OB NCLEX Style Practice Questions and
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The doctor suspects that the client has an ectopic pregnancy. Which symptom is
consistent with a diagnosis of ectopic pregnancy?
a. Painless vaginal bleeding
b. Abdominal cramping
c. Throbbing pain in the upper quadrant
d. Sudden, stabbing pain in the lower quadrant Correct answer- Answer D is correct.
The signs of an ectopic pregnancy are vague until the fallopian tube ruptures. The client
will complain of sudden, stabbing pain in the lower quadrant that radiates down the leg
or up into the chest. Painless vaginal bleeding is a sign of placenta previa, abdominal
cramping is a sign of labor, and throbbing pain in the upper quadrant is not a sign of an
ectopic pregnancy, making answers A, B, and C incorrect.
A client telephones the emergency room stating that she thinks that she is in labor. The
nurse should tell the client that labor has probably begun when:
a. Her contractions are 2 minutes apart.
b. She has back pain and a bloody discharge.
c. She experiences abdominal pain and frequent urination.
d. Her contractions are 5 minutes apart. Correct answer- Answer D is correct.
The client should be advised to come to the labor and delivery unit when the
contractions are every 5 minutes and consistent. She should also be told to report to the
hospital if she experiences rupture of membranes or extreme bleeding. She should not
wait until the contractions are every 2 minutes or until she has bloody discharge, so
answers A and B are incorrect. Answer C is a vague answer and can be related to a
urinary tract infection
Which of the following instructions should be included in the nurse's teaching regarding
oral contraceptives?
a. Weight gain should be reported to the physician.
b. An alternate method of birth control is needed when taking antibiotics.
c. If the client misses one or more pills, two pills should be taken per day for 1 week.
,d. Changes in the menstrual flow should be reported to the physician. Correct answer-
Answer B is correct.
When the client is taking oral contraceptives and begins antibiotics, another method of
birth control should be used. Antibiotics decrease the effectiveness of oral
contraceptives. Approximately 5-10 pounds of weight gain is not unusual, so answer A
is incorrect. If the client misses a birth control pill, she should be instructed to take the
pill as soon as she remembers the pill. Answer C is incorrect. If she misses two, she
should take two; if she misses more than two, she should take the missed pills but use
another method of birth control for the remainder of the cycle. Answer D is incorrect
because changes in menstrual flow are expected in clients using oral contraceptives.
Often these clients have lighter menses.
A nursing instructor is conducting lecture and is reviewing the functions of the female
reproductive system. She asks Mark to describe the follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
and the luteinizing hormone (LH). Mark accurately responds by stating that:
a. FSH and LH are released from the anterior pituitary gland.
b. FSH and LH are secreted by the corpus luteum of the ovary
c. FSH and LH are secreted by the adrenal glands
d. FSH and LH stimulate the formation of milk during pregnancy. Correct answer- a.
FSH and LH are released from the anterior pituitary gland.
FSH and LH, when stimulated by gonadotropin-releasing hormone from the
hypothalamus, are released from the anterior pituitary gland to stimulate follicular
growth and development, growth of the graafian follicle, and production of progesterone.
A woman who's 36 weeks pregnant comes into the labor & delivery unit with mild
contracts. Which of the following complications should the nurse watch out for when the
client informs her that she has placenta prevue?
a. sudden rupture of membranes
b. vaginal bleeding
c. emesis
d. fever Correct answer- b. vaginal bleeding
contractions may disrupt the microvascular network in the placenta of a client with
placenta prevue and result in bleeding. If the separation of the placenta occurs at the
margin of the placenta, the blood will escape vaginally.
Sudden rupture of the membranes isn't related to placenta prevue. Fever would indicate
an infectious process, and emesis isn't related to placenta previa
A 21y.o. client has been diagnosed with hydatidiform mole. Which of the following
factors is considered a risk factor for developing hydatidiform mole?
