NCE & CPCE Final Exam Review 2022

NCE & CPCE Final Exam Review 2022 1. Aging is a. biological b. social c. psychological d. all: all 2. Which of the following is NOT a true statement about biological aging? a. it depends on metabolic changes b. it refers to people's perceptions of how old or young they feel c. it involves anabolism d. it involves catabolism: refers to people's perceptions of how old or young they feel 3. Catabolism refers to a. the body's decline to death from its peak b. the body's development from birth to its peak c. the metabolic changes that occur in the elderly d. none: body's decline to death from its peak 4. Intelligence is accounted for mostly by a person's a. environment b. genetics c. genetics and environment in equal parts d. educational level: genetics 5. Epigenetic theorists emphasize the importance of a. nature b. nurture c. nature and nurture d. none: nature and nurture 6. The brain usually reaches its adult weight by the time a person is a. 12 b. 16 c. 44 d. 64: 16 7. The most primitive part of the brain is the a. hindbrain b. midbrain c. forebrain d. cerebral cortex: hindbrain 8. The is responsible for regulating arousal and attention a. medulla oblongata b. cerebellum c. reticular activating system d. hypothalamus: reticular activating system 9. Sicle cell anemia is a. X-linked disease b. sex chromosomal disorder c. autosomal disorder d. none: autosomal disorder 10. Males born with an extra X chromosome have a. Turner syndrome b. Tay-Sachs disease c. phenylketonuria d. Klinefelter's syndrome: Klinefelter's syndrome 11. In Ivan Pavlov's famous experiments with dogs, the conditioned stimulus was a. salivation b. meat powder c. bell, buzzer, tone d. none: bell 12. In classical conditioning, when people present a conditioned stimulus at the same time as the unconditioned stimulus, they are using a. backward conditioning b. simultaneous conditioning c. retroactive conditioning d. delayed conditioning: simultaneous 13. is the most successful form of conditioning. a. backward b. simultaneous c. retroactive d. delayed: delayed 14. John B Watson is most well-known for his experiments involving a. rat b. dog c. duck d. cats: rat 15. is best known for th theory of operant conditioning a. Ivan Pavlov b. B.F. Skinner c. John B Watson d. Albert Bandura: BF Skinner 16. According to Piaget, when people use their existing cognitive framework to understand new info, they are involved in the process of adaptation known as a. assimilation b. accommodation c. symbolic representation d. all: assimilation 17. Children learn object permanence in the stage of Piaget's theory of cognitive development a. sensorimotor b. pre operational c. concrete operational d. formal operational: sensorimotor 18. Animism refers to a. only being able to focus on one aspect of a problem at a time b. thinking that humans created everything in the world c. giving life to lifeless objects d. the belief that actions cannot be reversed: giving life to lifeless objects 19. Individuals can think logically and abstractly when they reach the stage of Piaget's theory of cognitive development a. sensorimotor b. preoperational c. concrete operational d. formal operational: formal operational 20. Some teenagers drive over the speed limit without wearing seat belts because they do not believe that they can be hurt. These teenagers a. have an imaginary audience b. has created a personal fable c. are engaged in magical thinking d. are using divergent thinking: personal fable 21. Noam Chomsky's theory of language development is considered to be a(n) a. learning theory approach b. nativist approach c. interactionalist approach d. epigenetic approach: 22. Language rules that transcend specific languages and cultures are called a. surface structures b. global structures c. deep structures d. intrinsic structures: deep 23. How many morphemes does the word "books" have? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4: 2 24. The appropriate use of grammar is the definition of a. syntax b. pragmatics c. semantics d. phonology: syntax 25. When do babies become adept at holophrasing a. 8 months b. 10 months c. 1 year d. 1 1/2 years: 1 1/2 years 26. Freud believed that fixation results from a. overgratificiation b. undergratification c. both d. none: both 27. Erikson would consider a normal 4 year old child to be in the stage of personality development a. initiative vs guilt b. basic trust vs mistrust c. autonomy vs shame and doubt d. industry vs inferiority: initiative vs guilt 28. A person who obeys group rules and seeks familial acceptance is in the stage of Loevinger's ego development theory. a. integrated b. conformist c. self-awareness d. conscientious: conformist 29. According to Maslow, before people can meet their needs for esteem, they must meet their need for