HESI PN OB EXAM PACK BEST FOR 2022 EXAM REVIEW 2 versions

1. A nurse is assessing a client who is at 33 weeks of gestation. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider? a. Epigastric pain: The nurse should notify the provider of the client's report of epigastric pain because this is a manifestation of preeclampsia. Other findings the nurse should report include severe headache, blurred vision, confusion, nausea and vomiting, and decreased urinary output. b. Leukorrhea: Leukorrhea, or vaginal discharge, is an expected finding throughout pregnancy. Leukorrhea increases during pregnancy due to hypertrophy of the cervix, which increasesthe amount of mucus secreted from the vagina. c. Excessive salivation: Ptyalism, or excessive salivation, is an expected finding in pregnancy. Increased levels of estrogen cause an increase in the production of saliva. d. Darkening of the skin on the face: Hyperpigmentation on the face, or melasma, is an expected finding during pregnancy. The anterior pituitary gland increases the production of melanocyte-stimulating hormone, causing an increase in pigmentation of the skin. 2. A nurse is assessing a newborn following a circumcision 48 hr ago. The nurse should identify that yellow exudate covering the newborn's glans penis indicates which of the following? a. Wound infection: Infected circumcision wounds appearswollen with a purulent discharge. b. Ulceration: Yellow exudate following a circumcision is not a manifestation of an ulceration. c. Exposure to urine: Yellow exudate is not a manifestation resulting from the wound being exposed to urine. d. Healing: After 24 hours, yellow exudate usually forms over the glans penis and remains for the next 2 to 3 days. It sometimes forms a crust, which is expected. The nurse should explain that the yellow film the guardians will see is granulation tissue as the circumcision heals. The guardians should not remove this tissue. 3. A nurse is developing a plan of care for a client who is in the latent phase of labor. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan to manage the client's pain? a. Encourage the client to listen to music: During the latent phase of labor, the nurse should implement nonpharmacologicalstrategiesto encourage relaxation and provide pain relief. There are a wide variety of cutaneous and sensory measures that are simple to implement during this stage of labor, such as music, rocking, breathing techniques, walking and application of hot or cold packs. b. Instruct the client how to use biofeedback: Biofeedback can be an effective method to reduce the discomfort of labor by promoting self-awareness and relaxation. However, the client must have received instruction and practiced this technique prior to labor for it to be effective. c. Administer fentanyl 100 mcg every hour via intermittent IV bolus…Fentanyl is an opioid agonist analgesic that enhances a client's ability to rest between contractions. However, opioids can also inhibit uterine contractions and prolong labor. Therefore, avoid administration of opioid analgesia until a client reaches the active phase of labor or cervical dilation of at least 4 cm. d. Request the provider administer a pudendal nerve block….A pudendal nerve block relieves pain in the lower vagina and perineum during the second or third stage of labor. It provides anesthesia for episiotomy or repair of lacerations following birth. 4. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results for a postpartum client who is receiving warfarin for deep-vein thrombosis. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse monitor? a. WBC count: The nurse should monitor the WBC count for clients who have conditions such as chorioamnionitis. However, it is not necessary for the nurse to monitor this level for a client who is receiving warfarin therapy. b. International normalized ratio (INR): The nurse should monitor the INR of a client who is taking warfarin. Prothrombin time (PT) is also measured to regulate warfarin therapy. However, PT values are more difficult to interpret. INR is determined by multiplying the PT by a correction factor based on the specific thromboplastin preparation used for the test, as a way of equalizing laboratory-to-laboratory variations. c. Plasminogen levels: Plasminogen isfibrinolytic and is usually elevated during pregnancy. However, it is not necessary for the nurse to monitor this level for a client who is receiving warfarin therapy. d. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT): The nurse should review aPTT if client is receiving heparin. 5. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has preeclampsia prior to administering labetalol. For which of the following findings should the nurse withhold the medication? a. Uric acid 7.5 mg/dL: The nurse should identify that a uric acid level of 7.5 mg/dL is above the expected reference range of 2.7 to 7.3 mg/dL for a client who is pregnant. Elevated uric acid is a manifestation of preeclampsia and is caused by decreased renal perfusion. However, an elevated uric acid level is not a contraindication for the administration of labetalol, an antihypertensive medication. b. Heart rate 54/min: The nurse should identify that a heart rate of 54/min is below the expected reference range of 60 to 100/min. During pregnancy, the heart rate increases 10 to 15/min due to increased blood volume and increased tissue demands for oxygen. Bradycardia is a contraindication for the administration of labetalol, an antihypertensive medication. Therefore, the nurse should withhold the medication and notify the provider. c. FHR 112/min: The nurse should identify that an FHR of 112/min is within the expected reference range of 110 to 160/min. Preeclampsia can cause a decrease in placental perfusion, leading to fetal hypoxia. The nurse should closely monitor the FHR for manifestations of fetal distress. However, the nurse should not withhold labetalol, an antihypertensive medication, for this finding. d. BUN 23 mg/dL: The nurse should identify that a BUN of 23 mg/dL is above the expected reference range of 10 to 20 mg/dL for a client who is pregnant. An elevated BUN is a manifestation of preeclampsia and is caused by decreased renal perfusion. However, an elevated BUN is not a contraindication for the administration of labetalol, an antihypertensive medication 6. A nurse is assessing a client who is in labor. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect? a. Decrease in WBC count: Physical and emotional stress can lead to an increased WBC count. b. Decrease in blood glucose level: Maternal metabolism, physical exertion, and delivery of the placenta can lead to a decreased blood glucose level. c. Decrease in respiratory rate: Anxiety and increased oxygen consumption from physical exertion during labor can lead to an increased respiratory rate. d. Decrease in temperature: Vascular changes during labor can lead to an elevated temperature, flushed cheeks, and warm skin. 7. A nurse is caring for a newborn immediately following birth who has meconium-stained amniotic fluid and exhibits good muscle tone and respiratory efforts. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first? a. Dry the newborn: The nurse should dry the newborn to reduce evaporative heat loss; however, another action is the priority. b. Provide tactile stimulation for the newborn.: Tactile stimulation might be required to elicit crying efforts by the newborn; however, another action isthe priority. Tactile stimulation prior to suctioning of the mouth and pharynx can cause meconium to enter the airways of the newborn. c. Begin suctioning of mouth and nose.: The greatest risk to the newborn is injury from meconium aspiration syndrome and respiratory distress; therefore, the priority action the nurse should take is to suction the mouth and nose. The nurse should assess the newborn's condition at birth and suction the newborn's mouth and nose with a bulb syringe based on the assessment findings. If the newborn's respiratory status is depressed, endotracheal suctioning must be done as well to remove any meconium that has entered the newborn's airways. d. Initiate skin-to-skin contact.: Thermoregulation isimportant for all newborns, especially newborns whose respiratory status might be compromised; however, another action is the priority. 8. A nurse is assessing a client who is at 8 weeks of gestation and has hyperemesis gravidarum. Which of the following are findings of this condition? (Select all that apply.) a. Hypertension is incorrect. Hypotension is a finding associated with hyperemesis gravidarum. a. Tachycardia is correct. Hyperemesis gravidarum typically occurs during the first trimester and results in electrolyte imbalance, excessive weight loss, ketonuria, and nutritional deficiencies. Tachycardia is a finding of severe dehydration. b. Dry mucous membranes is correct. Hyperemesis gravidarum typically occurs during the first trimester and results in electrolyte imbalance, excessive weight loss, ketonuria, and nutritional deficiencies. Dry mucous membranes are a finding of severe dehydration. c. Poorskin turgor is correct. Hyperemesis gravidarum typically occurs during the first trimester and results in electrolyte imbalance, excessive weight loss, ketonuria, and nutritional deficiencies. Poor skin turgor is a finding of severe dehydration. d. Polyuria is incorrect. Polyuria is not a finding associated with hyperemesis gravidarum. 9. A nurse is caring for a newborn who was delivered by cesarean birth 1 min ago and displays some flexion of the extremities, is not crying, has irregular respiratory effort, and has a heart rate of 92/min. The nurse notes grimacing but no crying when rubbing the soles of the newborn's feet. The newborn's skin color is pink with blue extremities. What is the correct Apgar score? 5: Apgar scoring is an assessment of five areas of newborn well-being: respiratory effort, heart rate, muscle tone, reflex irritability, and color. For respiratory effort, 0 means absent, 1 means slow or irregular, and 2 reflects a good cry. This newborn scores 1 for a weak, intermittent respiratory effort. For heart rate, 0 means absent, 1 is slow (below 100/min), and 2 means above 100/min. This newborn scores 1 for a heart rate of 92/min. For muscle tone, 0 is flaccid, 1 indicates some flexion of the extremities, and 2 is active motion. This newborn scores 1 for having some flexion of the extremities. For reflex irritability, 0 means none, 1 is a grimace, and 2 is a vigorous cry. This newborn scores 1 for grimacing with stimulation. For color, 0 is pale or blue, 1 reflects a pink body with blue extremities, and 2 means completely pink. This newborn scores 1 for being pink with blue extremities. Adding the newborn's scores of 1, 1, 1, 1, and 1, this newborn's Apgar score at 1 min is 5. 