NSCA Practice questions with complete solutions(graded A+)

NSCA Practice questions with complete solutions(graded A+)Which of the following substances is MOST readily transported into the muscle cell after a high intensity resistance training exercise session? A. chromium B. triglycerides C. HMB D. glucose D. glucose The intake of which of the following nutrients needs to decrease FIRST when making dietary changes to increase complex carbohydrate intake? A. simple sugars B. incomplete proteins C. saturated fat D. water-soluble vitamins C. Saturated Fats 00:02 01:33 All of the following are functions of both vitamins and minerals EXCEPT: A. maintain bone strength B. promote hormone synthesis C. facilitate metabolism D. provide a source of energy D.provide a source of energy A collegiate swimmer is consuming 2500 kilocalories per day. Her daily caloric intake consists of 344 grams of carbohydrates, 83 grams of fat, and 94 grams of protein. What percent of her diet is comprised of fat? A. 3% B. 13% C. 30% D. 34% C.30% An athlete loses 4 pounds (1.8 kg) during a training session. At least how much fluid should this athlete drink to replace the fluid lost as sweat? A. 2 pints (0.9 L) B. 4 pints (1.9 L) C. 4 quarts (3.8 L) D. 2 gallons (7.6 L) B.4 pints (1.9 L) Which of the following are the MOST important nutrients for athletes to consume? I. vitamins and minerals II. carbohydrates III. protein IV. water A. I and III only B. I and IV only C. II and III only D. II and IV only D. II and IV only Which of the following are recommendations for a post-competition meal? I. eat within 2 hours of the end of the event II. consume liquid-based foods only III. select foods that have a high GI IV. eat a meal consisting of 200 grams of CHO A. I and III only B. I and IV only C. II and III only D. II and IV only A. I and III only Which of the following is a side effect of anabolic steroid use, creatine supplementation, and glutamine supplementation? A. increased muscle mass B. increased water retention C. decreased HDL level D. decreased energy depletion B. increased water retention Which of the following substances is believed to have a true ergogenic benefit? A. androstenedione B. HMB C. glucosamine D. vanadyl sulfate C. glucosamine A combination of which of the following changes during the final week before a competition will BEST increase muscle glycogen stores? I. increase fluid intake to 1 mL per kilocalorie of expended energy per day II. reduce exercise intensity and duration III. consume at least 8 grams of CHO per kg of bodyweight per day IV. raise the total caloric intake to 6000 kilocalories per day A. I and III only B. I and IV only C. II and III only D. II and IV only C. II and III only When designing a program for a collegiate basketball player, which of the following is the FIRST thing a strength and conditioning professional should do? A. choose the exercises to be performed in the program B. conduct a movement analysis of the sport C. determine the athlete's current training status D. prescribe the training load and repetitions B. conduct a movement analysis of the sport Which of the following is a structural exercise? A. seated row B. seated shoulder press C. upright row D. incline bench press B. seated shoulder press Which of the following changes to the design of a resistance training program will have the GREATEST impact of decreasing training frequency? A. lighter training loads B. many lower body exercises C. numerous single-joint exercises D. absence of other exercise modes B. many lower body exercises Which of the following is the MOST optimal exercise arrangement? A. hang clean, front squat, bench press, seated row B. bench press, front squat, seated row, hang clean C. seated row, bench press, hang clean, front squat D. front squat, hang clean, bench press, seated row A. hang clean, front squat, bench press, seated row Which of the following is the most effective load, repetition, and rest period scheme to increase muscular strength? Load Repetitions Rest Period A. 90% 1RM 8 120 seconds B. 85% 1RM 8 90 seconds C. 90% 1RM 4 120 seconds D. 85% 1RM 4 90 seconds C. 90% 1RM 4 120 seconds Which of the following loads will typically allow an athlete to perform 6 repetitions in the back squat exercise? A. 90% 1RM B. 85% 1RM C. 80% 1RM D. 75% 1RM B. 85% 1RM As compared to the hypertrophy phase of a periodized resistance training program, which of the following is INCREASED for the basic strength phase? A. number of repetitions B. number of sets C. training volume D. training load D. training load Which of the following is the primary factor that leads to sport-related injuries in youth? A. imbalances in the strength of the muscles and tendons B. mistakes in the design of the training program C. rapid muscle and bone growth D. frequent and long periods of inactivity B. mistakes in the design of the training program All of the following are causes of the increased incidence of anterior cruciate ligament injuries in female athletes EXCEPT: A. elevated body composition values B. weak lower body musculature C. high joint laxity D. fluctuations in hormone levels A. elevated