a. safety b. belongingness c. survival d. all: all 30. Children who are clingy and react strongly to separation form their care- takers are considered by Mary Ainsworth to display a. secure attachment b. avoidant attachment c. ambivalent attachment d. disorganized attachment: ambivalent 31. Most adults are in the level of Kohlberg's theory of moral develop- ment a. preconventional b. conventional c. post conventional d. none: conventional 32. Individuals who adhere to moral standards to satisfy their own personal desires are in Kohlberg's stage of moral development a. instrumental hedonism b. "good boy, good girl" c. obedience and punishment d. law and order: instrumental hedonism 33. People who are in the conventional stage of Kohlberg's theory of moral development may do all the following Except: a. follow the rules to avoid societal disapproval b. follow the rules to avoid familial disapproval c. follow the rules because they have been agreed on through a democratic process d. follow the rules so that law and order can be maintained: because they have been agreed upon by a democratic process 34. A woman who balances her personal needs with those of others is in the stage of Gilligan's theory of moral development a. goodness as self-sacrifice b. orientation to individual survival c. morality of nonviolence d. all: morality of nonviolence 35. Children often do not understand the reasons behind rules when they are in the stage of Piaget's theory of moral development a. premoral b. moral realism c. moral relativism d. moral orientation: moral realism 36. According to Gesell, human development is PRIMARILY due to a. genetics b. nurture c. the environment d. none: genetics 37. Havighurst believes that relating to one's spouse as a person is a devel- opmental task of a. young adulthood b. middle age c. late maturity d. all: middle age 38. In Havighurst's model of human development, many of the earlier (child- hood) tasks are a. biologically determined b. socially determined c. culturally determined d. psychologically determined: biologically 39. In Gould's theory of adult development, adults must do all of the follow except a. refute false assumptions b. decrease parental dependency c. increase spousal dependency d. increase self-reliance: increase spousal dependency 40. Peck's theory of adult development is an expansion of a. Erikson's psychosocial theory b. Freud's psychosexual theory c. Havighursts' developmental task approach d. Gould's adult development theory: Erikson's psychosocial theory 41. What percentage of first marriages end in divorce? a. 30 b. 40 c. 50 d. 60: 50 42. During the stage of family development, it is most important for boundaries to become more flexible a. welcoming children into the family b. raising adolescents c. launching d. later family life: raising adolescents 43. Children of permissive parents often become all of the following except a. rebellious b. aggressive c. self-centered d. irresponsible: rebellious 44. Parents who enforce a set standard of conduct and frequently use phys- ical punishment to control their children are a. authoritative b. authoritarian c. uninvolved d. permissive: authoritarian 45. Today, a couple's divorce is most commonly blamed on a. domestic abuse b. substance abuse c. incompatibility d. all: incompatibility 46. The death of a child is a a. developmental crisis b. psychiatric crisis c. existential crisis d. situational crisis: situational 47. All of the following are developmental crises except a. birth of child b. moving to a new state c. car accident d. changing jobs: car accident 48. Counselors who become emotionally affected after exposure to crisis victims are experiencing a. compassion fatigue b. vicarious trauma c. burnout d. transcrisis: compassion fatigue 49. Counselors should assess when they believe a client might be suicidal a. whether the client has a plan b. whether the client has a means for carrying out the plan c. whether the plan is specific, detailed, and plausible d. all: all 50. According to the Invisible Self wellness model, the following is NOT part of the essential self a. gender identity b. nutrition c. spirituality d. self-care: nutrition 51. The DSM5 a. is not offend used by professional counselors b. is difficult to interpret into laymen's terms for the client c. provides a common language for mental health professionals to commu- nicate with one another d. all: common language to communicate together 52. Which of the following is a DSM5 neurodevelopmental disorder a. PTSD b. Antisocial Personality Disorder c. ADHD d. Oppositional Defiant Disorder: Antisocial Personality Disorder 53. Individuals with Conduct Disorder cannot simultaneously be diagnosed with a. Oppositional Defiant Disorder b. ADHD c. Seperation Anxiety Disorder d. Learning Disorder: Oppositional