10. A nurse is planning to obtain a blood specimen from a newborn via a heel stick. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? a. Cool the newborn's heel prior to the procedure.: The nurse should warm the newborn's heel for 5 to 10 min to dilate the blood vessels before obtaining the blood sample. b. Puncture the center of the newborn's heel.: The nurse should puncture either side of the outer aspect of the newborn's heel. Puncturing the center of the heel can lead to complications, such as fibrosis, or bone infection. c. Cleanse the puncture site with alcohol gauze prior to the procedure.: The nurse should clean the chosen puncture site with alcohol or a facility-approved skin cleanser prior to the procedure to minimize the risk of infection. d. Administer vitamin K 30 min prior to each blood draw: Vitamin K is administered as a single intramuscular dose within 1 hr of birth to decrease the risk of newborn bleeding disorders that might occur during the first week following birth. 11. A nurse is teaching a class to clients who are pregnant. Which of the following topics should the nurse include in the discussion about cesarean birth? (Select all that apply.) a. Delay in initiating breastfeeding is incorrect. A client who undergoes a cesarean birth with regional anesthesia can begin breastfeeding without delay, unless a problem with the newborn requires waiting. Skin-to-skin contact can be initiated during the cesarean birth if the newborn is stable. b. Management of postpartum pain is correct. The nurse should discuss with clients that they will have incisional pain and also pain associated with uterine involution. c. Routine use of intubation equipment during birth is incorrect. Because most cesarean births are performed after the client receives regional anesthesia, intubation is not necessary. d. Advantage of early ambulation post-surgical procedure is correct. Early ambulation following a cesarean birth facilitates circulation in the lower extremities, preventing stasis, and assists with relieving gas pains. e. The need for an indwelling urinary catheter during delivery is correct. The nurse should place an indwelling urinary catheter prior to the cesarean birth to keep the client's bladder empty and to avoid interference with the surgical procedure. 12. A nurse is assessing a 1 HOUR-old newborn. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider? a. Transient circumoral cyanosis: Transient circumoral cyanosisis bluish discoloration around the mouth of the newborn and is an expected finding that does not require reporting to the provider. b. Transient strabismus: Transient strabismus is a disorder in which the two eyes do not look in the same direction. This is an expected finding during the newborn period until 3 to 4 months of age and does not require reporting to the provider. c. Caput succedaneum: Caput succedaneum is swelling of the scalp of the newborn and is an expected finding following a vaginal birth. While it is important to assess and document, it does not require reporting to the provider. d. Generalized petechiae: Generalized petechiae are pinpoint round spotsthat appear on the skin, which can indicate a clotting factor deficiency or infection. The nurse should report this finding to the provider immediately. 13. A nurse is assessing a newborn. Which of the following findings indicates a need to check the newborn's blood glucose level for hypoglycemia? a. Shrill cry: A shrill cry can be indicative of neonatal abstinence syndrome and hypocalcemia. Additional findings of neonatal abstinence syndrome include tachypnea, irritability, tremors, incessant crying, frequentsneezing, frequent yawning, excessive sweating, exaggerated Moro reflex, mottling of skin, uncoordinated sucking, incessant hunger, vomiting, and diarrhea. b. Weak peripheral pulses: Weak peripheral pulses are not a finding associated with hypoglycemia. c. Yellowish skin: Yellowish skin is a finding associated with hyperbilirubinemia. The nurse should assess for hyperbilirubinemia every 8 to 12 hr by pressing the sternum or forehead with a finger for several seconds and then releasing the pressure. The area will blanch and appear yellow if jaundice is present. Other areas to assess in newborns who have darker skin tones include the conjunctival sacs and the oral mucosa. d. Hypotonia: CNS findings of hypoglycemia include lethargy and hypotonia, as well as jitteriness, twitching, poor feeding, temperature instability, apnea, respiratory distress, and seizures. 