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2022 Bar Prep FINAL EXAMS QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

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Bar Prep FINAL EXAMS 2022 NIED ans: 1) No direct physical trauma 2) Negligence occurred under some standard of care AND π was in zone of danger and exhibited subsequent physical manifestations of distress ALSO recovery in bystander situation where a close family member was a witness to the injury Murder ans: 1) Intent to kill 2) Intent to inflict great bodily injury 3) Highly reckless indifference to human life (depraved heart) 4) Intent to commit felony (Burglary, Arson, Rape, Robbery, Kidnapping) M'Naghten Rule ans: At the time of his conduct, ∆ lacked the ability to know the wrongfulness of his actions or understand the nature and quality of his actions Arson ans: The malicious burning of the dwelling of another Malice ans: Reckless disregard for an obvious or high risk that a particular harmful result will occur Burglary ans: The breaking and entering into the dwelling of another at night with the intent to commit a felony therein Robbery ans: The taking of the personal property of another from the other's person or presence by force or by threats of immediate death or physical injury with the intent to permanently deprive False Pretenses ans: Obtaining title to the personal property of another through a knowing (intentional in some jdx) misrepresentation of past or present fact with the intent to defraud Larceny ans: The taking and asportation of the personal property of another without consent or with consent obtained by fraud with the intent to permanently deprive Voluntary Manslaughter ans: Provocation adequate if: 1) Would arouse sudden and intense passion in an ordinary person 2) ∆ was in fact provoked 3) Not sufficient time for the ordinary person to cool off 4) ∆ did not cool off Assault (Crim) ans: 1) Attempt to commit a battery 2) Intentional creation of reasonable apprehension in another of imminent bodily harm Battery (Crim) ans: An unlawful application of force to the person of another resulting in either bodily injury or offensive touching Materiality of Breach ans: 1) Adequacy of compensation 2) Amount of benefit received 3) Extent of part performance 4) Hardship to breaching party 5) Negligent or willful behavior 6) Likelihood that breaching party will perform Discharge by Novation ans: 1) Prior valid contract 2) Agreement between parties 3) Immediate extinguishment of contractual duties between original parties 4) New and valid contract Conspiracy ans: 1) An agreement between two or more person 2) Intent to enter into the agreement 3) Intent to achieve the unlawful objective of the agreement 4) (maj) Overt act in furtherance *Mere preparation sufficient **Liability for co-conspirators if crimes committed in furtherance of conspiracy and foreseeable Factual Causation ans: But for the ∆'s action π would not have been hurt Multiple ∆s: - Mingled Causation-substantial factor test - Unascertainable Cause- burden on π to show each ∆ was factor then burden to ∆s to show not cause Proximate Cause ans: Natural and probable consequences Liability is fair when: 1) Intervening medical negligence 2) Intervening negligent rescue 3) Intervening protection/reaction 4) Subsequent disease/accident Requirements for Informal Rulemaking (Fed) ans: 1) Notice 2) Right to Participate (right to submit written data or arguments but no right to hearing) 3) Promulgation (concise general statement of basis and purpose, must have 30 days before implementation) Main Test for Distinguishing b/t Employee and IC ans: Extent of the principal's control the manner and method of agent's performance Exceptions to Right of Judicial Review ans: 1) Standing 2) Statute of Limitations 3) Finality of agency decision 4) Exhaustion of agency remedies 5) Ripeness Federal Evidence Admissibility Standard (Admin) ans: Any reliable, probative, or substantial evidence Oregon Evidence Admissibility Standard ans: Allowed if relied upon by reasonably prudent persons in the course of their serious affairs Issue Trio ans: Void for vagueness Overbreadth Unduly Discretionary

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Bar Prep FINAL EXAMS 2022
NIED ans: 1) No direct physical trauma
2) Negligence occurred under some standard of care
AND π was in zone of danger and exhibited subsequent physical manifestations of distress
ALSO recovery in bystander situation where a close family member was a witness to the injury

Murder ans: 1) Intent to kill
2) Intent to inflict great bodily injury
3) Highly reckless indifference to human life (depraved heart)
4) Intent to commit felony (Burglary, Arson, Rape, Robbery, Kidnapping)

M'Naghten Rule ans: At the time of his conduct, ∆ lacked the ability to know the wrongfulness of his
actions or understand the nature and quality of his actions

Arson ans: The malicious burning of the dwelling of another

Malice ans: Reckless disregard for an obvious or high risk that a particular harmful result will occur

Burglary ans: The breaking and entering into the dwelling of another at night with the intent to commit
a felony therein