Defiant Disorder 54. A person who experiences a depressed mood more often than not of at least 2 years would likely be diagnosed with a. Major Depressive Disorder b. Cyclothymic Disorder c. Bipolar I Disorder d. Dysthymic Disorder: Dysthymic Disorder 55. has been translated to mean "fear of the marketplace" a. Agoraphobia b. Factitious Disorder c. Paraphilia d. Hypochondriasis: agoraphobia 56. introduced group work to schools a. Frank Parsons b. Jesse davis c. Lewis Wender d. Joseph Pratt: Jesse Davis 57. Which of the following is not a true statement about marathon groups? a. can last up to 48 hours b. members are encouraged to be authentic with each other c. become popular during the 1980s d. self-disclosure is an integral part: popular during 1980s 58. A group is not one of the 4 primary types of group work a. psychoeducational b. task c. growth d. psychotherapy: growth 59. Reality distortion occurs when a. the social environment in the group is radically dissimilar to the outside world b. group members view their problems through rose colored glasses c. members engage in avoidance behaviors d. all: the social environment in the group is radically dissimilar to the outside world 60. The first form of psychodrama was called a. role playing b. psychological improvisations c. dramatic reenacting d. the Theater of Spontaneity: the Theater of Spontaneity 61. Psychoeducational groups are a. remedial b. preventative c. growth oriented d. all: all 62. groups focus heavily on skill-building a. Psychoeducational b. Psychotherapy c. Task d. Counseling: Psychoeducational 63. Counseling groups are more than psychoeducational groups a. structured b. problem oriented c. pedagogic d. none: problem oriented 64. groups are for members who have severe psychiatric problems a. counseling b. psychoeducational c. psychotherapy d. task: psychotherapy 65. Which of the following is a false statement about task groups a. The primary goal of completing a task b. Leaders work to change and improve member behaviors c. Task groups are run using principle of group dynamics d. Collaboration is used to facilitate goal achievement: Leaders work to change and improve member behavior 66. In the beginning stage of a group, a leader is generally more than in later stages a. laisse-faire b. directive c. democratic d. passive: directive 67. is not an executive function of a group leader a. establishing boundaries b. beginning and ending group sessions c. establishing norms d. planning group sessions: establishing norms 68. Each of the following are an example of ways to bring members into the here and now except a. processing members current situations b. discussing immediate interactions between group members c. helping members make future plans d. encouraging members to provide feedback to other members: helping members make future plans 69. A group in which the members take almost full responsibility for the group sessions and process most likely have a leader a. laissez-faire b. democratic c. authoritarian d. uninvolved: laissez-faire 70. Group conflict usually occurs during the stage of a counseling group a. initial b. working c. final d. transition: transition 71. A group member is anxious and uneasy because she is unsure of how she is supposed to behave in group counseling.This individual is experienc- ing a. role overload b. role ambiguity c. role conflict d. role dissonance: role ambiguity 72. is one of the two most essential group member tasks a. modeling b. active listening c. providing feedback d. confronting: providing feedback 73. Information that is known to self but unknown to others is found in which quadrant of the Johari window? a. public/open quadrant b. private/hidden quadrant c. blind quadrant d. unknown/unconscious quadrant: private/hidden quadrant 74. Group members sometimes take on challenging roles to address a per- sonal need or issue related to each of the following EXCEPT a. attachment b. acceptance c. identity d. power: attachment 75. can be a challenging group member behavior a. opinion seeking b. gatekeeping c. evaluation d. advice giving: advice giving 76. A is an example of a spontaneous content group a. social skills group b. young women's personal growth group c. divorce group for children d. grief group: young women's personal growth group 77. is NOT a potential benefit of a homogeneous group a. better insight b. better attendance c. better skill generalization d. less resistance: better skill generalization 78. Heterogeneous groups may have a. members with diverse presenting problems b. members with diverse demographics c. cohesion difficulties if members are too dissimilar d. all: all 79. Open groups are most appropriate in a. school settings b. private practice c. psychiatric hospitials d. all: psychiatric hospitals 80. The ideal size for counseling