NR 603 Week 4 APEA Predictor Exam Review Questions 70 pages

NR 603 Week 4 APEA Predictor Exam Review Questions 70 pages 1 There are three stages of Lyme Disease. Stage 1 is known for: fever, chills, myalgia and erythema migrans Stage 2 is known for: fatigue, migratory arthralgia and cranial nerve palsies Stage 3 is known for: memory, sleep and mood problems Correct Answer: ... TB drugs can cause body fluids to Correct Answer: have an orange tinge The nurse practitioner knows that medical management for a brown recluse spider bite includes: Correct Answer: Amoxicillin-clavulanate (Augmentin) is an excellent choice for empiric treatment of animal bites. Taldalafil (Cialis) and vardenafil (Levitra) are oral treatments for Correct Answer: ED incidence Correct Answer: # of new cases prevalence Correct Answer: # of all cases Mupirocin and oral erythromycin are superior to penicillin as a treatment for impetigo. When there are numerous lesions, patients should receive oral antimicrobials. Correct Answer: ... A low fever is an oral reading of 99° to 100.4° F. A moderate fever is an oral reading of 100.5° to 104° F. A high fever is an oral reading of 104° F and more. Correct Answer: ... Children with positive H. pylori are at risk for development of gastric cancer. They should be followed closely. Correct Answer: ... don't use lindane for tx of lice in infants and children Correct Answer: neurotoxic effects can use permethin for lice Correct Answer: ... The flat, large, dark ink to purple stain-like lesions occurring in irregular shapes and sizes are nevus flammeus or "port wine" stains. A large lesion located on half the facial area may be a sign of trigeminal nerve involvement and Sturge-Weber Syndrome (a neurological disorder). Correct Answer: ... Primary open-angle glaucoma has a gradual onset of increased IOP due to blockage of drainage of the aqueous humor. The optic nerve undergoes ischemic damage resulting in permanent visual loss. It is the most common type of glaucoma and is most commonly seen in elderly patients, especially those of African background or diabetics. Correct Answer: ... Patients with CHF who have been prescribed a diuretic should be see every 1 - 2 weeks until they are symptom free. After that they should be seen every 3 - 6 months. Correct Answer: ... increased hydrostatic pressure Correct Answer: pulmonary edema normal cap refill Correct Answer: 2 Mitral stenosis typically results from rheumatic fever or strep. Correct Answer: ... NGASR The Nurses Global Assessment Risk for Suicide (NGASR) assesses a patient's suicide risk Correct Answer: ... Jarisch-Herxheimer Reaction Correct Answer: The sudden massive destruction of spirochetes after a Penicillin G injection causes an immune-mediated reaction that usually resolves spontaneously. Treatment is supportive. Reiter's Syndrome is an immune-mediated reaction secondary to infection with certain bacteria. Fitz-Hugh-Curtis Syndrome is Correct Answer: a result of liver scarring from chlamydial or gonococcal infection. Aplastic anemia Correct Answer: a condition in which the bone marrow does not make enough new blood cells. Bone marrow is the soft, fatty tissue in the center of bones - tx with oxygen and immunosuppressive therapy what is the chart to test for color blindness Correct Answer: Isihara normal finding of Weber Correct Answer: sound does not lateralize painless central vision loss more common in smokers is Correct Answer: macular degeneration Fifth Disease Correct Answer: slapped cheek rash!!!, lacy reticular rash!!! on body, may have fever and/or runny nose - usually in preschool age kids - if pregnant mom gets it, can cause miscarriage - no tx - will go away on own - in adult women who get Fifth Disease, often have joint pain and swelling - most common time to get is spring maculopapular brick red rash that starts in head and neck and spreads to trunk and extremities is Correct Answer: measels (Rubeola) - virus Fifth Disease is also known as Correct Answer: eyrthema infectiosium - virus rubella (German Measles) rash Correct Answer: maculopapular and looks like measles rash of rubeola - will have marked lymphadenopathy Roseola (exanthem subitum) sx Correct Answer: high fever for 2-4 days then abrupt cessation of deer with appearance of macular papular rash but NOT ON FACE - virus - roseola is usually seen in very young children (ages 7-13 months) rash of varicella Correct Answer: is versicular lesions on erythematous base that appear i crops - virus a viral illness that affects kids ages 3-10 with sore throat, oral vesicles, fever Correct Answer: herpangina the ONLY non-blanching rashes are Correct Answer: petichiae and purpura Hand, Foot and Mouth Disease Correct Answer: affects kids ≤ 5 years, fever, oral vesicles on oral mucus membranes, vesicles ulcerate and crust but are not painful, resolves in 2-3 days the 3 Cs of measles (rubeola) are Correct Answer: conjunctivits, coryza (runny nose), and cough - will see Koplik's spots!!! know Koplik's to dx acute OM you must see!! Correct Answer: presence of fluid in middle ear PLUS either systemic sx or middle ear inflammation (erythema) otitis media with effusion is!! Correct Answer: fluid accumulation in middle ear without evidence of infection - does NOT need abx 3 most common bacterial causes of AOM Correct Answer: strep pneumo (#1), h. flu, mox cat once starting abx, fever should resolve when Correct Answer: 48-72 hours The first sign that a male child is experiencing sexual maturation is: Correct Answer: increase in testicular size The test of choice to confirm and assess developmental dysplasia of the hip (DHH) in a 3 month old is: Correct Answer: ultrasound - The primary imaging technique for assessing DHH in the first 3-4 months of life is ultrasound. The biggest limitation is the experience of the ultrasonographer. X-rays are of little benefit in the first few months of life because the femoral head is mostly cartilaginous and unossified. After 3-4 months of age, AP x-rays of the hip are more valuable. The frog leg view of the pelvis provides the lateral view of the femoral heads. During treatment or to confirm reduction post-operatively, a CT may be valuable. A 3 year-old healthy child is diagnosed with pneumonia. He is febrile but in no distress. What is the preferred treatment for him? Correct Answer: Amoxicillin, doses 80-100 mg/kg/d - In this age group, specifically 4 months to 4 years, the most common pathogen is Streptococcus pneumoniae, therefore, amoxicillin is the preferred agent. It is usually chosen first for its efficacy, cost, and tolerability. The higher dose (80-100 mg/kg/d) is chosen because of the prevalence of resistant Streptococcus pneumoniae. Azithromycin would be chosen if an atypical pathogen was suspected. Doxycycline is not an appropriate choice because it has poor Strept coverage and it is contraindicated in children younger than 8 years. A full-term newborn is diagnosed with hyperbilirubinemia. When would his bilirubin level be expected to peak? Correct Answer: In full-term infants, the bilirubin level peaks at 3-4 days. In pre