, 1. age in 20s or 30s
2. high in SES
3. Primigravida
4. prior molar gestation Correct answer- 4.
previous molar gestation increases risk for developing subsequent molar gestation by 4-
5 times. Adolescents and women ages 40+ are at increased risk for molar pregs.
MULTIGRAVIDAS, esp women with prior preg loss, and women with LOWER SES are
at increased risk for this problem.
A 21 y.o. has arrives to the ER with c/o cramping abdominal pain and mild vaginal
bleeding. Pelvic exam shows a left adnexal mass that's tender when palpated.
Culdocentesis shows blood in the culdesac. This client probably has which of the
following conditions?
1. Abruptio placentae
2. Ecoptic pregnancy
3. Hydatidiform mole
4. Pelvic Inflammatory Disease Correct answer- 2. Ecoptic pregnancy
most ecoptic pregnancies dont appear as obvious life threatening med emergencies.
THey must be considered in any sexually active woman of childbearing age who c/o
menstrual irregularity, cramping abdominal pain, and mild vaginal bleeding.
PID, abruptio placentae and hydatidiform moles wont show blood in the cul de sac
A client, 34 weeks pregnant, arrives at the ER with SEVERE abdominal pain, uterine
tenderness and an increased uterine tone. The client denies vaginal bleeding. The
external fetal monitor shows fetal distress with severe, variable decels. The client most
likely has which of the following? Correct answer- 1. Abruptio placentae
a client w/ severe abruptio placentae will often have SEVERE abdominal pain. The
uterus will have increased tone w/ little to no return to resting tone btw/ contractions.
The fetus will start to show signs of distress, with decels in the HR or even fetal death
w/ large placental separation.
Placenta previa usually involves PAINLESS vaginal bleeding w/out UCs.
A molar preg. generally would be detected before 34 weeks gestation.
An ecoptic preg. which usually occurs in the FALLOPIAN TUBES, would rupture well
before 34 weeks gestation
Before the placenta functions, the corpus luteum is the primary source for synthesis of
which of the following hormones?
Answers Latest 2022/2023(100%
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The doctor suspects that the client has an ectopic pregnancy. Which symptom is
consistent with a diagnosis of ectopic pregnancy?
a. Painless vaginal bleeding
b. Abdominal cramping
c. Throbbing pain in the upper quadrant
d. Sudden, stabbing pain in the lower quadrant Correct answer- Answer D is correct.
The signs of an ectopic pregnancy are vague until the fallopian tube ruptures. The client
will complain of sudden, stabbing pain in the lower quadrant that radiates down the leg
or up into the chest. Painless vaginal bleeding is a sign of placenta previa, abdominal
cramping is a sign of labor, and throbbing pain in the upper quadrant is not a sign of an
ectopic pregnancy, making answers A, B, and C incorrect.
A client telephones the emergency room stating that she thinks that she is in labor. The
nurse should tell the client that labor has probably begun when:
a. Her contractions are 2 minutes apart.
b. She has back pain and a bloody discharge.
c. She experiences abdominal pain and frequent urination.
d. Her contractions are 5 minutes apart. Correct answer- Answer D is correct.
The client should be advised to come to the labor and delivery unit when the
contractions are every 5 minutes and consistent. She should also be told to report to the
hospital if she experiences rupture of membranes or extreme bleeding. She should not
wait until the contractions are every 2 minutes or until she has bloody discharge, so
answers A and B are incorrect. Answer C is a vague answer and can be related to a
urinary tract infection
Which of the following instructions should be included in the nurse's teaching regarding
oral contraceptives?
a. Weight gain should be reported to the physician.
b. An alternate method of birth control is needed when taking antibiotics.
c. If the client misses one or more pills, two pills should be taken per day for 1 week.
,d. Changes in the menstrual flow should be reported to the physician. Correct answer-
Answer B is correct.