groups and psychotherapy groups is about a. 6 b. 8 c. 10 d. 12: 8 81. issues are not primary contributors to group dynamics a. content b. structural c. leader style d. process: leader style 82. Discussing a conflict that arises in a group with all group members would be an example of addressing a a. content issue b. structural issue c. leader style issue d. process issue: process issue 83. Group cohesion normally is highest in the a. forming/orienting stage b. transition stage c. working stage d. termination stage: working stage 84. Norms can best be described as a. roles b. rules c. attitudes d. all: 85. The transition stage is referred to by some as the a. storming stage b. forming stage c. norming stage d. performing stage: storming stage 86. could be used for process evaluation purposes in group work a. Standardized instruments b. Evaluation of videotapes c. observations d. all: all 87. Which questions does outcome evaluation answer? a. What did members like about the group b. How are members diff because of group work c. How many people received the benefits of group work d. all: How are members diff because of group work 88. Outcome evaluations can be used for all of the following purposes except to a. demonstrate accountability b. process group dynamics c. improve the program d. determine whether the program met its goals: process group dynamics 89. is not a characteristic that usually leads to higher member satisfac- tion a. mandatory attendance b. being in the working stage c. voluntary attendance d. being in the termination stage: mandatory attendance 90. The Hill Interaction Matrix is a measure of a. group climate b. therapeutic factors c. screenings/selection d. leader behaviors/skills: screenings/selection 91. Developed by Robert Yerkes, the is a language-free test that was designed for individuals who could not read or were foreign born a. Army Alpha b. Stanford-Binet c. Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory d. Army Beta: Army Beta 92. If a pro school counselor wants to know if a student is ready to move to the next grade, she should administer a. maximal performance test b. speed test c. objective test d. typical performance test: maximal performance 93. The Vocational and Technical Education Act of 1984 (Carl D. Perkins Act) a. ensure confidentiality of student test records by restricting access to scores b. mandates that student with disabilities receive an IEP c. provides disadvantaged populations access to vocational assessment, counseling, and placement services d. secures the privacy of client records: provides disadvantaged populations access 94. A pro counselor releases a client's test results to a bachelor's level case manager who has not trainmen in testing and assessment. What ethical guideline was violated? a. informed consent b. release of results to qualified professionals c. communicating test results d. none: release of results to qualified professionals 95. Which source is designed to provide the layperson with understandable assessment info a. Mental Measurements Yearbook b. Tests in Print c. Tests d. Test Critiques: Test Critiques 96. Which of the following is NOT true about test validity? a. validity should always be reported in terms of test purpose and intended population b. test scores do not have to be valid to be reliable c. a validity coefficient of .25 is high d. false positive errors contribute to a lack of test score validity: a validity coefficient of .25 is high 97. What formula would you use to measure the interitem consistency of a test with a Likert-type scale? a. Cronbach's coefficient alpha b. Spearman-Brown prophecy formula c. Standard error of estimate d. Kuder-Richardson formular 20: Cronbach's coefficient alpha 98. If a math test item has a positive item discrimination, it can be said that: more students who knew the material answered the question correctly than students who did not know the material well 99. Which type of instrument scale is based on the belief that people think dichotomously? a. Guttman b. Semantic differential c. Likert type d. Thurstone: Semantic differential 100. Item response theory can be used to a. detect equivalence in an item that is written in different languages b. detect item bias in the same test given to an African American and a Latino American c. determine if an SAT score of 1000 is equivalent to an IQ score of 114 d. give a bright student an exam with more difficult items: detect item bias in the same test 101. If a student scored 45 on a difficult English test, what can be said about her performance? a. she performed poorly b. she performed a little below average on the test c. she performed better than most of her classmates d. there's not enough info to know how she performed: not enough info 102. If a set of test scores with a mean