NURS-6630-FINAL-EXAM LATEST VERSION
2021
, Attempt Score 72 out of 75 points
Time Elapsed 1 hour, 15 minutes out of 2 hours
Results Displayed Submitted Answers
Question 1
1 out of 1 points
What will the PMHNP most likely prescribe to a patient with psychotic aggression who needs to manage
the top-down cortical control and the excessive drive from striatal hyperactivity?
Selected Answer: C.
Antipsychotics
Question 2
1 out of 1 points
The PMHNP is selecting a medication treatment option for a patient who is exhibiting psychotic
behaviors with poor impulse control and aggression. Of the available treatments, which can help temper
some of the adverse effects or symptoms that are normally caused by D2 antagonism?
Selected Answer: D.
Second-generation, atypical antipsychotics
Question 3
1 out of 1 points
The PMHNP is discussing dopamine D2 receptor occupancy and its association with aggressive behaviors
in patients with the student. Why does the PMHNP prescribe a standard dose of atypical antipsychotics?
Selected Answer: C.
The doses are based on achieving 60% D2 receptor occupancy.
Question 4
1 out of 1 points
Why does the PMHNP avoid prescribing clozapine (Clozaril) as a first-line treatment to the patient with
psychosis and aggression?
Selected Answer: A.
There is too high a risk of serious adverse side effects.
Question 5
1 out of 1 points
The PMHNP is caring for a patient on risperidone (Risperdal). Which action made by the PMHNP
exhibits proper care for this patient? </p?
Selected Answer: C.
Titrating the dose by increasing it every 5–7 days
Question 6
1 out of 1 points
The PMHNP wants to prescribe Mr. Barber a mood stabilizer that will target aggressive and impulsive
2021
, Attempt Score 72 out of 75 points
Time Elapsed 1 hour, 15 minutes out of 2 hours
Results Displayed Submitted Answers
Question 1
1 out of 1 points
What will the PMHNP most likely prescribe to a patient with psychotic aggression who needs to manage
the top-down cortical control and the excessive drive from striatal hyperactivity?
Selected Answer: C.
Antipsychotics
Question 2
1 out of 1 points
The PMHNP is selecting a medication treatment option for a patient who is exhibiting psychotic
behaviors with poor impulse control and aggression. Of the available treatments, which can help temper
some of the adverse effects or symptoms that are normally caused by D2 antagonism?
Selected Answer: D.
Second-generation, atypical antipsychotics
Question 3
1 out of 1 points
The PMHNP is discussing dopamine D2 receptor occupancy and its association with aggressive behaviors
in patients with the student. Why does the PMHNP prescribe a standard dose of atypical antipsychotics?
Selected Answer: C.
The doses are based on achieving 60% D2 receptor occupancy.
Question 4
1 out of 1 points
Why does the PMHNP avoid prescribing clozapine (Clozaril) as a first-line treatment to the patient with
psychosis and aggression?
Selected Answer: A.
There is too high a risk of serious adverse side effects.
Question 5
1 out of 1 points
The PMHNP is caring for a patient on risperidone (Risperdal). Which action made by the PMHNP
exhibits proper care for this patient? </p?
Selected Answer: C.
Titrating the dose by increasing it every 5–7 days
Question 6
1 out of 1 points
The PMHNP wants to prescribe Mr. Barber a mood stabilizer that will target aggressive and impulsive
