NURS-6630N
Test
Week 11 Final Exam
Course
NURS-6630N
Test
Week 11 Final Exam
• Question 1
0 out of 1 points
A patient diagnosed with obsessive compulsive disorder has been
taking a high-dose SSRI and is participating in therapy twice a week.
He reports an inability to carry out responsibilities due to consistent
interferences of his obsessions and compulsions. The PMHNP
knows that the next step would be which of the following?
Selected Answer: B.
Decrease his SSRI and add an MAOI.
• Question 2
0 out of 1 points
Which statement best describes a pharmacological approach to treating
patients for impulsive aggression?
Selected Answer:
, NURS-6630N
Test
Week 11 Final Exam
B. rease subcortical dopaminergic stimulation.
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, NURS-6630N
Test
Week 11 Final Exam
• Question 3
0 out of 1 points
The PMHNP evaluates a patient presenting with symptoms of
dementia. Before the PMHNP considers treatment options, the patient
must be assessed for other possible causes of dementia. Which of the
following answers addresses both possible other causes of dementia
and a rational treatment option for Dementia?
Selected B.
Answer: Possible other causes: hypothyroidism,
adrenal insufficiency, hyperparathyroidism
Possible treatment option: donepezil
• Question 4
1 out of 1 points
An 80-year-old female patient diagnosed with Stage II Alzheimer’s has
a history of irritable bowel syndrome. Which cholinergic drug may be
the best choice for treatment given the patient’s gastrointestinal
problems?
Selected Answer: A.
Donepezil (Aricept)
• Question 5
0 out of 1 points
The PMHNP is teaching parents about their child’s new prescription
, NURS-6630N
Test
Week 11 Final Exam
for Ritalin. What will the PMHNP include in the teaching?
Selected Answer: D.
There will be continued effects into the evening.
Test
Week 11 Final Exam
Course
NURS-6630N
Test
Week 11 Final Exam
• Question 1
0 out of 1 points
A patient diagnosed with obsessive compulsive disorder has been
taking a high-dose SSRI and is participating in therapy twice a week.
He reports an inability to carry out responsibilities due to consistent
interferences of his obsessions and compulsions. The PMHNP
knows that the next step would be which of the following?
Selected Answer: B.
Decrease his SSRI and add an MAOI.
• Question 2
0 out of 1 points
Which statement best describes a pharmacological approach to treating
patients for impulsive aggression?
Selected Answer:
, NURS-6630N
Test
Week 11 Final Exam
B. rease subcortical dopaminergic stimulation.
A
t
y
p
i
c
a
l
a
n
t
i
p
s
y
c
h
o
t
i
c
s
c
a
n
i
n
c
, NURS-6630N
Test
Week 11 Final Exam
• Question 3
0 out of 1 points
The PMHNP evaluates a patient presenting with symptoms of
dementia. Before the PMHNP considers treatment options, the patient
must be assessed for other possible causes of dementia. Which of the
following answers addresses both possible other causes of dementia
and a rational treatment option for Dementia?
Selected B.
Answer: Possible other causes: hypothyroidism,
adrenal insufficiency, hyperparathyroidism
Possible treatment option: donepezil
• Question 4
1 out of 1 points
An 80-year-old female patient diagnosed with Stage II Alzheimer’s has
a history of irritable bowel syndrome. Which cholinergic drug may be
the best choice for treatment given the patient’s gastrointestinal
problems?
Selected Answer: A.
Donepezil (Aricept)
• Question 5
0 out of 1 points
The PMHNP is teaching parents about their child’s new prescription
, NURS-6630N
Test
Week 11 Final Exam
for Ritalin. What will the PMHNP include in the teaching?
Selected Answer: D.
There will be continued effects into the evening.