of 74 and a standard deviation of 10 is normally distributed, what is the median? a. 64 b. 84 c. 74 d. 104: 74 103. In a normal distribution of scores falls between -1 and +2 standard deviations? a. 68% b. 2.25% c. 83.7% d. 97.5%: 68% 104. An individual with a score of -1.3 has a stannic score of a. 2.4 b. 37 c. 2 d. 22.62: 2 105. Achievement testing includes a. standardized norm-referenced tests b. teacher-constructed criterion-referenced tests c. standardized high stakes tests d. all: all 106. John a 3rd grade student, is having trouble in math. The teacher sus- pects that he has a learning disability in math. Which of the following achievement tests should be used to determine whether John has a learning disability in math? a. Iowa Test of Basic Skills b. Stanford Achievement Test c. Graduate Record Exam d. Key Math Diagnostic Test: Stanford 107. Which one of the following is NOT an example of an aptitude test? a. GRE general test b. Clerical Test Battery c. Test of Adult Basic Education d. Standford-Binet 5: Test of Adult Basic Education 108. The measures several distinct aspects of vocational ability, and the measure one homogenous area of vocational ability. a. Skills profiler Series; Armed Services Vocational Aptitude Battery b. Differential Apittude Test; Wiesent Test of Mechanical Aptitude c. Miller Analogies Test; Music Aptitude Profile d. Differential Aptitude Test; Otis-Lennon School Ability Test: Differential Ap- titude Test; Wiesent Test of Mechanical Aptitude 109. William Stern's ratio intelligence quotient, popularized on early versions of the Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scale was calculated a. by dividing one's mental age by chronological age b. by dividing's one's broad cognitive abilities by narrow cognitive abilities c. by dividing one's chronological age by one's mental age d. by dividing one' narrow cognitive abilities by broad cognitive abilities: by dividing one's mental age by chronological age 110. Which objective personality test is designed to identify DSM5 II person- ality disorders? a. california Psychological Inventory CPI b. Million Clinical Multiaxial Inventory c. Myers Briggs Type Indicator d. Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory: Million clinical Mulitaxial Inven- tory 111. The Myers Briggs Type Indicator uses four dichotomous scales to mea- sure personality. What specific aspect of personality does the sensing vs. intuition scale measure? a. How you perceive the world around you b. How you make decisions c. Where your energy is directed d. How you deal with the external world: How you perceive the world around you 112. Which one of the following is NOT true? a. Rating scales usually evaluate the quantity of an attribute b. Rating scales are highly subjective because they rely on the rater's per- ception of the behavior c. Rating scales are used to assess the presence or absence of an attribute d. Rating scales often assess a broad range of behaviors: Rating scales are used to assess the presence or absence of an attribute 113. Performance assessments a. require examinees to complete a paper and pencil test b. require examinees to perform a task c. are advantageous when working with highly verbal clients d. all: require examinees to perform a task 114. Based on the risk factors associated with committing suicide, which client is MOST likely to commit suicide a. an 18 year old African American male with a family history of suicide b. a 78 year old widowed caucasian female who is depressed c. a 40 year old hispanic woman with a diagnosed anxiety disorder and a history of alcohol abuse d. a 67 year old divorced caucasian male who recently lost his job and has feelings of hopelessness: 67 year old 115. Requiring minority student to take standardized college admission ex- ams that were disingenuous for Caucasian middle-class students consti- tutes bias a. interpretive b. situational c. ecological d. test: ecological 116. According to the ACA and NBCC codes of ethics professional coun- selors a. must rely on cultural stereotypes when assessing multicultural popula- tions b. do not need to be knowledgeable about the client's culture if using a multiculturally appropriate assessment c. use instruments that provide norms for the specific client pop that is being assessed d. all: use instruments that provide norms for the specific client pop that is being described 117. Test adaptation a. has been replace by test translation b. strives to elicit the same responses from test takers regardless of the examinees cultural or linguistic backgrounds c. has been heavily criticized for assuming equivalence in content and values across cultures d. provides linguistic equivalence but not content equivalence: has been heavily criticized for assuming equivalence in content and values across