Robbery ans: The taking of the personal property of another from the other's person or presence by
force or by threats of immediate death or physical injury with the intent to permanently deprive

False Pretenses ans: Obtaining title to the personal property of another through a knowing (intentional
in some jdx) misrepresentation of past or present fact with the intent to defraud

Larceny ans: The taking and asportation of the personal property of another without consent or with
consent obtained by fraud with the intent to permanently deprive

Voluntary Manslaughter ans: Provocation adequate if:
1) Would arouse sudden and intense passion in an ordinary person
2) ∆ was in fact provoked
3) Not sufficient time for the ordinary person to cool off
4) ∆ did not cool off

Assault (Crim) ans: 1) Attempt to commit a battery
2) Intentional creation of reasonable apprehension in another of imminent bodily harm

Battery (Crim) ans: An unlawful application of force to the person of another resulting in either bodily
injury or offensive touching

Materiality of Breach ans: 1) Adequacy of compensation
2) Amount of benefit received
3) Extent of part performance
4) Hardship to breaching party

,5) Negligent or willful behavior
6) Likelihood that breaching party will perform

Discharge by Novation ans: 1) Prior valid contract
2) Agreement between parties
3) Immediate extinguishment of contractual duties between original parties
4) New and valid contract

Conspiracy ans: 1) An agreement between two or more person
2) Intent to enter into the agreement
3) Intent to achieve the unlawful objective of the agreement
4) (maj) Overt act in furtherance *Mere preparation sufficient
**Liability for co-conspirators if crimes committed in furtherance of conspiracy and foreseeable

Factual Causation ans: But for the ∆'s action π would not have been hurt
Multiple ∆s:
-> Mingled Causation-substantial factor test
-> Unascertainable Cause- burden on π to show each ∆ was factor then burden to ∆s to show not cause

Proximate Cause ans: Natural and probable consequences
Liability is fair when:
1) Intervening medical negligence
2) Intervening negligent rescue
3) Intervening protection/reaction
4) Subsequent disease/accident

Requirements for Informal Rulemaking (Fed) ans: 1) Notice
2) Right to Participate (right to submit written data or arguments but no right to hearing)
3) Promulgation (concise general statement of basis and purpose, must have 30 days before
implementation)

Main Test for Distinguishing b/t Employee and IC ans: Extent of the principal's control the manner and
method of agent's performance

Exceptions to Right of Judicial Review ans: 1) Standing
2) Statute of Limitations
3) Finality of agency decision
4) Exhaustion of agency remedies
5) Ripeness

Federal Evidence Admissibility Standard (Admin) ans: Any reliable, probative, or substantial evidence

Oregon Evidence Admissibility Standard ans: Allowed if relied upon by reasonably prudent persons in
the course of their serious affairs

Issue Trio ans: Void for vagueness
Overbreadth
Unduly Discretionary

, Discharge by Frustration ans: 1) Supervening act/event leading to the frustration
2) Parties did not reasonably foresee at the time of formation
3) Purpose of K completely or almost completely destroyed
4) Purpose of K realized by both parties at time of formation

Mutual Mistake ans: 1) Mistake concerns a basic assumption on which the contract was made
2) Material effect on the agreed-upon exchange

Strict Liability- Injuries by animals ans: Domesticated animals- No strict liability unless prior knowledge
of vicious propensities
Trespassing Livestock- SL
Wild Animals- SL even with precautions

Rule ans: Statement of general applicability and future effect prescribing or interpreting law, policy, or
procedure

Oregon Service of Process Methods ans: **Notice must be reasonably calculated to apprise ∆ of the suit
and give reasonable chance to defend
Abode (14+ and first class mail)
Mail (First class and evidenced)
Office (Someone w/ app. auth. + 1st class mail)
Personal
Entity

Federal Service of Process Methods ans: Abode (13+)
Waiver (60 days to respond instead of 21)
Agent
State
Personal

Strict Liability (Products) ans: 1) Commercial Seller/Merchant
2) π shows product is defective
-> Manufacturing defect
-> Design defect
* alternative version that is economical, safer, prac.
3) In defective condition when it left seller's control
4) Foreseeable use/misuse

Strict Liability (Ultrahazardous Activities) ans: Activity cannot be made safe
Poses foreseeable risk of severe harm
Uncommon in area where conducted
** Risk remains with reasonable care

Defenses to Felony Murder ans: 1) Cannot be convicted of underlying felony
2) Killing was of a co-felon
3) Reached a place of temporary safety
4) Felony independent of killing

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