NURSING MSN570- HESI RN ADVANCED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY EXAM-graded-2022
1. Following routine colonoscopy screening, a client is told that he had several polyps removed.
The client began crying stating, “I just can't deal with cancer. I'm too young.” The nurse responds:
A) “Don't worry. We have some great cancer doctors on staff. I'm sure chemo will help you fight it.”
B) “Maybe if you're lucky, they have stopped it from metastasizing to your liver.”
C) “A simple intestinal surgery will cure you.” D)
“Most colon polyps are not cancerous. The biopsy results will direct your care.
Ans: D Feedback: A polyp is a growth that projects from a mucosal surface, such as the
intestine. Although the term usually implies a benign neoplasm, some malignant tumors also appear
as polyps. Adenomatous polyps are considered precursors to adenocarcinomas of the colon.
2. A lung biopsy and magnetic resonance imaging have confirmed the presence of a benign lung
tumor in a client. Which of the following characteristics is associated with this client's neoplasm?
A) The tumor will grow by expansion and is likely encapsulated.
B) The cells that constitute the tumor are undifferentiated, with atypical structure.
C) If left untreated, the client's tumor is likely to metastasize.
D) The tumor is likely to infiltrate the lung tissue that presently surrounds it.
Ans: A Feedback: Benign neoplasms typically grow by expansion
rather than invasion. As well, they are usually contained within a fibrous capsule. Malignant tumors
are associated with undifferentiated cells, metastasis, and infiltration of surrounding tissue.
3. A newly diagnosed lung cancer client asks how his tumor spread (metastasized) so fast
without displaying many signs/symptoms. The nurse responds that malignant tumors affect area
tissues by:
A) Increasing tissue blood flow B) Providing essential nutrients
C) Liberating enzymes and toxins D) Forming fibrous membranes
Ans: C Feedback: Malignant tumors affect area
tissues by liberating enzymes and toxins that destroy tumor tissue and normal tissue. In addition, the
malignant cells compress area vessels, causing ischemia and tissue necrosis. The high metabolic rate of
tumor growth causes the tumor to deprive the normal tissues of essential nutrients.
4.A client had a positive Pap smear. The surgeon diagnosed “cancer in situ of the cervix.” The client
asks, “What does this mean?” From the following statements, which is most appropriate in response
to this question? The tumor has:
A) Been walled off within a strong fibrous capsule
B) Developed a distant infiltration
C) Not crossed the basement membrane, so it can be surgically removed with little chance of growing
back
D) Grown undifferentiated cells that no longer look like the tissue from which it arose
Ans: C Feedback: Cancer in situ is a localized preinvasive
lesion. As an example, in breast ductal carcinoma, in situ the cells have not crossed the basement
, NURSING MSN570- HESI RN ADVANCED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY EXAM-graded-2022
membrane. Depending on its location, an in situ lesion usually can be removed surgically or treated so
that the chances of recurrence are small. For example, cancer in situ of the cervix is essentially 100%
curable.
5. While studying to become chemo-certified, the nurse reviews some basic concepts about
cancer cells. When a client asks about why the tumor grows so fast, the nurse will respond based on
which of the following physiological principles? Select all that apply.
A) Cancer cells have shorter cell cycle times than normal cells.
B) Cancer cells do not die when they are programmed to die.
C) Growth factors prevents cancer cells from entering resting (G0) cell cycle phase.
D) Cancer cells will reach a balance between cell birth and cell death rate.
E) Cancer cells never reach a flattened growth rate.
Ans: B, C Feedback: One of the reasons cancerous tumors often seem to grow so rapidly
relates to the size of the cell pool that is actively engaged in cycling. It has been shown that the cell
cycle time of cancerous tissue cells is not necessarily shorter than that of normal cells. Rather, cancer
cells do not die on schedule, and growth factors prevent cells from exiting the cell cycle and entering
the G0 or noncycling phase. The ratio of dividing cells to resting cells in a tissue mass is called the
growth fraction. The doubling time is the length of time it takes for the total mass of cells in a tumor
to double. As the growth fraction increases, the doubling time decreases. When normal tissues reach
their adult size, an equilibrium between cell birth and cell death is reached. Cancer cells, however,
continue to divide until limitations in blood supply and nutrients inhibit their growth. When this
occurs, the doubling time for cancer cells decreases. The initial growth rate is exponential and then
tends to decrease or flatten out over time.
