agreement

Rationale:
A prime vendor agreement is one in which a pharmacy agrees to purchase almost exclusively from a
specific vendor. The vendor in turn provides the pharmacy with discounted pricing.

What is the gross profit for 30 tablets of carisoprodol 350 mg with an acquisition cost of $7.85/100 tablets,
AWP = $9.93/100 tablets, and a retail price of $15.99/30 tablets?

A. $6.06
B. $8.14
C. $13.01
D. $13.63

Rationale:
Gross profit is equal to the selling price minus the price paid for the product. The acquisition price is the
price paid for the product. The acquisition cost is based on 100 tablets and must be prorated for 30 tablets
($7.85 × 30/100 = $2.36). SP ($15.99) - AC ($2.36) = $13.63.

Which of the following pieces of legislation is known as the "prescription drug amendment"?

A. Durham-Humphrey Amendment
B. Hatch-Waxman Amendment
C. Kefauver-Harris Amendment
D. Mail Order Pharmacy Amendment

Rationale:
The Durham-Humphrey Amendment clearly defined prescriptions and over-the counter medications. A
prescription medication is required to bear the federal legend on the container. Over-the-counter
medications are considered safe to use without a physician's supervision.

Which of the following forms of Medicare provides for prescription medications, biologicals, insulin,
vaccines, and select medical supplies?

A. Medicare Part A
B. Medicare Part B
C. Medicare Part C
D. Medicare Part D

Rationale:
Medicare Part D provides for prescription medications, biologicals, insulin, vaccines, and select medical
supplies. All medications are not covered under Medicare Part D. Medicare Part A covers inpatient hospital
care, skilled nursing facilities, hospice, and home health care. Medicare Part B provides for physician
services, outpatient care, and some physical and occupational therapy. Medicare Advantage (Part C)
allows participants in Medicare Part A and B to obtain coverage through an HMO or PPO that provides
additional services at a higher cost.

, For which of the following drugs is it mandatory that a customer receive a PPI?

A. Amoxicillin
B. Lithonate
C. Premarin
D. Synthroid

Rationale:
All prescriptions containing estrogens require the pharmacy to provide the patient with a patient product
insert (PPI).

What standards must be followed during extemporaneous compounding?

A. DEA
B. FDA
C. GMP
D. OBRA '90

Rationale:
GMP stands for good manufacturing practices and is adhered to for compounding prescriptions. The DEA
is responsible for the Controlled Substances Act. The FDA ensures food and medications are pure, safe,
and effective. OBRA '90 discusses drug utilization review and counseling patients.

What is the purpose of a group purchasing organization (GPO)?

A. Negotiates prices for hospital pharmacies
B. Purchases medications for hospital pharmacies
C. Purchases medications for community pharmacies
D. Purchases medications for managed care pharmacies

Rationale:
Group purchasing organizations (GPOs) negotiate prices for hospitals. They do not make the actual
purchase of medications for hospitals.

Which of the following has been identified by MEDMARX as the leading cause of medication errors?

A. Illegible handwriting
B. Knowledge deficit
C. Performance deficit
D. Transcription inaccuracy

Rationale:
MEDMARX has identified performance deficit as the largest cause of errors.

What do the three sets of numbers in an NDC number reflect?

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