body composition values Which of the following factors increases with age but can be decreased when a senior participates in a regular resistance training program? A. muscle strength B. resting metabolic rate C. body fat D. physical function C. body fat All of the following are effective criteria to select exercises that have dynamic correspondence to a specific sport movement EXCEPT: -visual similarity -direction of force production -power production -skill reinforcement visual similarity A spotter is recommended for which of the following exercises? I. push press II. incline dumbbell fly III. overhead triceps extension IV. lateral shoulder raise II and III only Which of the following body parts (of the athlete) should a spotter position his or her hands near to during the seated dumbbell shoulder press exercise? -elbows -wrists -upper arms -upper back wrists A weight belt is recommended for which of the following combinations of exercises and loads? I. performing the shoulder press exercise II. lifting a 6RM load for 3 repetitions III. performing the bench press exercise IV. lifting a 3RM load for 3 repetitions I and IV only For which of the following exercises is it appropriate for a trained and experienced athlete to momentarily hold the breath during the upward movement phase? I. lat pulldown II. leg press III. bent-over row IV. triceps pushdown II and III only Which of the following muscles is eccentrically involved during the downward movement phase of the bench press exercise? -biceps brachii -pectoralis major -latissimus dorsi -trapezius pectoralis major The low bar position in the back squat exercise applies more torque on which of the following joints as compared to the high bar position? A. knee B. hip C. vertebral (cervical) D. vertebral (lumbar) B. hip The front squat exercise applies more torque at which of the following joints as compared to the back squat exercise? A. knee B. hip C. vertebral (cervical) D. vertebral (lumbar) A. knee Which of the following are the two PRIMARY differences between the power clean exercise and the snatch exercise? I. grip width II. initial stance III. final bar position IV. number of movement phases I and III only Which of the following joints are included in the phrase "triple extension" as part of the second pull of the power clean exercise? I. elbow II. knee III. ankle IV. hip II. knee III. ankle IV. hip Which of the following is a performance characteristic of elite sprinters? A. high center of gravity during starts B. longer ground contact time C. large amount of vertical translation D. greater plantar flexor forces D.greater plantar flexor forces All of the following are components of the FIRST phase of training for a sprinter EXCEPT: A. dynamic joint mobility B. core strength C. motor learning D. specific short-term endurance D.specific short-term endurance To promote optimal sprint start speed, the knee of the rear leg of a sprinter in the starting blocks should be at which of the following angles? A. 30 degrees B. 45 degrees C. 90 degrees D. 120 degrees C.90 degrees Which of the following is a recommendation to give an athlete who is performing form running drills? A."Keep your hands from crossing the midline." B."Run with a 20 degree forward lean." C."All of the arm action should come from your elbows." D."Try not to use too much knee drive." A."Keep your hands from crossing the midline." Which of the following is the type of speed-endurance workout that is characterized by an intensity level of 60-80% of maximum? A. extensive B. intensive C. repetition D. competitive C. repetition All of the following resistance training exercises develop the hip extensors of a sprinter EXCEPT: A. dorsiflexion pull B. step up and over C. overhead squat D. push press A. dorsiflexion pull All of the following are phases of the stretch-shortening cycle EXCEPT: A. concentric B. stabilization C. eccentric D. amortization B. stabilization Which of the following is an example of a short-response plyometric drill? A. rim jump B. tuck jump C. alternate leg bound D. standing long jump A. rim jump Which of the following is the best example of proper exercise progression of lower body plyometric drills (low intensity to high intensity)? A. squat jump, single leg hop, zigzag hop, double leg bound B. depth jump, double leg tuck jump, pike jump, double leg hop C. standing long jump, single leg vertical jump, double leg hop, squat jump D. squat jump, double leg tuck jump, alternate leg bound, single leg hop D. squat jump, double leg tuck jump, alternate leg bound, single leg hop When progressing through the sequential levels of upper body plyometric drills using variations of the medicine ball push-up, which of the following is the FIRST exercise that is truly plyometric? A. offset push-up B. power drop C. triceps push-up D. walkabout D. walkabout A strength and conditioning professional needs to perform assessments on a high school male basketball team. Which of the following are criteria to use to select tests for these athletes? I. related to the sport II. applicable to age and gender III. relevant to the sport season IV. specific to those with