14. A nurse is caring for a client who had a vaginal delivery 2 hr ago and is reporting increasing perineal pain and pressure. The nurse examines the client's perineum and sees a 4 cm (1.6 in) area of purplish discoloration with swelling. The nurse should interpret these findings as which of the following? a. A hematoma: A hematoma is a collection of blood in the connective tissue while the overlying skin or mucous membranes remain intact. Hematomas develop from injury to soft tissue in spontaneous deliveries, as well as forceps- and vacuum-assisted deliveries. Small hematomas usually reabsorb on their own, but large ones might require incision and ligation of bleeding vessels. b. Retained placental fragments: Placental retention istrapping of part of or the entire placenta inside the uterus. The placenta is generally retrieved manually if it did not deliver intact during the third stage of labor. c. A laceration: A laceration is a tear in the perineal skin or mucous membranes of the vulva or vagina. Cervical lacerations are also a possibility, but the nurse would not be able to see them on an inspection of the perineum. Lacerations generally bleed bright red blood, rather than the darker red color of lochia, and must be repaired. d. Ecchymosis: Ecchymosis is a bruised area caused by bleeding from small blood vessels under the skin. A bruise will be tender to the touch, but it will not cause the increasing pain and pressure this client is reporting. 15. A nurse is assessing a client who is in active labor. The client reports back labor pains. Which of the following nonpharmacological interventions should the nurse provide to manage the client's pain? a. Encourage the support person to apply sacral counterpressure.: Consistent pressure applied by the support person using the heel of the hand or fist against the client's sacral area will lift the fetal head off the spinal nerves and provide relief of the pain in the lower back. b. Encourage the support person to perform effleurage.: Effleurage is the light, gentle, circular stroking of the client's abdomen with the fingertips in rhythm with breathing during contractions. This can be an effective nonpharmacological pain management intervention for the client in early labor. However, this technique will not relieve the back labor discomfort caused by the fetal head pressing on the spinal nerves. c. Teach the client patterned breathing techniques.: Patterned breathing can provide distraction from the discomfort associated with labor pain and promote abdominal relaxation. However, it will not reduce back pain caused by the fetal head pressing against the spinal nerves. 16.: A nurse is performing an initial assessment during a client's first prenatal visit. The client states that her last menstrual period began April 22. Use Nägele's rule to calculate the expected date of birth (EDB). (Use the MMDD format to enter exactly four numerals, with no spaces or punctuation between the numbers.) MMDD. 0129: The most common method of determining the estimated date of birth is to apply Nägele's rule. Begin with the first day of the client's last menstrual period, subtract 3 months, and add 7 days. For this client, subtracting 3 months from April would be January, and adding 7 days to the 22nd would be the 29th. Using the MMDD format, the EDB is 0129. 17. A nurse is caring for a client who is 3 days postpartum. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? (Click on the "Exhibit" button for additional information about the client. There are three tabs that contain separate categories of data.) EXHIBIT a. Instruct the client to stop breastfeeding.: Fever for 2 consecutive days, chills, foul-smelling lochia, and abdominal tenderness are manifestations of endometritis, an infection of the lining of the uterus. The nurse should assist the client with bonding, including breastfeeding, during this time as the client might experience fatigue. b. Obtain a vaginal culture.; MY ANSWER: Fever for 2 consecutive days, chills, foul-smelling lochia, and abdominal tenderness are manifestations of endometritis, an infection of the lining of the uterus. The nurse should obtain a vaginal culture using a sterile swab to collect the fluid from the client's vaginal cavity to identify the organism. c. Initiate airborne isolation precautions.: Fever for 2 consecutive days, chills, foul-smelling lochia, and abdominal tenderness are manifestations of endometritis, an infection of the lining of the uterus. Airborne isolation precautions are not indicated. The nurse should use gloves when assisting the client with perineal care. d. Place the client on strict bed rest.: Fever for 2 consecutive days, chills, foul-smelling lochia, and abdominal tenderness are manifestations of endometritis, an infection of the lining of the uterus. The nurse should assist the client to ambulate frequently to promote drainage of the infected lochia and prevent pooling within the uterus. 18. A nurse isteaching a client who has hyperemesis gravidarum about dietary modifications. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching? a. "I will avoid eating high-carbohydrate,sugary snacks.": Clients who have hyperemesis gravidarum might find that eating a high-carbohydrate, sweet snack before consuming protein will decrease nausea and vomiting. b. "I will drink 16 ounces of water during each meal.": The client should consume liquids and solids separately throughout the day to self-manage hyperemesis. c. "I will eat small, frequent meals throughout the day.: The client should focus on eating small, frequent meals throughout the day and consuming foods that are appealing. d. "I will eliminate dairy products from my diet.": The client should not eliminate dairy products from the diet because dairy foods might be easier to tolerate than other foods. 