Nurs 355 Quiz 7 (answered)2022

Immediately after electroconvulsive therapy, in which position should a nurse place the client? A. On his or her side to prevent aspiration B. In semi-Fowler's position to promote oxygenation C. In Trendelenburg's position to promote blood flow to vital organs D. In prone position to prevent airway blockage A. On his or her side to prevent aspiration A nursing instructor is teaching about electroconvulsive therapy (ECT). Which student statement indicates that learning has occurred? A. "During ECT a state of euphoria is induced." B. "ECT induces a grand mal seizure." C. "During ECT a state of catatonia is induced." D. "ECT induces a petit mal seizure." B. "ECT induces a grand mal seizure." A nurse administers ordered preoperative glycopyrrolate (Robinul) 30 minutes prior to a client's electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) treatment. What is the rationale for administering this medication? A. Robinul decreases anxiety during the ECT procedure. B. Robinul induces an unconscious state to prevent pain during the ECT procedure. C. Robinul prevents severe muscle contractions during the ECT procedure. D. Robinul decreases secretions to prevent aspiration during the ECT procedure. D. Robinul decreases secretions to prevent aspiration during the ECT procedure. A nursing instructor is teaching about the medications given prior to and during electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) treatments. Which student statement indicates that learning has occurred? A. "Atropine (Atro-Pen) is administered to paralyze skeletal muscles during ECT." B. "Succinylcholine chloride (Anectine) decreases secretions to prevent aspiration." C. "Thiopental sodium (Pentothal) is a short-acting anesthesia to render the client unconscious." D. "Glycopyrrolate (Robinul) is given to prevent severe muscle contractions during seizure." C. "Thiopental sodium (Pentothal) is a short-acting anesthesia to render the client unconscious." A client scheduled for electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) at 9:00 a.m. is discovered eating breakfast at 8:00 a.m. Based on this observation, which is the most appropriate nursing action? A. The nurse notifies the client's physician of the situation and cancels the ECT. B. The nurse removes the breakfast tray and assists the client to the ECT treatment room. C. The nurse allows the client to finish breakfast and reschedules ECT for 10:00 a.m. D. The nurse increases the client's fluid intake to facilitate the digestive process. A. The nurse notifies the client's physician of the situation and cancels the ECT. A nursing student is observing an electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) treatment. The student notices a blood pressure cuff on the client's lower leg. The student questions the instructor about the cuff placement. Which is the most accurate instructor reply? A. "The cuff has to be placed on the leg because both arms are used for intravenous fluids." B. "The cuff functions to prevent succinylcholine from reaching the foot." C. "The cuff position gives a more accurate blood pressure reading during the treatment." D. "The cuff is placed on the leg so that arms can easily be restrained during seizure." B. "The cuff functions to prevent succinylcholine from reaching the foot." A client states, "My doctor has told me I am a candidate for electroconvulsive therapy (ECT). Where will the treatment take place and how much time would this entail?" Which is the most accurate nursing reply? A. "Clients typically receive ECT in their hospital room, daily for 1 month." B. "Clients typically receive 6 to 12 ECT treatments, three times a week in an outpatient setting." C. "Clients typically receive an unlimited number of treatments in the hospital treatment room." D. "Clients typically receive two to three treatments in either an outpatient or inpatient setting." B. "Clients typically receive 6 to 12 ECT treatments, three times a week in an outpatient setting." A client with cognitive deficits is extremely suicidal. The client has not responded to antidepressants and the treatment team is considering electroconvulsive therapy (ECT). What client information would determine the feasibility of this treatment option? A. Because the client is extremely suicidal, ECT is an appropriate option. B. Because antidepressant medications have been ineffective, ECT is a good alternative. C. Because informed consent is required for ECT, cognitive deficits preclude this option. D. Because of the client's cognitive deficits, a signed consent is waived. C. Because informed consent is required for ECT, cognitive deficits preclude this option. A client is experiencing progressive changes in memory that have interfered with personal, social, and occupational functioning. The client exhibits poor judgment and has a short attention span. A nurse should recognize these as classic signs of which condition? A. Mania B. Delirium C. Neurocognitive disorder D. Parkinsonism C. Neurocognitive disorder A nursing instructor is teaching about donepezil (Aricept). A student asks, "How does this work? Will this cure Alzheimer's disease (AD)?" Which is the appropriate instructor reply? A. "This medication delays the destruction of acetylcholine, a chemical in the brain necessary for memory processes. Although most effective in the early stages, it serves to delay, but not stop, the progression of the AD." B. "This medication encourages production of acetylcholine, a chemical in the brain necessary for memory processes. It delays the progression of the disease." C. "This medication delays the destruction of dopamine, a chemical in the brain necessary for memory processes. Although most effective in the early stages, it serves to delay, but not stop, the progression of the AD." D. "This medication encourages production of dopamine, a chemical in the brain necessary for memory processes. It delays the progression of the disease." A. "This medication delays the destruction of acetylcholine, a chemical in the brain necessary for memory processes. Although most effective in the early stages, it serves to delay, but not stop, the progression of the AD." At what time during a 24-hour period should a nurse expect clients with Alzheimer's disease to exhibit more pronounced symptoms? A. When they first awaken B. In the middle of the night C. At twilight D. After taking medications C. At twilight A client diagnosed with neurocognitive disorder exhibits progressive memory loss, diminished cognitive functioning, and verbal aggression upon experiencing frustration. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate? A. Schedule structured daily routines. B. Minimize environmental lighting. C. Organize a group activity to present reality. D. Explain the consequences for aggressive behaviors. A. Schedule structured daily routines. Know the DSM-V criteria for diagnosing Major NCD and Alzheimer's disease that the difference between the two. ? After 1 week of continuous mental confusion, an elderly African American client is admitted with a preliminary diagnosis of major neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer's disease. What should cause the nurse to question this diagnosis? A. Neurocognitive disorder does not typically occur in African American clients. B. The symptoms presented are more indicative of Parkinsonism. C. Neurocognitive disorder does not develop suddenly. D. There has been no T3 or T4 level evaluation ordered. C. Neurocognitive disorder does not develop suddenly. A client diagnosed with neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer's disease is disoriented and ataxic, and he wanders. Which is the priority nursing diagnosis? A. Disturbed thought processes B. Self-care deficit C. Risk for injury D. Altered health-care maintenance C. Risk for injury Which symptom should a nurse identify that would differentiate clients diagnosed with neurocognitive disorders from clients diagnosed with amnesic disorders? A. Neurocognitive disorders involve disorientation that develops suddenly, whereas amnestic disorders develop more slowly. B. Neurocognitive disorders involve impairment of abstract thinking and judgment, whereas amnestic disorders do not. C. Neurocognitive disorders include the symptom of confabulation, whereas amnestic disorders do not. D. Both neurocognitive disorders and profound amnesia typically share the symptom of disorientation to place, time, and self. B. Neurocognitive disorders involve impairment of abstract thinking and judgment, whereas amnestic disorders do not. A client with a history of cerebrovascular accident (CVA) is brought to an emergency department experiencing memory problems, confusion, and disorientation. On the basis of this client's assessment data, which diagnosis would the nurse expect the physician to assign? A. Medication-induced delirium B. Vascular neurocognitive disorder C. Altered thought processes D. Alzheimer's disease B. Vascular neurocognitive disorder In the course of an assessment interview, a female client reveals a history of bisexual orientation. Which action should the nurse initially implement when working with this client? A. Self-assess personal attitudes toward homosexuality B. Review client's possible childhood sexual abuse history C. Encourage discussion of aversion to heterosexual relationships D. Explore client's family history of homosexuality A. Self-assess personal attitudes toward homosexuality A nurse is assessing a client diagnosed with pedophilic disorder. What would differentiate this sexual disorder from a sexual dysfunction? A. Symptoms of sexual dysfunction include inappropriate sexual behaviors, whereas symptoms of a sexual disorder include impairment in normal sexual response. B. Symptoms of a sexual disorder include inappropriate sexual behaviors, whereas symptoms of sexual dysfunction include impairment in normal sexual response. C. Sexual dysfunction can be caused by increased levels of circulating androgens, whereas levels of circulating androgens do not affect sexual disorders. D. Sexual disorders can be caused by decreased levels of circulating androgens, whereas levels of circulating androgens do not affect sexual dysfunction. B. Symptoms of a sexual disorder include inappropriate sexual behaviors, whereas symptoms of sexual dysfunction include impairment in normal sexual response. A female client on an inpatient unit enters the day area for visiting hours dressed in a see-through blouse and wearing no undergarments. Which intervention should be a nurse's first priority? A. Contact the client's psychiatrist. B. Avoid addressing her attention-seeking behavior. C. Lead the client back to her room and assist her to choose appropriate clothing. D. Restrict client to room until visiting hours are over. C. Lead the client back to her room and assist her to choose appropriate clothing. A client reports, during his visit to the mental health clinic, that he is distressed by repetitive sexual fantasies that involve humiliating his sexual partner. This would most appropriately be assessed as what type of disorder? A. Paraphilic disorder B. Obsessive-compulsive disorder C. Erectile disorder D. Hypoactive sexual desire disorder A. Paraphilic disorder A forensic nurse collects a semen sample from a rape victim. Which nursing action would maintain the proper chain of evidence? A. A collected sample is labeled, sealed, and kept in a locked refrigerator, until given to police. B. The sample is locked in a special container and given to the pathologist. C. The sample is placed in the medication room refrigerator prior to police collection. D. The sample is sealed and immediately given to police to avoid contamination A. A collected sample is labeled, sealed, and kept in a locked refrigerator, until given to police. A prison nurse is reviewing an inmate's health record. Which documentation would indicate a dual diagnosis? A. Bipolar II and antisocial personality disorder B. Schizophrenia and alcohol dependence C. Attention deficit disorder and conduct disorder D. Cocaine addiction and marijuana abuse B. Schizophrenia and alcohol dependence in a gang war a member is wounded. The police have confiscated a switchblade. When assessing the victim, what type of injury should the forensic nurse expect to assess? A. Dicing injuries B. Sharp-force injuries C. Patterned injuries D. Defense wound injuries B. Sharp-force injuries A forensic nurse assesses patterned injuries on a 3-year-old child. What assessment data led to this conclusion? A. Multiple minute cuts and abrasions B. Generalized bruising of the buttock C. Circular burn marks, the size of a lit cigarette D. Stab wounds resulting from sharp object penetration C. Circular burn marks, the size of a lit cigarette A forensic nurse notices that a victim of a street mugging has bloody, bruised hands and lower arms. The nurse should document this evidence as which type of wound? A. Dicing wounds B. Sharp-force wounds C. Patterned wounds D. Defense wounds D. Defense wounds A forensic nurse assesses hesitation wounds on a client diagnosed with borderline personality disorder. What assessment data led to this conclusion? A. Bruising in various stages of discoloration B. Deep cuts exposing muscle tissue of the wrist C. Superficial, sharp-force wounds on the lower part of the client's body D. Vertical lacerations of the face C. Superficial, sharp-force wounds on the lower part of the client's body