6. Although growth rate is variable among types of bacteria, the growth of bacteria is dependent
on:
A) Biofilm communication B) Availability of nutrients C)An intact protein capsid
D) Individual cell motility
Ans: B
Feedback: Bacterial growth is dependent upon the availability of nutrients and physical
growth conditions. Bacteria prefer to colonize as biofilm and communicate with other bacteria within
the biofilm, but biofilm is not necessary for growth. Viruses (not bacteria) form a capsid. Although
some bacteria have projections for motility, these are not necessary for growth.
7. Which of the following outpatients are at a greater risk for developing Treponema pallidum,
the cause of syphilis? Select all that apply.
, NURSING MSN570- HESI RN ADVANCED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY EXAM-graded-2022
A) A homeless adolescent female performing oral sex for money
B) A male who frequents clubs catering to exotic dancers and sexual favors
C) A homosexual male couple who have had a monogamous relationship for the past 20 years
D) An older adult female living in a condominium who regularly has sex with three to four
different men/week
Ans: A, B, D
Feedback:
Treponema pallidum is a sexually transmitted infection that is spread by direct physical
contact. The Borrelia type of spirochete is spread from animals to humans through lice or tick bites.
Leptospira spirochetes spread from animals to humans through contact with infected animal urine.
Spirochetes are anaerobic; therefore, they would not invade the host through oxygen-filled aerobic
lungs.
8. Chlamydiaceae have characteristics of both viruses and bacteria and are a rather common
sexually transmitted infectious organism. After entry into the host, they transform into a reticulate
body. The health care provider should monitor which of the following clients for this possible
infection? Select all that apply.
A) An adult male who raises a number of exotic birds in his home
B) A drug abuser looking to share needles/syringes
C) A newborn with a noticeable eye infection
D) A teenager who swims in the lake regularly
Ans: A, B, C
Feedback:
Chlamydiaceae are in the form of an elementary body when infectious and outside of the host
cell. Once an organism enters the cell, it transforms into a large reticulate body. This undergoes active
replication into multiple elementary bodies, which are then shed into the extracellular environment to
initiate another infectious cycle. Chlamydial diseases of humans include sexually transmitted genital
infections (Chlamydophila trachomatis); ocular infections and pneumonia of newborns (C.
trachomatis); upper and lower respiratory tract infections in children, adolescents, and young adults
(Chlamydophila pneumoniae); and respiratory disease acquired from infected birds (Chlamydophila
psittaci).
, NURSING MSN570- HESI RN ADVANCED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY EXAM-graded-2022
9. A client has been diagnosed with Coxiella burnetii infection. She asked the health care
provider how she could have gotten this disease. The health care provider's best response is:
A) “Probably while walking outside without your shoes on.”
B) “While swimming in an unsanitary pond.”
C) “Drinking contaminated milk.”
D) “Eating undercooked fish.”
Ans: C
Feedback:
In humans, Coxiella infection produces a disease called Q fever, characterized by a nonspecific
febrile illness often accompanied by headache, chills, arthralgias, and mild pneumonia. The organism
produces a highly resistant sporelike stage that is transmitted to humans when contaminated animal
tissue is aerosolized (e.g., during meat processing) or by ingestion of contaminated milk.
10. A teenage male develops a severe case of “athlete's foot.” He asks, “How did I get this?” The
health care worker explains that certain fungi become infectious (called dermatophytes) and exhibit
which of the following characteristics?
A) Prefer to grow in warm environments like shoes/socks
B) Like a moist environment
C) Limited to cooler cutaneous surfaces
D) Need higher blood flow to survive
Ans: C
Feedback:
Dermatophytes are not able to grow at core body temperature, preferring the cooler surface
skin areas instead of moist skin folds. Diseases caused by these organisms, including ringworm,
athlete's foot, and jock itch, are collectively called superficial mycoses.
