PHARMACOLOGY HESI PRACTICE EXAM QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS ALL SOLVED SOLUTION
which symptoms are serious adverse effects of beta-adrenergic blockers such as propranolol
(inderal)?
A. Headache, hypertension, and blurred vision.
B. Wheezing, hypotension, and AV block.
C. Vomiting, dilated pupils, and papilledema.
D. Tinnitus, muscle weakness, and tachypnea. - CORRECT ANSWER B. Wheezing,
hypotension, and AV block.
(B) represents the most serious adverse effects of beta-blocking agents. AV block is generally
associated with bradycardia and results in potentially life-threatening decreases in cardiac
output. Additionally, wheezing secondary to bronchospasm and hypotension represent life-
threatening respiratory and cardiac disorders. (A, C, and D) are not associated with beta-
blockers.
The healthcare provider prescribes naloxone (Narcan) for a client in the emergency room.
Which assessment data would indicate that the naloxone has been effective? The client's...
A. Statement that the chest pain is better
B) respiratory rate is 16 breaths/minute.
C) seizure activity has stopped temporarily.
D) pupils are constricted bilaterally. - CORRECT ANSWER B.
Naloxone (Narcan) is a narcotic antagonist that reverses the respiratory depression effects of
opiate overdose, so assessment of a normal respiratory rate (B) would indicate that the
respiratory depression has been halted. (A, C, and D) are not related to naloxone (Narcan)
administration.
A client has myxedema, which results from a deficiency of thyroid hormone synthesis in adults.
The nurse knows that which medication should be contraindicated for this client?
A. liothyronine (cytomel) to replace iodine
B. Furosemide (Lasix) for relief of fluid retention
C. Pentobarbital sodium for sleep
D. nitroglycerin for angina pain - CORRECT ANSWER C. persons with myxedema are
dangerously hypersensitive to narcotics, barbiturates, and anesthetics. They do not tolerate
liothyronine and usually receive iodine replacement therapy. These clients are also suceptable
,to heart problems such as angina for which nitroglycerine would be indicated and and
congestive heart failure for which furosemide would be indicated
A client with osteoarthritis receives a new prescription for celecoxib (Celebrex) orally for
symptom management. The nurse notes the client is allergic to sulfa. Which action is most
important for the nurse to implement prior to administering the first dose?
A) Review the client's hemoglobin results.
B) Notify the healthcare provider.
C) Inquire about the reaction to sulfa.
D) Record the client's vital signs. - CORRECT ANSWER B.
Celebrex contains a sulfur molecule, which can lead to an allergic reaction in individuals who
are sensitive to sulfonamides, so the healthcare provider should be notified of the client's
allergies (B). Although (A, C, and D) are important assessments, it is most important to notify
the healthcare provider for an alternate prescription.
The client with a dysrhythmia is to receive procainamide (pronestyl) in 4 divided doses over the
next 24 hours. What dosing schedule is best for the nurse to implement?
A. q4h
B. QID
C. AC and bedtime
D. PC and bedtime - CORRECT ANSWER A. q6h
A client has a continous IV infusion of dopamine (Intropin) and an IV of normal saline at 50
ml/hour. The nurse notes that the client's urinary output has been 20 ml/hour for the last two
hours. Which intervention should the nurse initiate?
A. Stop the infusion of dopamine
B. Change the normal saline to a keep open rate.
C. Replace the urinary catheter.
D. Notify the healthcare provider of the urinary output. - CORRECT ANSWER D. Notify the
healthcare provider of the urinary output.
An adult client has prescriptions for morphine sulfate 2.5 mg IV q6h and ketorlac (toradol) 30mg
IV q6h. which action should the nurse implement?
A. administer both medications according to the prescription
, B. Hold the ketorolac to prevent an antagonist effect
C. Hold the morphine to prevent an additive drug interaction
D. Contact the healthcare provider to clarify the prescription - CORRECT ANSWER A.
Administer both medications according to the prescription
Morphine and ketorolac can be administered concurrently and may produce additive analgesic
effect resulting in ability to reduce the dose of morphine, as seen in this prescription
A client is being treated for hyperthyridism with propylthiouracil (PTU). The nurse knows that the
action of this drug is to:
A. decrease the amount of thyroid stimulating hormone circulating in the blood.
B. increase the amount of thyroid-stimulating hormone circulating in the blood.
C. increase the amount of T4 and decrease the amount of T3 produced by the thyroid.
D. inhibit synthesis of T3 and T4 by the thyroid gland. - CORRECT ANSWER D. PTU is an
adjunct therapy used to control hyperthyroidism by inhibiting production of thyroid hormones. It
is often prescribed in prep for thyroidectomy or radioactive iodine therapy
A female client with RA takes ibuprofen (motrin) 600mg PO 4xday. To preven GI bleeding,
misoprostol (cytotec) 100mcg PO is prescribed. Which information is most important for the
nurse to include in client teaching?
A. use contraception during intercourse
B. ensure the cytotec is taken on an empty stomach
C. encourage oral fluid intake to prevent constipation
D. take cytotec 30min prior to motrin - CORRECT ANSWER A. Use contraception during
intercourse.
Cytotec, a synthetic form of prostaglandin, is classified as pregnancy category X and can act as
an abortifacient, so the client should be instructed to use contraception during intercourse to
prevent loss of early pregnancy
Dobutamine (Dobutrex) is an emergency drug most commonly prescribed for a client with which
condition?
A) Shock.
B) Asthma.
C) Hypotension.