19. A nurse is reviewing the results of a nonstress test for a client who is at 37 weeks of gestation. Which of the following findings indicates a reactive nonstress test? a. Fetal heart rate (FHR) accelerations occur with fetal movement: A nonstresstest measures the response of the FHR to fetal movement. Accelerations of the FHR with fetal movement are a reassuring sign of fetal well-being. b. Late decelerations of the FHR occur with contractions: Late decelerations of the FHR with contractions are an indication of fetal compromise due to uteroplacental insufficiency. Late decelerationsrequire further evaluation. c. Variable decelerations of the FHR with uterine contractions: Variable decelerations of the FHR with uterine contractions might indicate fetal compromise due to a disruption in the oxygen supply to the fetus. Variable decelerations require further evaluation. d. FHR pattern with minimal variability: Minimal variability of the FHR can indicate fetal compromise from fetal hypoxemia and metabolic academia, neurologic injury, or CNS depression. Minimal variability of the FHR requires further evaluation. 20. A nurse is assessing a client who has preeclampsia and received a dose of calcium gluconate to treat magnesium sulfate toxicity. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication that calcium gluconate was effective? a. Respiratory rate 12/min: The nurse should identify that respiratory depression is a manifestation of magnesium sulfate toxicity. A respiratory rate of 12/min is within the expected reference range of 12 to 20/min. Therefore, this finding is an indication that calcium gluconate was effective. b. Absent deep tendon reflexes: The nurse should identify that absent deep tendon reflexes is a manifestation of magnesium sulfate toxicity. Therefore, this finding does not indicate that calcium gluconate was effective. Other manifestations of magnesium sulfate toxicity include respiratory depression, blurred vision, decreased consciousness, and cardiac arrest. c. Slurred speech: The nurse should identify that slurred speech is a manifestation of magnesium sulfate toxicity. Therefore, this finding does not indicate that calcium gluconate was effective. Other manifestations of magnesium sulfate toxicity include respiratory depression, blurred vision, decreased consciousness, and cardiac arrest. d. Urine output 22 mL/hr: The nurse should identify that preeclampsia decreases perfusion to organs and tissues. Decreased renal perfusion reduces the glomerular filtration rate which causes oliguria, or urine output less than 25 mL/hr. Decreased renal perfusion increases the risk for magnesium toxicity. Therefore, the nurse should identify urinary output of 22 mL/hr as a manifestation of preeclampsia that increases the risk of magnesium toxicity. 21. A nurse is caring for a group of clients who are postpartum. Which of the following clients is at an increased risk for a fall? a. A client who has an indwelling urinary catheter : The nurse should identify that a client who has an indwelling urinary catheter is at an increased risk for a fall. The client's required medical interventions, such as IVs and urinary catheters, increase the risk for falls from tripping over tubing. The nurse should assist the client when getting out of bed and ambulating to prevent an injury from a fall. b. A client who has a second-degree perineal laceration: The nurse should identify that a second-degree perineal laceration does not increase the client's risk for a fall. A second-degree laceration extends through the perineal fascia and muscles but does not involve the anal sphincter. c. A client who is saturating a perineal pad every 5 to 6 hr: The nurse should identify that a client who is saturating a perineal pad every 5 to 6 hr is not at an increased risk for a fall. A client who saturates a perineal pad in less than 1 hr is experiencing excessive vaginal bleeding and might be experiencing a postpartum hemorrhage. Excessive bleeding can cause dizziness and syncope, which increases the risk for a fall. d. A client who is experiencing breast engorgement: The nurse should identify that a client who is experiencing breast engorgement is not at an increased risk for a fall. Breast engorgement occurs 3 to 5 days following birth due to significantly increased volume of breast milk. Engorgement usually lasts approximately 24 hr and can be relieved by breastfeeding or pumping the breasts every 2 hr. 22. A nurse is caring for a client who received terbutaline subcutaneously. Which of the following findings is an indication the medication was effective? a. Cervical dilation 4 cm: Terbutaline is a tocolytic medication that is used to halt preterm labor by causing relaxation of smooth muscle. Cervical dilation of 4 cm indicatesthe client isin active labor. Therefore, the nurse should not identify this finding as an indication that terbutaline was effective. b. Heart