1. Following routine colonoscopy screening, a client is told that he had several polyps removed.
The client began crying stating, “I just can't deal with cancer. I'm too young.” The nurse responds:
A) “Don't worry. We have some great cancer doctors on staff. I'm sure chemo will help you fight it.”
B) “Maybe if you're lucky, they have stopped it from metastasizing to your liver.”
C) “A simple intestinal surgery will cure you.” D)
“Most colon polyps are not cancerous. The biopsy results will direct your care.
Ans: D Feedback: A polyp is a growth that projects from a mucosal surface, such as the
intestine. Although the term usually implies a benign neoplasm, some malignant tumors also appear
as polyps. Adenomatous polyps are considered precursors to adenocarcinomas of the colon.
2. A lung biopsy and magnetic resonance imaging have confirmed the presence of a benign lung
tumor in a client. Which of the following characteristics is associated with this client's neoplasm?
A) The tumor will grow by expansion and is likely encapsulated.
B) The cells that constitute the tumor are undifferentiated, with atypical structure.
C) If left untreated, the client's tumor is likely to metastasize.
D) The tumor is likely to infiltrate the lung tissue that presently surrounds it.
Ans: A Feedback: Benign neoplasms typically grow by expansion
rather than invasion. As well, they are usually contained within a fibrous capsule. Malignant tumors
are associated with undifferentiated cells, metastasis, and infiltration of surrounding tissue.
3. A newly diagnosed lung cancer client asks how his tumor spread (metastasized) so fast
without displaying many signs/symptoms. The nurse responds that malignant tumors affect area
tissues by:
A) Increasing tissue blood flow B) Providing essential nutrients
C) Liberating enzymes and toxins D) Forming fibrous membranes
Ans: C Feedback: Malignant tumors affect area
tissues by liberating enzymes and toxins that destroy tumor tissue and normal tissue. In addition, the
malignant cells compress area vessels, causing ischemia and tissue necrosis. The high metabolic rate of
tumor growth causes the tumor to deprive the normal tissues of essential nutrients.
4.A client had a positive Pap smear. The surgeon diagnosed “cancer in situ of the cervix.” The client
asks, “What does this mean?” From the following statements, which is most appropriate in response
to this question? The tumor has:
A) Been walled off within a strong fibrous capsule
B) Developed a distant infiltration
C) Not crossed the basement membrane, so it can be surgically removed with little chance of growing
back
D) Grown undifferentiated cells that no longer look like the tissue from which it arose
Ans: C Feedback: Cancer in situ is a localized preinvasive
lesion. As an example, in breast ductal carcinoma, in situ the cells have not crossed the basement
, NURSING MSN570- HESI RN ADVANCED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY EXAM-graded-2022
membrane. Depending on its location, an in situ lesion usually can be removed surgically or treated so
that the chances of recurrence are small. For example, cancer in situ of the cervix is essentially 100%
curable.
5. While studying to become chemo-certified, the nurse reviews some basic concepts about
cancer cells. When a client asks about why the tumor grows so fast, the nurse will respond based on
which of the following physiological principles? Select all that apply.
A) Cancer cells have shorter cell cycle times than normal cells.
B) Cancer cells do not die when they are programmed to die.
C) Growth factors prevents cancer cells from entering resting (G0) cell cycle phase.
D) Cancer cells will reach a balance between cell birth and cell death rate.
E) Cancer cells never reach a flattened growth rate.
Ans: B, C Feedback: One of the reasons cancerous tumors often seem to grow so rapidly
relates to the size of the cell pool that is actively engaged in cycling. It has been shown that the cell
cycle time of cancerous tissue cells is not necessarily shorter than that of normal cells. Rather, cancer
cells do not die on schedule, and growth factors prevent cells from exiting the cell cycle and entering
the G0 or noncycling phase. The ratio of dividing cells to resting cells in a tissue mass is called the
growth fraction. The doubling time is the length of time it takes for the total mass of cells in a tumor
to double. As the growth fraction increases, the doubling time decreases. When normal tissues reach
their adult size, an equilibrium between cell birth and cell death is reached. Cancer cells, however,
continue to divide until limitations in blood supply and nutrients inhibit their growth. When this
occurs, the doubling time for cancer cells decreases. The initial growth rate is exponential and then
tends to decrease or flatten out over time.