a high training status A. I and II only B. I and IV only C. II and III only D. III and IV only A. I and II only The data from a wrestling team's 1RM bench press testing session show that the scores are comparable for all of the wrestlers. Which of the following measures of central tendency provides the MOST descriptive statistic for these results? A. mean B. median C. mode D. range A. mean Which of the following describes the correlation between these sets of data for vertical jump and body weight? Vertical Jump Body Weight Athlete A: 30 in (76 cm) 210 pounds (95 kg) Athlete B: 22 in (56 cm) 231 pounds (105 kg) Athlete C: 34 in (86 cm) 200 pounds (91 kg) A. strong, positive correlation B. weak, negative correlation C. strong, negative correlation D. weak, positive correlation C. strong, negative correlation 4.Which of the following test sequences is the MOST appropriate? A.non-fatiguing tests, agility tests, aerobic capacity tests, sprint tests B.agility tests, maximum power tests, local muscular endurance tests C.local muscular endurance tests, sprint tests, aerobic capacity tests D.non-fatiguing tests, sprint tests, agility tests, aerobic capacity tests B.agility tests, maximum power tests, local muscular endurance tests A strength and conditioning professional needs to do a post-season assessment on a soccer team. In what order should the following tests be administered? I. 300-yard (274-m) shuttle run II. 1RM back squat III. skinfold measurements IV. body weight measurements A. I, II, IV, III B. II, I, III, IV C. III, IV, II, I D. IV, III, I, II c. III, IV, II, I Due to time constraints, a strength and conditioning professional has to administer a 1.5 mile (2.4 km) run test on the same day as the T-test, 1RM bench press, 300-yard (274-m) shuttle run, and the vertical jump. To optimize the results of the 1.5-mile run test, when should it be performed? A. in place of the 300-yard (374-m) shuttle run B. right after the vertical jump test C. before the 1RM bench press test D. an hour after the other tests are completed an hour after the other tests are completed All of the following should include practice trials for the athlete before performing the actual test EXCEPT: A. seated shot put test B. shoulder flexibility test C. hexagon agility test D. no arm-swing vertical jump test B. shoulder flexibility test Which of the following tests is the most valid for assessing aerobic capacity? A. AAHPERD shuttle run B. step test C. 300-yard (274-m) shuttle run D. 1 minute sit-up test B. step test A strength and conditioning professional is asked to perform initial assessment tests on a collegiate female volleyball team. Which of the following tests is the MOST sport-specific? A. 40-yard (37-m) sprint B. NSCA T-test C. 6RM power clean D. one-step vertical jump D. one-step vertical jump Which of the following tests can evaluate BOTH anaerobic endurance and anaerobic power? A. Margaria-Kalamen test B. seated shot put C. 300-yard (274-m) shuttle run D. Wingate test D. Wingate test Which of the following physiological adaptations occur in response to a resistance training program? I. increased motor unit recruitment II. enhanced mitochondrial density III. increased number of Type II muscle fibers IV. enhanced motor unit synchronization A. I and IV only B. II and III only C. I, II, and IV only D. I, III, and IV only A. I and IV only Which of the following structures, when activated, reduces a muscle's ability to create force? A. muscle spindles B. intrafusal fibers C. Golgi tendon organs D. gamma afferent fibers C. Golgi tendon organs Which of the following types of training elicits the greatest increase in the size and number of mitochondria in a skeletal muscle fiber? A. Olympic lifting B. Fartlek running C. plyometric training D. circuit resistance training B. Fartlek running Which of the following athletic positions theoretically requires the highest percentage of Type I muscle fibers for optimal performance? A. Olympic weightlifter B. American football wide receiver C. basketball point guard D. American football lineman D. American football lineman Which of the following best describes the shift in muscle fiber type due to exercise training? A. Type I to Type IIa B. Type IIb to Type IIa C. Type IIa to Type I D. Type IIa to Type IIb B. Type IIb to Type IIa Which of the following is a location where changes to connective tissue adaptations are likely to occur in response to training? I. at the ligament-bone junction II. inside the bone matrix III. within the belly of a tendon IV. between groups of muscle fibers I, III, and IV only Which of the following physiological adaptations occur in response to an aerobic endurance training program? I. enhanced ventricular hypertrophy II. increased size of Type II muscle fibers III. enhanced carbohydrate oxidation IV. increased ATPase concentration I and III only Resistance training-induced adaptations within which of the following structures of the body are responsible for the initial (e.g., the first 3 weeks) increase in muscle strength? A. axial skeleton B. motor unit C. connective tissue D. muscle cell nucleus motor unit Engaging in a