rate 108/min: Terbutaline is a tocolytic medication that is used to halt preterm labor by causing relaxation of smooth muscle. Tachycardia is an expected adverse effect of terbutaline. Therefore, the nurse should identify a heart rate of 108/min as an adverse effect of the medication. c. Lecithin sphingomyelin (L/S) ratio 2:1: Terbutaline is a tocolytic medication that is used to halt preterm labor by causing relaxation of smooth muscle. It has no effect on the production of lecithin or sphingomyelin. Lecithin and sphingomyelin are phospholipids found in fetal lungs. An L/S ratio of 2:1 indicatesfetal lung maturity. Therefore, the nurse should identify that an L/S ratio of 2:1 is unrelated to terbutaline. d. Decreased frequency of contractions: Terbutaline is a tocolytic medication that is used to halt preterm labor. Terbutaline causesrelaxation ofsmooth muscle, which decreases uterine activity. Therefore, the nurse should identify that a decrease in frequency of contractions is an indication that terbutaline was effective. 23. A nurse is admitting a client who is at 39 weeks of gestation and in active labor. The client reports being positive for group B streptococcus (GBS) when screened at 36 weeks of gestation. Which of the following actions should the nurse expect to take? a. Prepare for a cesarean birth.: A client who is GBS positive does not require a cesarean birth. b. Administer IV antibiotic prophylaxis.: To decrease the risk of the neonate contracting a GBS infection, it is recommended that pregnant clients who test positive for GBS receive antibiotics during labor. c. Obtain a vaginal culture.: There is no indication to obtain a vaginal culture. d. Administer metronidazole orally.: Metronidazole 500 mg PO twice daily isthe expected treatment for bacterial vaginosis. 24. A charge nurse is providing teaching to a newly licensed nurse who is caring for a client who has postpartum hemorrhagic shock. Which of the following statements should the charge nurse make? a. "Manifestations of shock might not appear until a client loses 20% of their blood volume.": The charge nurse should include that manifestations of shock might not appear until a client has lost 30% to 40% of their blood volume. Compensatory mechanisms inhibit a significant decrease in the client's blood pressure. Manifestations of hemorrhagic shock include tachycardia, tachypnea, cool, clammy skin, and decreasing urinary output. b. "Hemorrhagic shock will cause an increase in a client's serum pH level.": The charge nurse should include that hemorrhagic shock will cause acidosis, or a decrease in the client's serum pH level. Cellular hypoxia causes an accumulation of lactic acid, leading to acidosis. Without treatment, cellular death will occur. c. "The most accurate indication of organ perfusion is a client's urine output.": The charge nurse should include that the most accurate indication of organ perfusion is the client's urine output. Output greater than 30 mL/hr is an indication of adequate perfusion and oxygenation. d. "An infusion of 1 mL of lactated Ringer's is given for each 1 mL of blood loss.": The charge nurse should include that 3 mL of a crystalloid solution, such as lactated Ringer's or 0.9% sodium chloride, should be infused for every 1 mL of estimated blood loss. 25. A nurse is performing a contraction stress test (CST) on a client who is at 40 weeks of gestation. The results of the test indicate a negative CST. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? a. Repeat the CST in 20 min.: Repeating the CST in 20 min is not indicated for a CST that indicates a negative result. A pattern of intermittent late decelerations indicate a positive CST. The testshould be repeated when fewerthan half of the contractions lead to late decelerations. b. Administer an IV fluid bolus.: Administering an IV fluid bolus is not indicated for a CST that indicates a negative result. c. Prepare the client for cesarean birth.: Preparing the client for cesarean birth is not indicated for a CST that indicates a negative result. d. Allow the labor to progress naturally.: The absence of late decelerations (a negative result) indicates that the fetus will probably tolerate labor; therefore, the nurse should allow the labor to progress naturally. 26. A nurse is monitoring a client who is in the active phase of labor and has an intrauterine pressure catheter and fetal scalp electrode. Which of the following findingsshould the nurse expect? a. Uterine contractions every 15 min: The nurse should expect contractions to occur every 3 to 5 min for a client who is in the active phase of labor. The contractions are moderate to strong in intensity and last approximately 40 to 70 seconds. During the latent phase of labor, contractions occur every 5 to 30 min. b. FHR baseline 166/min with minimal variability: The nurse should identify that an FHR of 166/min is above the expected reference range of 110 to 160/min and indicatestachycardia. Fetal tachycardia can indicate fetal hypoxemia, maternal fever or infection, and fetal anemia. Minimal variability is also an indication of fetal hypoxemia and can be caused by congenital abnormalities in the fetus, maternal use of CNS depressant