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AORN PERIOP 101 2022 – Questions and Answers

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AORN PERIOP 101 2022 – Questions and Answers

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AORN PERIOP 101 2022 – Questions and Answers

All the following professionals are qualified to provide anesthesia to a patient
EXCEPT:
a) anesthesiologist
b) CRNA
c) anesthesiology assistant
d) operating surgeon Correct Ans - d) operating surgeon

Of the following, which is not used to secure airway:
a) ET tube
b) LMA
c) nasal cannula
d) oral airway Correct Ans - c) nasal cannula

The perioperative team should know the location of equipment stored in the OR and
in the department. Equipment that the anesthesia provider may request includes:
a) video laryngoscopy devices
b) fiberoptic bronchoscopes
c) suction tips and devices
d) all of the above Correct Ans - d) all of the above

General Anesthesia Correct Ans - a drug-induced reversible state of
unconsciousness, it includes amnesia, analgesia, loss of responsiveness, decreased
stress response, and loss of skeletal muscle reflexes to varying degree

Regional Anesthesia Correct Ans - an injection of local anesthetics near nerve
fibers to cause reversible loss of sensation over an area of the body, common
examples include spinal, epidural, and peripheral nerve blocks

Monitored Anesthesia Care (MAC) Correct Ans - when an anesthesia provider
monitors the patient, administers sedatives and other agents as needed, and
provides medical services as needed

Moderate Sedation Correct Ans - the administration of sedative, analgesic, and/or
anxiolytic agents by a physician or under physician supervision. Depending on state
laws and hospital policies, a perioperative nurse may be able to administer this type
of anesthesia

Local Anesthesia Correct Ans - The infiltration or topical administration of agents
to anesthetize a part of the body. It is typically used for minor procedures, does not
involve an anesthesia provider, and does not involve sedation. A perioperative
nurse monitors the patient and provides supportive care if needed.

The phases of general anesthesia, in order, are:
a) induction, maintenance, emergence
b) emergence, maintenance, induction
c) maintenance, emergence, induction

,d) induction, emergence, maintenance Correct Ans - a) induction, maintenance,
emergence

Propofol Correct Ans - IV induction agent

etomidate Correct Ans - IV induction agent

methohexitol Correct Ans - IV induction agent

IV induction agent Correct Ans - ketamine

sevoflurane with or without nitric oxide Correct Ans - inhaled induction agent

Succinylcholine Correct Ans - short-acting muscle relaxant

cisatracurium Correct Ans - intermediate-acting muscle relaxant

atracurium Correct Ans - intermediate-acting muscle relaxant

rocuronium Correct Ans - intermediate-acting muscle relaxant

vecuronium Correct Ans - intermediate-acting muscle relaxant

pancuronium Correct Ans - long-acting muscle relaxant

isoflurane Correct Ans - used for inhalation maintenance

desflurane Correct Ans - used for inhalation maintenance

total iv anesthesia (TIVA) Correct Ans - a technique for maintaining anesthesia
using infusions of short-acting IV agents without inhalation anesthetics. Propofol
and remifentanil are often used for TIVA.

Reversal agent for succinylcholine Correct Ans - none!

neostigmine Correct Ans - reversal for muscle relaxant (except succinylcholine)

edrophonium Correct Ans - reversal for muscle relaxant (except succinylcholine)

sugammadex Correct Ans - reversal agent for rocuronium, vecuronium, and
pancuronium

flumazenil Correct Ans - reversal agent for benzos (midazolam)

naloxone Correct Ans - reversal agent for narcotics (fentanyl)

which of the following type of airway maintenance usually requires muscle
relazants?
a) spontaneous respiration
b) mask ventilation

, c) laryngeal mask airway
d) endotracheal intubation Correct Ans - d) endotracheal intubation

When should cricoid pressure be released?
a) if the patient coughs
b) when the patient loses consciousness
c) if the anesthesia provider cannot see the vocal cords
d) after the cuff of the ET tube is inflated and the position is confirmed Correct Ans
- d) after the cuff of the ET tube is inflated and the position is confirmed

lidocaine Correct Ans - local anesthetic

bupivacaine Correct Ans - local anesthetic

ropivacaine Correct Ans - local anesthetic

tetracaine Correct Ans - for long-acting spinal anesthesia

epinephrine (anesthesia) Correct Ans - added to increase density and duration of
a regional block

bicarbonate (anesthesia) Correct Ans - sometimes added to reduce the acidity of
the local anesthetic and speed the onset of the block

Spinal Anesthesia Correct Ans - the subarachnoid space is entered and local
anesthetic is injected directly into the spinal canal, pt sitting or lateral

Epidural Anesthesia Correct Ans - the anesthesia care provider finds the space
between the ligamentum flavum and dura, this space is identified by a loss of
resistance as the needle is advanced, a single dose of anesthetic can be injected, or
a catheter can be placed

IV regional anesthesia (Bier Block) Correct Ans - used for procedures on hand,
wrist, or forearm (double tourniquet method)

Local Anesthetic System Toxicity (LAST) Correct Ans - can occur if unsafe amount
of local anesthetic enters bloodstream, can occur slowly as med is absorbed over
time, or quickly if accidentally injected into blood vessel
CAN PROGRESS TO SEIZURES AND CARDIAC OR RESP ARREST

Symptoms of LAST Correct Ans - -ringing in ears
-tingling lips
-metallic taste in mouth
-dizziness

Sedation can be used with any of the following types of anesthesia except:
a) regional anesthesia
b) monitored anesthesia care
c) general anesthesia
d) local anesthesia Correct Ans - d) local anesthesia

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