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Audit Final Exam(Ch. 7..1-6 Ch. 8..7-14 Ch. 9..15-18 Ch 10..18-28 Ch. 13..29-36 Ch. 14..37-57 Ch. 24..58-74)

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Which of the following is not one of the four decisions about what evidence to gather and how much of it to accumulate? A) Which audit procedures to use B) Which accounts must agree to the general ledger C) When to perform the procedures D) What sample size to select for a given procedure B Which of the following is not a characteristic of the reliability of evidence? A) Effectiveness of client internal controls B) Education of auditor C) Independence of information provider D) Timeliness B 00:43 00:54 The auditor must gather sufficient and appropriate evidence during the course of the audit. Sufficient evidence must: A) be well documented and cross-referenced in the audit documents. B) be based on sources that are external to company. C) provide evidence that prove or disprove an audit objective/assertion. D) be persuasive enough to enable the auditor to issue an audit report. D Which of the following forms of evidence would be least persuasive in forming the auditor's opinion about marketable securities and other investments held by the company? A) Responses to auditor's questions by the president and controller regarding the investments account B) Correspondence with a stockbroker regarding the quantity of client's investments held in street name by the broker C) Minutes of the board of directors authorizing the purchase of stock as an investment D) The auditor's count of marketable securities A Determine which of the following is most correct regarding the reliability of audit evidence. A) Information that is indirectly obtained from external sources is the most reliable audit evidence. B) Reliability of audit evidence is dependent upon the evidence being subjective. C) Reliability of evidence refers to the amount of evidence obtained. D) If internal controls are effective, evidence obtained is more reliable than when the controls are not effective. D To be considered reliable evidence, confirmations must be controlled by: A) the client's employee responsible for accounts receivable. B) the external auditor. C) the client's internal audit department. D) the client's controller or CFO. B A measure of how willing the auditor is to accept that the financial statements may be materially misstated after the audit is completed and an unqualified opinion has been issued is the: A) inherent risk. B) acceptable audit risk. C) statistical risk. D) financial risk. B A measure of the auditor's assessment of the likelihood that there are material misstatements in an account before considering the effectiveness of the client's internal control is called: A) control risk. B) acceptable audit risk. C) statistical risk. D) inherent risk. D When dealing with audit risk: A) auditors accept some level of risk in performing the audit function. B) most risks that auditors encounter are relatively easy to measure. C) the audit risk model is only used for classes of transactions. D) most audit firms prefer to use a quantitative assessment for risk A Initial audit planning involves four matters. Which of the following is not one of these? A) Develop an overall audit strategy. B) Request that bank balances be confirmed. C) Schedule engagement staff and audit specialists. D) Identify the client's reason for the audit. B Most auditors assess inherent risk as high for related parties and related-party transactions because: A) of the unique classification of related-party transactions required on the balance sheet. B) of the lack of independence between the parties. C) of the unique classification of related-party transactions required on the income statement. D) it is required by generally accepted accounting principles. B An official record of meetings of the board of directors and stockholders is included in the corporate: A) bylaws. B) charter. C) minutes. D) license. C Analytical procedures: A) are not a type of audit evidence. B) are not required during the completion phase of the audit. C) performed during the planning phase of the audit are used as a substantive test in support of account balances. D) performed in the completion phase serve as a final review for material misstatements or financial problems. D Which of the following statements is not correct with respect to analytical procedures? A) Auditing standards emphasize the need for auditors to develop and use expectations. B) Analytical procedures must be performed throughout the audit. C) Analytical procedures may be performed at any time during the audit. D) Analytical procedures use comparisons and relationships to assess whether account balances appear reasonable. B Audit standards require the auditor to consider materiality early in the audit. Which statement(s) regarding preliminary materiality are true? I. Preliminary materiality may change during the engagement. II. Preliminary materiality is the maximum amount by which the auditor believes the financials could be misstated and still not affect the decisions of reasonable users. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither are true C The measurement of the auditor's assessment of the likelihood that there are material misstatements due to error or fraud in a segment before considering the effectiveness of internal controls is defined as: A) audit risk. B) inherent risk. C) sampling risk. D) detection risk B

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Audit Final Exam
Which of the following is not one of the four decisions about what evidence to gather
and how much of it to accumulate?
A) Which audit procedures to use
B) Which accounts must agree to the general ledger
C) When to perform the procedures
D) What sample size to select for a given procedure - Answer B

Which of the following is not a characteristic of the reliability of evidence?
A) Effectiveness of client internal controls
B) Education of auditor
C) Independence of information provider
D) Timeliness - Answer B

The auditor must gather sufficient and appropriate evidence during the course of the
audit. Sufficient evidence must:
A) be well documented and cross-referenced in the audit documents.
B) be based on sources that are external to company.
C) provide evidence that prove or disprove an audit objective/assertion.
D) be persuasive enough to enable the auditor to issue an audit report. - Answer D

Which of the following forms of evidence would be least persuasive in forming the
auditor's opinion about marketable securities and other investments held by the
company?
A) Responses to auditor's questions by the president and controller regarding the
investments account
B) Correspondence with a stockbroker regarding the quantity of client's investments
held in street name by the broker
C) Minutes of the board of directors authorizing the purchase of stock as an investment
D) The auditor's count of marketable securities - Answer A

Determine which of the following is most correct regarding the reliability of audit
evidence.
A) Information that is indirectly obtained from external sources is the most reliable audit
evidence.
B) Reliability of audit evidence is dependent upon the evidence being subjective.
C) Reliability of evidence refers to the amount of evidence obtained.
D) If internal controls are effective, evidence obtained is more reliable than when the
controls are not effective. - Answer D

To be considered reliable evidence, confirmations must be controlled by:
A) the client's employee responsible for accounts receivable.
B) the external auditor.
C) the client's internal audit department.

, D) the client's controller or CFO. - Answer B

A measure of how willing the auditor is to accept that the financial statements may be
materially misstated after the audit is completed and an unqualified opinion has been
issued is the:
A) inherent risk.
B) acceptable audit risk.
C) statistical risk.
D) financial risk. - Answer B

A measure of the auditor's assessment of the likelihood that there are material
misstatements in an account before considering the effectiveness of the client's internal
control is called:
A) control risk.
B) acceptable audit risk.
C) statistical risk.
D) inherent risk. - Answer D

When dealing with audit risk:
A) auditors accept some level of risk in performing the audit function.
B) most risks that auditors encounter are relatively easy to measure.
C) the audit risk model is only used for classes of transactions.
D) most audit firms prefer to use a quantitative assessment for risk - Answer A

Initial audit planning involves four matters. Which of the following is not one of these?
A) Develop an overall audit strategy.
B) Request that bank balances be confirmed.
C) Schedule engagement staff and audit specialists.
D) Identify the client's reason for the audit. - Answer B

Most auditors assess inherent risk as high for related parties and related-party
transactions because:
A) of the unique classification of related-party transactions required on the balance
sheet.
B) of the lack of independence between the parties.
C) of the unique classification of related-party transactions required on the income
statement.
D) it is required by generally accepted accounting principles. - Answer B

An official record of meetings of the board of directors and stockholders is included in
the corporate:
A) bylaws.
B) charter.
C) minutes.
D) license. - Answer C

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