When the client is taking oral contraceptives and begins antibiotics, another method of
birth control should be used. Antibiotics decrease the effectiveness of oral
contraceptives. Approximately 5-10 pounds of weight gain is not unusual, so answer A
is incorrect. If the client misses a birth control pill, she should be instructed to take the
pill as soon as she remembers the pill. Answer C is incorrect. If she misses two, she
should take two; if she misses more than two, she should take the missed pills but use
another method of birth control for the remainder of the cycle. Answer D is incorrect
because changes in menstrual flow are expected in clients using oral contraceptives.
Often these clients have lighter menses.
A nursing instructor is conducting lecture and is reviewing the functions of the female
reproductive system. She asks Mark to describe the follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
and the luteinizing hormone (LH). Mark accurately responds by stating that:
a. FSH and LH are released from the anterior pituitary gland.
b. FSH and LH are secreted by the corpus luteum of the ovary
c. FSH and LH are secreted by the adrenal glands
d. FSH and LH stimulate the formation of milk during pregnancy. Correct answer- a.
FSH and LH are released from the anterior pituitary gland.
FSH and LH, when stimulated by gonadotropin-releasing hormone from the
hypothalamus, are released from the anterior pituitary gland to stimulate follicular
growth and development, growth of the graafian follicle, and production of progesterone.
A woman who's 36 weeks pregnant comes into the labor & delivery unit with mild
contracts. Which of the following complications should the nurse watch out for when the
client informs her that she has placenta prevue?
a. sudden rupture of membranes
b. vaginal bleeding
c. emesis
d. fever Correct answer- b. vaginal bleeding
contractions may disrupt the microvascular network in the placenta of a client with
placenta prevue and result in bleeding. If the separation of the placenta occurs at the
margin of the placenta, the blood will escape vaginally.
Sudden rupture of the membranes isn't related to placenta prevue. Fever would indicate
an infectious process, and emesis isn't related to placenta previa
A 21y.o. client has been diagnosed with hydatidiform mole. Which of the following
factors is considered a risk factor for developing hydatidiform mole?
, 1. age in 20s or 30s
2. high in SES
3. Primigravida
4. prior molar gestation Correct answer- 4.
previous molar gestation increases risk for developing subsequent molar gestation by 4-
5 times. Adolescents and women ages 40+ are at increased risk for molar pregs.
MULTIGRAVIDAS, esp women with prior preg loss, and women with LOWER SES are
at increased risk for this problem.
A 21 y.o. has arrives to the ER with c/o cramping abdominal pain and mild vaginal
bleeding. Pelvic exam shows a left adnexal mass that's tender when palpated.
Culdocentesis shows blood in the culdesac. This client probably has which of the
following conditions?
1. Abruptio placentae
2. Ecoptic pregnancy
3. Hydatidiform mole
4. Pelvic Inflammatory Disease Correct answer- 2. Ecoptic pregnancy
most ecoptic pregnancies dont appear as obvious life threatening med emergencies.
THey must be considered in any sexually active woman of childbearing age who c/o
menstrual irregularity, cramping abdominal pain, and mild vaginal bleeding.
PID, abruptio placentae and hydatidiform moles wont show blood in the cul de sac
A client, 34 weeks pregnant, arrives at the ER with SEVERE abdominal pain, uterine
tenderness and an increased uterine tone. The client denies vaginal bleeding. The
external fetal monitor shows fetal distress with severe, variable decels. The client most
likely has which of the following? Correct answer- 1. Abruptio placentae
a client w/ severe abruptio placentae will often have SEVERE abdominal pain. The
uterus will have increased tone w/ little to no return to resting tone btw/ contractions.
The fetus will start to show signs of distress, with decels in the HR or even fetal death
w/ large placental separation.
Placenta previa usually involves PAINLESS vaginal bleeding w/out UCs.
A molar preg. generally would be detected before 34 weeks gestation.
An ecoptic preg. which usually occurs in the FALLOPIAN TUBES, would rupture well
before 34 weeks gestation
Before the placenta functions, the corpus luteum is the primary source for synthesis of
which of the following hormones?