cross-training program consisting of equal volumes of resistance training and aerobic endurance training will A. enhance the aerobic adaptations. B. interfere with the aerobic adaptations. C. enhance the anaerobic adaptations. D. interfere with the anaerobic adaptations. interfere with the anaerobic adaptations. Which of the following is a marker of the aerobic overtraining syndrome? A. decreased post-exercise testosterone production B. increased body fat percentage C. increased pre-exercise glycogen stores D. decreased submaximal exercise heart rate decreased post-exercise testosterone production Which of the following movements of the extremities occur in the sagittal plane? A. flexion and extension B. abduction and adduction C. external and internal rotation D. horizontal abduction and adduction flexion and extension Which of the following BEST describes a motor unit? A.all the muscle fibers within the body of a muscle B.a motor neuron and the innervated muscle fibers C.the muscles that work together to create movement D.location within the muscle fiber that creates energy for movement a motor neuron and the innervated muscle fibers All of the following bones are part of the axial skeleton EXCEPT: A. skull B. vertebral column C. ribs D. pelvic girdle D. pelvic girdle Which of the following functions of a muscle is to assist indirectly in an exercise movement? A. agonist B. antagonist C. stabilizer D. synergist D. synergist Which of the following is the function of the fulcrum in a first class lever system? A. axis B. muscular force C. resistance force D. lever A. axis Which of the following classes of a lever system can be described by the muscular force and the resistance force acting on the same side of the fulcrum? I. first II. second III. third A. I only B. II only C. II and III only D. I and III only II and III only Which of the following describes the rate of force development as part of the force-time relationship? A. the greater a muscle is stretched, the more force that can be produced B. the ability to generate maximal force at the beginning of a movement C. the faster a force is applied to a resistance, the more force that can be applied D. the potential to create the highest level of an isometric contraction B. the ability to generate maximal force at the beginning of a movement Which of the following elements of the musculotendinous unit stores elastic energy during an eccentric muscle action? A. CC B. SEC C. PEC D. CSA B. SEC Which of the following types of muscle fiber pennation is the deltoid muscle? A. radiate B. multipennate C. bipennate D. fusiform B. multipennate Which of the following is an example of a closed kinetic chain exercise? A. biceps curl B. lunge C. machine chess press D. pushup Pushup Which of the following describes all motor units? A. contain the same type of muscle fibers B. contain the same size of motor neurons C. contain about the same number of muscle fibers D. can adjust their force production based on the size of the action potential contain the same type of muscle fibers Which of the following layers of connective tissue is the MOST superficial? A. perimysium B. endomysium C. epimysium D. fasciculus epimysium Which of the following is the smallest functional unit of a muscle? A. myofibril B. sarcomere C. myofilament D. actomyosin complex sarcomere Which of the following is the form of chemical energy stored in the body that is the most IMMEDIATELY available for a muscle action? A. muscle glycogen B. blood glucose C. creatine phosphate D. adenosine triphosphate adenosine triphosphate Which of the following types of muscle fibers generate the GREATEST amount of force? A. fast-twitch glycolytic B. slow-twitch oxidative C. fast-twitch oxidative glycolytic D. transitional or undifferentiated fast-twitch glycolytic A muscle's ability to sustain maximal force production without undue fatigue is primarily dependent on which of the following factors? A. ability to replenish adenosine triphosphate B. amount of actomyosin binding C. ratio of type IIa to type IIc muscle fibers in a motor unit D. motor unit firing frequency ability to replenish adenosine triphosphate As compared to a muscle whose fibers are not pennated, all of the following are affected by a muscle with pennated fibers EXCEPT: A. contraction speed B. power production C. creatine content D. force capacity creatine content Which of the following is an adaptation to aerobic endurance training? A. submax exercise heart rate increases B. resting VO2 increases C. submax exercise ventilation rate decreases D. resting vital capacity decreases submax exercise ventilation rate decreases Performing a resistance training workout causes which of the following changes in blood pressure or peripheral resistance that does NOT occur during an aerobic exercise workout? A. systolic blood pressure increases B. mean blood pressure decreases C. diastolic blood pressure increases D. peripheral resistance decreases diastolic blood pressure increases Which of the following is the primary transport mechanism of oxygen in the blood? A. myoglobin B. plasma C. hemoglobin D. bicarbonate hemoglobin