cultures 118. Which one of the following is not an advantage associated with comput- er based testing? a. greater scoring accuracy b. can provide immediate feedback concerning client performance c. clients prefer test administration via the computer when responding to sensitive topics d. minimizes human contact and involvement in the testing process: mini- mizes human contact and involvement in th testing process 119. A test that has the ability to modify the test structure and items to the examinees ability level is known as a(n) a. computer adaptive test b. intelligent test c. computer based test d. ethical test: computer adaptive test 120. A professional counselor is interested in developing an affirmative pol- icy after investigating the treatment of gay, lesbian, and bisexual individuals in a community program.This study is represented best by which paradigm? a. interpretivism b. post-positivism c. positivism d. critical: critical 121. The paradigm characterized most by the notion that with enough re- search we can gain knowledge of a universal truth is a. interpretivism b. post positivism c. positivism d. critical: positivism 122. The study failed the most to outline participants' voluntariness a. Belmont b. Milligram's Obedience c. Jewish Chronic Disease Hospital d. Willowbrook: Willowbrook 123. outlines research participants' rights and researchers' responsibil- ities in conducting research a. HIPAA b. 45 CRF 46 c. Nuremberg Code d. Proposition 16: 45 CFR 46 124. outlines the privacy rights of particaptns pertaining to health info a. HIPAA b. 45 CRF 46 c. Nurmberg Code d. Proposition 16: HIPAA 125. The type of counseling program a client selects would most likely be an example of a(n) a. independent variable b. dependent variable c. null variable d. extraneous variable: independent variabel 126. A(n) variable can create an uncontrolled effect in a study's out- come a. independent b. dependent c. null d. extraneous: extraneous 127. Detecting a significant relationship when one is present is known as a. alpha b. beta c. effect size d. power: power 128. Randomly identifying a counseling agency that serves clients with ADHD and sampling its entire staff is an example of a sampling method a. simple random b. cluster c. quota d. systematic: cluster 129. Which of the following internal validity threats is LEAST likely related to a repeated measures study for a group of 6th graders a. history b. maturation c. attrition d. diffusion of treatment: diffusion of treatment 130. Conducting qualitative research followed by quantitative research is known as a a. concurrent design b. exploratory design c. cross-sectional design d. all: exploratory 131. Analyzing digital recordings of patients with schizophrenia to determine the quality of their social interactions would most likely be an example of a. quanitative research b. qualitative research c. mixed methods research d. single subject research design SSRD: qualitative 132. Providing an overall picture of community crime statistics would most likely be an example of research a. pilot b. survey c. descriptive d. single subject research design SSRD: descriptive 133. Pilot studies are useful for each of the following reasons except a. they confirm post hoc a larger study's findings b. they assist in revising data collection methods c. they help to find potential limitations of a planned larger study d. all: they confirm post hoc a larger study's findings 134. Which of the following is an example of a cross sectional design a. Studying children with reactive attachment disorder over their lives b. examining participant attrition issues in a 10 year study c. Developing a needs assessment to investigate necessary policy changes d. Comparing the impact of a bullying incident across grade levels: Compar- ing the impact of a bullying incident across grade levels 135. The question "How do students differ in their degree of involvement in college activities?" would be addressed best by a design a. casual comparative b. correlational c. comparative d. longitudinal: comparative 136. Evaluating the impact of a smoking cessation program for a sample of 150 clients using repeated measures is an example of a a. time series design b. single subject research c. singel group posttest d. non experimental: time series design 137. "What is the relationship between driving speed and gas prices?" is an example of a question best addressed by a design? a. casual comparative b. true experimental c. quasi experimental d. single subject: true experimental 138. The amount of shared variance among the variables of depression and anxiety (r=.30) is a. .30 b. .70 c. .09 d. it depends on the validity of the instruments: .09 139. The standard deviation represents a. the diff between the lowest score and the highest score in a distribution