6. Although growth rate is variable among types of bacteria, the growth of bacteria is dependent
on:
A) Biofilm communication B) Availability of nutrients C)An intact protein capsid
D) Individual cell motility
Ans: B
Feedback: Bacterial growth is dependent upon the availability of nutrients and physical
growth conditions. Bacteria prefer to colonize as biofilm and communicate with other bacteria within
the biofilm, but biofilm is not necessary for growth. Viruses (not bacteria) form a capsid. Although
some bacteria have projections for motility, these are not necessary for growth.
7. Which of the following outpatients are at a greater risk for developing Treponema pallidum,
the cause of syphilis? Select all that apply.
, NURSING MSN570- HESI RN ADVANCED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY EXAM-graded-2022
A) A homeless adolescent female performing oral sex for money
B) A male who frequents clubs catering to exotic dancers and sexual favors
C) A homosexual male couple who have had a monogamous relationship for the past 20 years
D) An older adult female living in a condominium who regularly has sex with three to four
different men/week
Ans: A, B, D
Feedback:
Treponema pallidum is a sexually transmitted infection that is spread by direct physical
contact. The Borrelia type of spirochete is spread from animals to humans through lice or tick bites.
Leptospira spirochetes spread from animals to humans through contact with infected animal urine.
Spirochetes are anaerobic; therefore, they would not invade the host through oxygen-filled aerobic
lungs.
8. Chlamydiaceae have characteristics of both viruses and bacteria and are a rather common
sexually transmitted infectious organism. After entry into the host, they transform into a reticulate
body. The health care provider should monitor which of the following clients for this possible
infection? Select all that apply.
A) An adult male who raises a number of exotic birds in his home
B) A drug abuser looking to share needles/syringes
C) A newborn with a noticeable eye infection
D) A teenager who swims in the lake regularly
Ans: A, B, C
Feedback:
Chlamydiaceae are in the form of an elementary body when infectious and outside of the host
cell. Once an organism enters the cell, it transforms into a large reticulate body. This undergoes active
replication into multiple elementary bodies, which are then shed into the extracellular environment to
initiate another infectious cycle. Chlamydial diseases of humans include sexually transmitted genital
infections (Chlamydophila trachomatis); ocular infections and pneumonia of newborns (C.
trachomatis); upper and lower respiratory tract infections in children, adolescents, and young adults
(Chlamydophila pneumoniae); and respiratory disease acquired from infected birds (Chlamydophila
psittaci).
, NURSING MSN570- HESI RN ADVANCED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY EXAM-graded-2022
9. A client has been diagnosed with Coxiella burnetii infection. She asked the health care
provider how she could have gotten this disease. The health care provider's best response is:
A) “Probably while walking outside without your shoes on.”
B) “While swimming in an unsanitary pond.”
C) “Drinking contaminated milk.”
D) “Eating undercooked fish.”
Ans: C
Feedback:
In humans, Coxiella infection produces a disease called Q fever, characterized by a nonspecific
febrile illness often accompanied by headache, chills, arthralgias, and mild pneumonia. The organism
produces a highly resistant sporelike stage that is transmitted to humans when contaminated animal
tissue is aerosolized (e.g., during meat processing) or by ingestion of contaminated milk.
10. A teenage male develops a severe case of “athlete's foot.” He asks, “How did I get this?” The
health care worker explains that certain fungi become infectious (called dermatophytes) and exhibit
which of the following characteristics?
A) Prefer to grow in warm environments like shoes/socks
B) Like a moist environment
C) Limited to cooler cutaneous surfaces
D) Need higher blood flow to survive
Ans: C
Feedback:
Dermatophytes are not able to grow at core body temperature, preferring the cooler surface
skin areas instead of moist skin folds. Diseases caused by these organisms, including ringworm,
athlete's foot, and jock itch, are collectively called superficial mycoses.