medications, and fetal prematurity. Fetal sleep can also cause a temporary and harmless decrease in variability, which should last no more than 30 min. c. Late decelerationsin FHR: The nurse should identify that late decelerations can indicate uteroplacental insufficiency or a disruption in the oxygen transport to the fetus. Late decelerations can be caused by maternal hypotension, uterine tachysystole, preeclampsia, or maternal diabetes. The nurse should place the client in a lateral position, palpate the uterus for tachysystole, increase the rate of the maintenance IV fluid, administer oxygen at 8 to 10 L/min via nonrebreather face mask, and notify the provider. d. Montevideo units (MVU) of 220 mm Hg: The nurse should identify that an MVU of 220 mm Hg is within the expected range during the active phase of labor. MVUs generally range between 100 to 250 mm Hg during the first stage of labor and increase to 300 to 400 mm Hg during the second stage of labor. MVUs are calculated by subtracting the baseline uterine pressure from the peak contraction pressure for every contraction that occurs during a 10-min period. The nurse then adds the pressure produced by each contraction during that time to determine the MVUs. 27. A nurse is caring for a 2-day-old newborn who has a bilirubin level of 14 mg/dL and is to begin phototherapy. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? a. Give glucose water after feedings.: Glucose water should not be given to newborns who are prescribed phototherapy, because it delays bilirubin excretion. b. Instruct the client to avoid breastfeeding during treatment.: The client can continue breastfeeding while the newborn is prescribed phototherapy and can also be asked to pump the breast following the feeding for supplementary breast milk. c. Monitor intake and output.: The nurse should monitor intake and output because phototherapy can increase the rate of insensible water loss, which contributes to fluid loss and dehydration. The nurse should also monitor the newborn's fontanels. Hydration is achieved by breastfeeding or formula feeding the newborn. d. Apply lotions and ointments throughout the treatment.: The nurse should avoid applying lotions and ointments to newborns who are receiving phototherapy because it can cause burns. 28. A nurse is monitoring a client who is receiving oxytocin to augment labor and observes a pattern of late decelerations on the fetal monitor tracing. Which of the following actions isthe nurse's priority? a. Discontinue oxytocin.: The nurse should discontinue oxytocin because it can impede oxygen transfer to the fetus; however, evidence-based practice indicates that another action is the priority. b. Increase IV fluid rate.: The nurse should administer a bolus of IV fluid to treat maternal hypotension; however, evidence-based practice indicates that another action is the priority. c. Position the client laterally.: Late decelerations occur because of uteroplacental insufficiency. According to evidence-based practice, the priority action the nurse should take isto first position the client in a lateral position to improve oxygenation to the fetus. d. Administer oxygen via facemask at 8 L/min.: The nurse should administer oxygen via nonrebreather facemask at 8 to 10 L/min to improve oxygenation and treat uteroplacental insufficiency; however, evidence-based practice indicates that another action is the priority. 29. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 30 weeks of gestation and observes the client choking while eating lunch. The client is unable to speak or cough. Identify the sequence of steps the nurse should take to clear the airway obstruction. (Move the steps into the box on the right, placing them in the order of performance. Use all the steps.) • Stand posterior to the client. • Position arms under the client's axilla and across the client's chest. • Place thumb-side of a clenched fist to the client's mid-sternum area. • Initiate chest thrusts to the client using a backward motion. An obstructed airway requires immediate intervention. According to the American Heart Association's guidelines, the nurse should first stand posterior to the client. Next, the nurse should position their arms under the client's axilla and across the client's chest. Then, the nurse should place the thumb-side of a clenched fist to the client's mid-sternum area and place the other hand on top of the first. Lastly, the nurse should initiate chest thrusts to the client using a backward motion. If the client becomes unconscious, the nurse should perform CPR and activate emergency medical services. 30. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is at 8 weeks of gestation. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a risk factor for developing preeclampsia? a. Cholelithiasis: Cholelithiasis, or the presence of gallstones in the gallbladder, does not increase a client's risk for preeclampsia. The incidence of cholelithiasis increases during pregnancy due to the increase in hormones and a decrease in drainage of the gallbladder from pressure of the enlarged uterus. b. Singleton pregnancy: A singleton pregnancy does not increase a client's risk for preeclampsia. Multifetal pregnancy does increase a client's risk for development of the disorder. c. Rheumatoid arthritis: The presence of a connective tissue disease, such as rheumatoid arthritis or systemic lupus erythematosus, increases a client's risk for developing preeclampsia. d. Anemia: Anemia does not increase a client's risk for preeclampsia. Anemia affects up to 52% of pregnant women and increases the risk of postpartum complications, including infection. 