b. the typical score in a distribution c. how much an individual score differs from the mean score in a distrubu- tion d. the height of a dstirubution of scores: how much an individual score differs from the mean score 140. Each of the following statements is true EXCEPT a. skewness can be identified if the values of the mean and median are known b. the mean is influenced by extremely high or low scores c. the median is influenced by the position of scores d. the mode is influence by extreme scores: the mode is influenced by extreme scores 141. On a set of geography test resutls, the instructor informed the calss that almost everyone had scored within one standard deviation of the mean. Results like these would be depicted by an distribution. a. platykurtic b. inverted c. mesokurtic d. leptokurtic: mesokurtic 142. If you are trying to determine the typical salary for real estate profession- als and your data includes $30000, 32000, and , using a would be the most appropriate measure of central tendency a. mean b. median c. mode d. all: median 143. Each of the following statements are correct except a. skewed distributions can be positively skewed b. skewed distributions can be negatively skewed c. in skewed distributions, the scores accumulate at the center of the distri- bution d. in skewed distributions, the scores accumulate at one end of the distribu- tion: in skewed, the scores accumulate at the center of the distribution 144. Which of the following is most likely an example of a restriction of range? a. women in a particular community and depression levels b. prediction of grad school grades among students scoring 1400 on the GRE c. Elementary school students and depression levels d. clients at a psychiatric facility and depression levels: prediction of grad school grades among students scoring 1400 on the GRE 145. What is the key diff between a t-test and an ANOVA a. number of dependent variables b. number of groups for an independent variable c. the use of ratio data d. the use of a continuous dependent variable: number of groups for an inde- pendent variable 146. What is the key diff between an ANOVA and a MANOVA a. number of dependent variable b. number of groups fro an independent variable c. the use of ratio data d. the use of a continuous dependent variable: number of dependent variables 147. A professional counselor wants to examine the relationship between education level and the decision to participate in a continuing education program. Which statistical test would likely be appropriate a. ANOVA b. ANCOVA c. chi square d. wilcoxon's signed-rank test: chi square 148. Answer the following analogy: An independent t-test is to a Kol- mogorov-Smirnov Z as a dependent t-test is to a a. ANOVA b. ANCOVA c. chi square d. Wilcoxons signed-rank test: Wilcoxon's signed rank test 149. Which of the following qualitative research traditions most a assists the counselor to attend to participants' lived experiences while developing a theory on the processes of a phenomenon? a. phenomenology b. grounded theory c. consensual qualitative research d. ethnography: consensual qualitative research 150. Which of the following qualitative research traditions most assists the counselor to collaborate with participants to enact change in a setting? a. ethnography b. biography c. case study d. participatory action research: participatory action research 151. A data management tool that can serve as a cover sheet or snapshot for an event during data collection is a a. contact summary sheet b. memo c. reflexive journal d. audit trail: contact summary sheet 152. The question "Why should I believe your qualitative findings?" is best answered by focusing on a. credibility b. transferability c. dependability d. confirmability: credibility 153. All of the following are characteristics of qualitative research except a. identifying research bias b. engaging in hypothesis testing c. managing and analyzing data throughout a qualitative study d. collaborating with participants and treating them as experts: engaging in hypothesis testing 154. refers to providing feedback to stakeholders a. accountability b. efficiency c. summation d. advising: accountability 155. During the needs assessment process a is typically given to stakeholders a. process evaluation b. executive summary c. outcome evaluation d. treatment package: executive summary 156. is not part of the ABCD model a. behavior b. content c. condition d. audience: content 157. Monitoring if a program is running as planned is known as a. process evaluation b. executive summary c. outcome evaluation d. treatment package: process evaluation 158. Determining if a program should be continued again is known as a. process evaluation b. executive summary c. outcome evaluation d. treatment package: outcome evalutation