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NR-511 Week 7 Quiz (GRADED A) Questions and Answers | Chamberlain University College of Nursing

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Chamberlain University College of NursingQuestion: A 15-year-old male comes to the clinic in acute distress with “belly pain.” When obtaining his history, the nurse practitioner (NP) finds that he fell off his bike this morning and has vomited. Upon closer examination, the NP determines the belly pain to be left-sided groin pain or pain in his left testicle. He is afebrile and reports nodysuria. Which of the following diagnoses is most likely? Question: A 32-year-old male appears with a rapid onset of unilateral scrotal pain radiating up to the groin and flank. The nurse practitioner is trying to differentiate between epididymitis and testicular torsion. Which test should be the provider’s first choice? Question: A 32-year-old male presents with complaints of a scrotal mass; however, the scrotum is so edematous that it is difficult to assess. How would the nurse practitioner (NP) best determine whether the condition is a hernia or a hydrocele? Question: A 62-year-old male has a low International Prostate Symptom Score for lower urinary tract symptoms … with his benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). The nurse practitioner should recommend: Question: Regular testicular self-exams have not been … enough to show if they lower the risk of dying from testicular cancer. This is why the American Cancer Society and other agencies do not have a recommendation about regular testicular self-exams for all men. Still, some practitioners do recommend that all men examine their testicles monthly after reaching puberty. In teaching a patient how to do a testicular self-examination, which of the following should the clinician advise? Question: A 72-year-old … , sexually active man, presents to the clinic with complaints of hesitancy, urgency, and occasional … dribbling. Although the nurse practitioner suspects benign prostatic hyperplasia, what else should the differential diagnosis include? Question: A male patient presents to the clinic for evaluation of infertility. Subjectively, the patient complains of pain and fullness of the testes and states, “My testicles feel like a bag of worms.” On physical examination, the nurse practitioner notes tortuous veins posterior to and above the testes that extend up into the external inguinal ring. Based on the preceding assessment, the nurse practitioner refers the patient to urology with a diagnosis of: Question: A 52-year-old male patient is in a new relationship and is not sure whether hiserectile dysfunction is organic or is … by stress about his performance. What simple test could the clinician suggest to determine if he has the ability to have anerection? Question: A 72-year-old male presents to the office for follow-up of several episodes of orthostatic hypotension. After obtaining a review of systems and a digital rectal examination, it also appears that he has benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) with lower urinary tract symptoms. The nurse practitioner reviews his recent ultrasound evaluation, which reports a prostate volume of over 40 mL, and the results of the American Urological Association (AUA) symptom index for BPH, which shows his score to be 12. Based on the preceding information and the patient’s desire for noninvasive medical therapy, what management should he … offered? Question: A patient’s chief complaint is pain and heaviness in the scrotum. The nurse practitioner notes swelling of the testes, along with warm scrotal skin. Which of the following diagnoses is mostprobable? Question: A 63-year-old man presents to your office with hematuria, hesitancy, and dribbling. Digital rectal examination (DRE) reveals a smooth, moderately … prostate. The client’s prostate-specific antigen (PSA) is 1.2. What is the most appropriate management strategy at this time? Question: Apatient is being … for erectile dysfunction. The patient is morbidly obese and is also being … for a coagulopathy. Which of the following medications would … ? Question: A 54-year-old male is complaining of erectile dysfunction. He also has a condition that has reduced arterial blood flow to his penis. The most common cause of this condition is: Question: A 58-year-old male has been … with erectile dysfunction and says that a friend told him about a method that uses a constricting ring around the base of the penis. What is he referring to? Question: A 51-year-old male requests a prescription for sildenafil (Viagra). He says that the only medication he takes is isosorbide mononitrate (Monoket) oral tablets and that he has diabetes which is … with diet alone. What should the nurse practitioner tell him? Show Less

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NR-511 Week 7 Quiz
Attempt Time Score

LATEST Attempt 1 13 minutes 15 out of 15
Score for this quiz: 15 out of 15
Submitted Jun 16 at 10:40am
This attempt took 13 minutes.

Question 1
pts
A 15-year-old male comes to the clinic in acute distress with “belly pain.” When
obtaining his history, the nurse practitioner (NP) finds that he fell off his bike this
morning and has vomited. Upon closer examination, the NP determines the belly pain to
be left-sided groin pain or pain in his left testicle. He is afebrile and reports no dysuria.
Which of the following diagnoses is most likely?



Testicular torsion.



Hydrocele.



Epididymitis.



Varicocele.

Testicular torsion is a condition in which the testis twists on the spermatic cord, thereby
compromising blood flow to the testicle. This is a surgical emergency. Examination
usually reveals a tender scrotal mass high in the hemiscrotum, and there is frequently a
reactive hydrocele around the testis, obscuring anatomical detail. The scrotum can
become erythematous and edematous. The cremasteric reflex is frequently blunted on
the side of the torsion.


Question 2

, pts
A 32-year-old male appears with a rapid onset of unilateral scrotal pain radiating up to
the groin and flank. The nurse practitioner is trying to differentiate between epididymitis
and testicular torsion. Which test should be the provider’s first choice?



Ultrasound.



Technetium scan.



X-ray.



Physical examination.

If your client has a rapid onset of unilateral scrotal pain radiating up to the groin and
flank and you are trying to differentiate between epididymitis and testicular torsion, an
ultrasound is useful for determining whether the swelling is in the testis or the
epididymis and should be your first choice.


Question 3
pts
A 32-year-old male presents with complaints of a scrotal mass; however, the scrotum is
so edematous that it is difficult to assess. How would the nurse practitioner (NP) best
determine whether the condition is a hernia or a hydrocele?


The NP can always return a hernia’s contents to the abdominal cavity.




Bowel sounds may be heard over a hernia.



The NP can transilluminate a hernia.



With a hydrocele, a bulge appears on straining.

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