31. A nurse is teaching a new guardian how to correctly use a car seat. Which of the following statements by the guardian indicates an understanding of the teaching? a. "I should keep my baby in a rear-facing car seat until he is 2 years old.": The client should keep the newborn in a rear-facing car seat until age 2 or until the child reaches the maximum height and weight for the seat. b. "I should strap my baby in the seat with a four-point harness.": The nurse should teach the client about using a fivepoint harness. It consists of two shoulder straps, two hip straps, and a crotch strap. This kind of harness helps to prevent the newborn from becoming dislodged during a collision. c. "I should place the shoulder harness in the slots above my baby's shoulders.": The client should place the shoulder harness in the slots at or below the level of the newborn's shoulders. d. "I should position my baby's car seat at a 30-degree angle.": The client should position the car seat at a 45° angle. This position keeps the newborn from slumping and causing airway obstruction. 32. A nurse is completing a health history and assessment for a client who reports they are pregnant. Which of the following findings is a presumptive sign of pregnancy? a. Positive pregnancy test: A positive serum or urine pregnancy test is a probable sign of pregnancy. False positive results can occur for many reasons, such as the use of medications, liver disease, substance use, and hormone-producing tumors. b. Amenorrhea: A client can present with amenorrhea for a variety of reasons besides pregnancy; therefore, the nurse should consider it a presumptive sign of pregnancy. c. Fetal heart sounds: The presence of a fetal heart tone is a positive sign of pregnancy. The nurse should be able to auscultate fetal heart tones by Doppler stethoscope at 8 to 17 weeks of gestation. d. Chadwick sign: Chadwick sign, which is the bluish coloration of the cervix and vaginal mucosa, is a probable sign of pregnancy. 33. A nurse is providing client teaching regarding an intrauterine device (IUD). Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching? (Select all that apply.) a. "You might have to have cultures for sexually transmitted infections prior to placement of the device" is correct. If the provider determines the client is at risk for sexually transmitted infectionsthey might require the collection of culturesforsexually transmitted infections prior to the placement of an IUD. b. "The device will have to be replaced every 2 years" is incorrect. An IUD can be effective against pregnancy for 3 to 10 years, depending on the device the provider uses. c. "You might experience irregularspotting the first few months after placement of the device" is correct. The client might experience irregular spotting during the first few months after placement of the IUD. d. "You will need to avoid using tampons during menstrual cycles" is incorrect. Clients who have an IUD can continue to use tampons during menstrual cycles. e. "You will need to sign informed consent prior to the procedure" is correct. The nurse should obtain informed consent prior to placement of the IUD. 34. A nurse is teaching routine prenatal care to a group of clients who are pregnant. Which of the following statements by a client indicates an understanding of the teaching? a. "I will be able to hear my baby's heart beat when I am 6 weeks pregnant.": Toward the end of the first trimester, or at about 10 to 12 weeks of gestation, the provider can typically auscultate the fetal heart tones when using a Doppler stethoscope. An ordinary stethoscope can be used to detect the fetal heart rate after 18 to 20 weeks of gestation. b. "I will have monthly prenatal visits for the first 28 weeks of pregnancy.": For prenatal care, the initial visit should occur in the first trimester with monthly visits through week 28, and every 2 weeks until week 36, and then every week until the birth of the newborn. c. "I will have a complete blood count performed at each prenatal visit.": A complete blood count (CBC) is not performed at each prenatal visit; however, the nurse should obtain a CBC from the client during the initial prenatal visit to assess for anemia and infection. d. "I will have a blood test to check for neural tube defects when I am 32 weeks pregnant.": A maternal serum alphafetoprotein (MSAFP) blood test screening is recommended to be obtained between 15 and 20 weeks of gestation. A low level of MSAFP is associated with the presence of a chromosomal abnormality, such as trisomy 18 or trisomy 21 (Down syndrome) in the fetus. An elevated level is associated with open neural tube defects, such as spina bifida and anencephaly, or the presence of multiple gestations. 35. A client who is in active labor is admitted t