D) Heart failure - CORRECT ANSWER D. Heart Failure
ANSWERS ALL SOLVED SOLUTION
which symptoms are serious adverse effects of beta-adrenergic blockers such as propranolol
(inderal)?
A. Headache, hypertension, and blurred vision.
B. Wheezing, hypotension, and AV block.
C. Vomiting, dilated pupils, and papilledema.
D. Tinnitus, muscle weakness, and tachypnea. - CORRECT ANSWER B. Wheezing,
hypotension, and AV block.
(B) represents the most serious adverse effects of beta-blocking agents. AV block is generally
associated with bradycardia and results in potentially life-threatening decreases in cardiac
output. Additionally, wheezing secondary to bronchospasm and hypotension represent life-
threatening respiratory and cardiac disorders. (A, C, and D) are not associated with beta-
blockers.
The healthcare provider prescribes naloxone (Narcan) for a client in the emergency room.
Which assessment data would indicate that the naloxone has been effective? The client's...
A. Statement that the chest pain is better
B) respiratory rate is 16 breaths/minute.
C) seizure activity has stopped temporarily.
D) pupils are constricted bilaterally. - CORRECT ANSWER B.
Naloxone (Narcan) is a narcotic antagonist that reverses the respiratory depression effects of
opiate overdose, so assessment of a normal respiratory rate (B) would indicate that the
respiratory depression has been halted. (A, C, and D) are not related to naloxone (Narcan)
administration.
A client has myxedema, which results from a deficiency of thyroid hormone synthesis in adults.
The nurse knows that which medication should be contraindicated for this client?
A. liothyronine (cytomel) to replace iodine
B. Furosemide (Lasix) for relief of fluid retention
C. Pentobarbital sodium for sleep
D. nitroglycerin for angina pain - CORRECT ANSWER C. persons with myxedema are
dangerously hypersensitive to narcotics, barbiturates, and anesthetics. They do not tolerate
liothyronine and usually receive iodine replacement therapy. These clients are also suceptable
,to heart problems such as angina for which nitroglycerine would be indicated and and
congestive heart failure for which furosemide would be indicated
A client with osteoarthritis receives a new prescription for celecoxib (Celebrex) orally for
symptom management. The nurse notes the client is allergic to sulfa. Which action is most
important for the nurse to implement prior to administering the first dose?
A) Review the client's hemoglobin results.
B) Notify the healthcare provider.
C) Inquire about the reaction to sulfa.
D) Record the client's vital signs. - CORRECT ANSWER B.
Celebrex contains a sulfur molecule, which can lead to an allergic reaction in individuals who
are sensitive to sulfonamides, so the healthcare provider should be notified of the client's
allergies (B). Although (A, C, and D) are important assessments, it is most important to notify
the healthcare provider for an alternate prescription.
The client with a dysrhythmia is to receive procainamide (pronestyl) in 4 divided doses over the
next 24 hours. What dosing schedule is best for the nurse to implement?
A. q4h
B. QID
C. AC and bedtime
D. PC and bedtime - CORRECT ANSWER A. q6h
A client has a continous IV infusion of dopamine (Intropin) and an IV of normal saline at 50
ml/hour. The nurse notes that the client's urinary output has been 20 ml/hour for the last two
hours. Which intervention should the nurse initiate?
A. Stop the infusion of dopamine
B. Change the normal saline to a keep open rate.
C. Replace the urinary catheter.
D. Notify the healthcare provider of the urinary output. - CORRECT ANSWER D. Notify the
healthcare provider of the urinary output.
An adult client has prescriptions for morphine sulfate 2.5 mg IV q6h and ketorlac (toradol) 30mg
IV q6h. which action should the nurse implement?
A. administer both medications according to the prescription
, B. Hold the ketorolac to prevent an antagonist effect
C. Hold the morphine to prevent an additive drug interaction
D. Contact the healthcare provider to clarify the prescription - CORRECT ANSWER A.
Administer both medications according to the prescription
Morphine and ketorolac can be administered concurrently and may produce additive analgesic
effect resulting in ability to reduce the dose of morphine, as seen in this prescription
A client is being treated for hyperthyridism with propylthiouracil (PTU). The nurse knows that the
action of this drug is to:
A. decrease the amount of thyroid stimulating hormone circulating in the blood.
B. increase the amount of thyroid-stimulating hormone circulating in the blood.
C. increase the amount of T4 and decrease the amount of T3 produced by the thyroid.
D. inhibit synthesis of T3 and T4 by the thyroid gland. - CORRECT ANSWER D. PTU is an
adjunct therapy used to control hyperthyroidism by inhibiting production of thyroid hormones. It
is often prescribed in prep for thyroidectomy or radioactive iodine therapy
A female client with RA takes ibuprofen (motrin) 600mg PO 4xday. To preven GI bleeding,
misoprostol (cytotec) 100mcg PO is prescribed. Which information is most important for the
nurse to include in client teaching?
A. use contraception during intercourse
B. ensure the cytotec is taken on an empty stomach
C. encourage oral fluid intake to prevent constipation
D. take cytotec 30min prior to motrin - CORRECT ANSWER A. Use contraception during
intercourse.
Cytotec, a synthetic form of prostaglandin, is classified as pregnancy category X and can act as
an abortifacient, so the client should be instructed to use contraception during intercourse to
prevent loss of early pregnancy
Dobutamine (Dobutrex) is an emergency drug most commonly prescribed for a client with which
condition?
A) Shock.
B) Asthma.
C) Hypotension.
D) Heart failure - CORRECT ANSWER D. Heart Failure
